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Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC / Publish

- by SevenCentral

I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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Lookup site column not saving/storing metadata for Office 2007 documents?

- by Greg Hurlman

I'm having this issue on several server environments. We have a list at the site collection root. There is a site column created as a multi-value lookup on that list's Title field. This site column is used in document libraries in subsites as a required field. When we upload anything but an Office 2007 document, the user is presented with the document metadata fill-in screen (EditForm.aspx?Mode=Upload), the user fills in the appropriate data (including picking a value(s) for this lookup), and clicks "check in" - the document is checked in as expected, with the lookup field's value filled in. With an Office 2007 document, this fails. The user selected values for the lookup field do not ever make it to the server - no errors are thrown, but the field is not saved with the document. We have an event listener on these document libraries, and if we inspect the incoming SPListItem on the event listener method before a single line of our code has run, we see that the value for the lookup field is null. It smells like a SharePoint bug to me - but before I go calling Microsoft, has anyone seen this & worked around it? Edit: the only entry I see in the SP trace logs relating to the problem: CMS/Publishing/8ztg/Medium/Got List Item Version, but item was null

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In C#, are event handler arguments contravariant?

- by Roger Lipscombe

If I have a class that raises an event, with (e.g.) FrobbingEventArgs, am I allowed to handle it with a method that takes EventArgs? Here's some code: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Frobber frobber = new Frobber(); frobber.Frobbing += FrobberOnFrobbing; frobber.Frob(); } private static void FrobberOnFrobbing(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Do something interesting. Note that the parameter is 'EventArgs'. } } internal class Frobber { public event EventHandler<FrobbingEventArgs> Frobbing; public event EventHandler<FrobbedEventArgs> Frobbed; public void Frob() { OnFrobbing(); // Frob. OnFrobbed(); } private void OnFrobbing() { var handler = Frobbing; if (handler != null) handler(this, new FrobbingEventArgs()); } private void OnFrobbed() { var handler = Frobbed; if (handler != null) handler(this, new FrobbedEventArgs()); } } internal class FrobbedEventArgs : EventArgs { } internal class FrobbingEventArgs : EventArgs { } The reason I ask is that ReSharper seems to have a problem with (what looks like) the equivalent in XAML, and I'm wondering if it's a bug in ReSharper, or a mistake in my understanding of C#.

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Oracle why does creating trigger fail when there is a field called timestamp?

- by Omar Kooheji

I've just wasted the past two hours of my life trying to create a table with an auto incrementing primary key bases on this tutorial, The tutorial is great the issue I've been encountering is that the Create Target fails if I have a column which is a timestamp and a table that is called timestamp in the same table... Why doesn't oracle flag this as being an issue when I create the table? Here is the Sequence of commands I enter: Creating the Table: CREATE TABLE myTable (id NUMBER PRIMARY KEY, field1 TIMESTAMP(6), timeStamp NUMBER, ); Creating the Sequence: CREATE SEQUENCE test_sequence START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1; Creating the trigger: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER test_trigger BEFORE INSERT ON myTable REFERENCING NEW AS NEW FOR EACH ROW BEGIN SELECT test_sequence.nextval INTO :NEW.ID FROM dual; END; / Here is the error message I get: ORA-06552: PL/SQL: Compilation unit analysis terminated ORA-06553: PLS-320: the declaration of the type of this expression is incomplete or malformed Any combination that does not have the two lines with a the word "timestamp" in them works fine. I would have thought the syntax would be enough to differentiate between the keyword and a column name. As I've said I don't understand why the table is created fine but oracle falls over when I try to create the trigger... CLARIFICATION I know that the issue is that there is a column called timestamp which may or may not be a keyword. MY issue is why it barfed when I tried to create a trigger and not when I created the table, I would have at least expected a warning. That said having used Oracle for a few hours, it seems a lot less verbose in it's error reporting, Maybe just because I'm using the express version though. If this is a bug in Oracle how would one who doesn't have a support contract go about reporting it? I'm just playing around with the express version because I have to migrate some code from MySQL to Oracle.

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MVC 4 Beta with Mobile Project FIle Upload does not work

- by Jim Shaffer

I am playing around with the new MVC 4 beta release. I created a new web project using the Mobile Application template. I simply added a controller and a view to upload a file, but the file is always null in the action result. Is this a bug, or am I doing something wrong? Controller Code: using System.IO; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; namespace MobileWebExample.Controllers { public class FileUploadController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [AllowAnonymous] [HttpPost] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload(HttpPostedFileBase file) { int i = Request.Files.Count; if (file != null) { if (file.ContentLength > 0) { var fileName = Path.GetFileName(file.FileName); var path = Path.Combine(Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/uploads"), fileName); file.SaveAs(path); } } return RedirectToAction("Index"); } } } And the view looks like this: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Index"; } <h2>Index</h2> <form action="@Url.Action("Upload")" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <label for="file">Filename:</label> <input type="file" name="file" id="file" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form>

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Detecting whether user stayed after prompting onBeforeUnload

- by Daniel Magliola

In a web app I'm working on, I'm capturing onBeforeUnload to ask the user whether he really wants to exit. Now, if he decides to stay, there are a number of things I'd like to do. What I'm trying to figure out is that he actually chose to stay. I can of course declare a SetTimeout for "x" seconds, and if that fires, then it would mean the user is still there (because we didn't get unloaded). The problem is that the user can take any time to decide whether to stay or not... I was first hoping that while the dialog was showing, SetTimeout calls would not fire, so I could set a timeout for a short time and it'd only fire if the user chose to stay. However, timeouts do fire while the dialog is shown, so that doesn't work. Another idea I tried is capturing mouseMoves on the window/document. While the dialog is shown, mouseMoves indeed don't fire, except for one weird exception that really applies to my case, so that won't work either. Can anyone think of other way to do this? Thanks! (In case you're curious, the reason capturing mouseMove doesn't work is that I have an IFrame in my page, containing a site from another domain. If at the time of unloading the page, the focus is within the IFrame, while the dialog shows, then I get the MouseMove event firing ONCE when the mouse moves from inside the IFrame to the outside (at least in Firefox). That's probably a bug, but still, it's very likely that'll happen in our case, so I can't use this method).

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Grails Deployment - Fastest way to get deployed?

- by gav

Hi All, If anyone has or is running a Grails application on their server I would appreciate some details on where to go after creating the WAR. Background I chose grails because with Google App Engine and the App Engine Plugin deployment should have been trivial. This issue is that there is a bug which makes any application pretty much unusable, I wish this had been more prominent so I didn't have to get to the point of seeing the error myself before I was aware of it. The next option was EC2 and the Cloud Tools plugin, it seems Cloud Tools worked with grails 1.0 but doesn't work with the current 1.2.1 due to issues getting the JAR dependencies. It also seems that Cloud Tools has been succeeded by Cloud Foundry which is in beta, will cost extra money and has limited places (I signed up but haven't got an e-mail). Question My application is painfully trivial, it has a small load, small data requirements and doesn't need to scale past 5 users. How can I deploy my grails app as quickly and painlessly as possible? Specifically: Are there any hosting companies that have tomcat installed on their servers out of the box that I can sign up to and use that will just work? Do you know of any simple tutorials for getting a grails application deployed to EC2 without Cloud Tools? Thanks in advance, Gav Side-note: I picked grails because of good advice from SO, it should have been a very short time from development to deployed product except the tools for auto-deployment aren't that mature and I've never configured a server before.

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Returning searched results in an array in Java without ArrayList

- by Crystal

I started down this path of implementing a simple search in an array for a hw assignment without knowing we could use ArrayList. I realized it had some bugs in it and figured I'd still try to know what my bug is before using ArrayList. I basically have a class where I can add, remove, or search from an array. public class AcmeLoanManager { public void addLoan(Loan h) { int loanId = h.getLoanId(); loanArray[loanId - 1] = h; } public Loan[] getAllLoans() { return loanArray; } public Loan[] findLoans(Person p) { //Loan[] searchedLoanArray = new Loan[10]; // create new array to hold searched values searchedLoanArray = this.getAllLoans(); // fill new array with all values // Looks through only valid array values, and if Person p does not match using Person.equals() // sets that value to null. for (int i = 0; i < searchedLoanArray.length; i++) { if (searchedLoanArray[i] != null) { if (!(searchedLoanArray[i].getClient().equals(p))) { searchedLoanArray[i] = null; } } } return searchedLoanArray; } public void removeLoan(int loanId) { loanArray[loanId - 1] = null; } private Loan[] loanArray = new Loan[10]; private Loan[] searchedLoanArray = new Loan[10]; // separate array to hold values returned from search } When testing this, I thought it worked, but I think I am overwriting my member variable after I do a search. I initially thought that I could create a new Loan[] in the method and return that, but that didn't seem to work. Then I thought I could have two arrays. One that would not change, and the other just for the searched values. But I think I am not understanding something, like shallow vs deep copying???....

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Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC 2 / Publish Error

- by SevenCentral

I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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Mysql - What's wrong with the query...?

- by SpikETidE

Hi everybody.... I am trying to query a database to find the following If a customer searches for a hotel in a city between dates A and B, find and return the hotels in which rooms are free between the two dates. There will be more than one room in each room type(i.e. 5 Rooms in type A, 10 rooms in Type B etc) and we have to query the db to find only those hotels in which there is atleast one room free in atleast one type. This is my table structure.... **Structure for table 'reservations'** reservation_id hotel_id room_id customer_id payment_id no_of_rooms check_in_date check_out_date reservation_date **Structure for table 'hotels'** hotel_id hotel_name hotel_description hotel_address hotel_location hotel_country hotel_city hotel_type hotel_stars hotel_image hotel_deleted **Structure for table 'rooms'** room_id hotel_id room_name max_persons total_rooms room_price room_image agent_commision room_facilities service_tax vat city_tax room_description room_deleted And this is my query $city_search = '15'; $check_in_date = '29-03-2010'; $check_out_date = '31-03-2010'; $dateFormat_check_in = "DATE_FORMAT('$reservations.check_in_date','%d-%m-%Y')"; $dateFormat_check_out = "DATE_FORMAT('$reservations.check_out_date','%d-%m-%Y')"; $dateCheck = "$dateFormat_check_in >= '$check_in_date' AND $dateFormat_check_out <= '$check_out_date'"; $query = "SELECT $rooms.room_id, $rooms.room_name, $rooms.max_persons, $rooms.room_price, $hotels.hotel_id, $hotels.hotel_name, $hotels.hotel_stars, $hotels.hotel_type FROM $hotels,$rooms,$reservations WHERE $hotels.hotel_city = '$city_search' AND $hotels.hotel_id = $rooms.hotel_id AND $hotels.hotel_deleted = '0' AND $rooms.room_deleted = '0' AND $rooms.total_rooms - (SELECT SUM($reservations.no_of_rooms) as tot FROM $reservations WHERE $dateCheck GROUP BY $reservations.room_id) > '0'"; The number of rooms already reserved in each room type in each hotel will be stored in the reservations table... The thing is the query doesn't return any result at all...even though it should if i calculate it myself manually... I tried running the sub-query alone and i don't get any result... And i have lost quite some amount of hair trying to de-bug this query from yesterday... What's wrong with this...? Or is there a better way to do what i mentioned above...? Thanks for your time... Edit : Code edited to remove an bud... thanks to

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Mac CoreLocation Services does not ask for permissions

- by Ryan Nichols

I'm writing a Mac App that needs to use CoreLocation services. The code and location works fine, as long as I manually authenticate the service inside the security preference pane. However the framework is not automatically popping up with a permission dialog. The documentation states: Important The user has the option of denying an application’s access to the location service data. During its initial uses by an application, the Core Location framework prompts the user to confirm that using the location service is acceptable. If the user denies the request, the CLLocationManager object reports an appropriate error to its delegate during future requests. I do get an error to my delegate, and the value of +locationServicesEnabled is correct on CLLocationManager. The only part missing is the prompt to the user about permissions. This occurs on my development MPB and a friends MBP. Neither of us can figure out whats wrong. Has anyone run into this? Relevant code: _locationManager = [CLLocationManager new]; [_locationManager setDelegate:self]; [_locationManager setDesiredAccuracy:kCLLocationAccuracyKilometer]; ... [_locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; UPDATE: Answer It seems there is a problem with Sandboxing in which the CoreLocation framework is not allowed to talk to com.apple.CoreLocation.agent. I suspect this agent is responsible for prompting the user for permissions. If you add the Location Services Entitlement (com.apple.security.personal-information.location) it only gives your app the ability to use the CL framework. However you also need access to the CoreLocation agent to ask the user for permissions. You can give your app access by adding the entitlement 'com.apple.security.temporary-exception.mach-lookup.global-name' with a value of 'com.apple.CoreLocation.agent'. Users will be prompted for access automatically like you would expect. I've filed a bug to apple on this already.

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VS2010 Implement Generic Interface expansion doesn't use specified type

- by TJB

Using the release version of Visual Studio 2010 I think there's a difference in the "Implement Interface" expansion from VS2008 If I speicify an interface and implement it in a class as so: public interface IRepository<T> where T : IModel { T Get<T>(int id); void Update<T>(); int Add<T>(T item); } public class MockRepository : IRepository<MockUser> { // ... } Then use the "Implement Interface" expansion and get this: public class MockRepository : IRepository<MockUser> { public T Get<T>(int id) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public void Update<T>() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public int Add<T>(T item) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } Instead of what I expected public class MockRepository : IRepository<MockUser> { public MockUser Get<MockUser>(int id) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public void Update<MockUser>() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public int Add<MockUser>(MockUser item) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } The IDE uses the type variable name from the generic interface definition T instead of the specified concrete type MockUser. Is this a bug? Or is something new just for VS2010 / .Net 4.0?

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Python - wxPython custom button -> unbound method __init__()? what?

- by Wallter

After looking at questions like this it doesn't make sense that my __init__(self, parrent, id) would be throwing a unbound error? help? main.py import wx from customButton import customButton from wxPython.wx import * class MyFrame(wx.Frame): def __init__(self, parent, ID, title): wxFrame.__init__(self, parent, ID, title, wxDefaultPosition, wxSize(400, 400)) # Non-important code here... # This is the first declaration of the Button1 # This is also where the ERROR is thrown. # Omitting this line causes the window to execute # flawlessly. self.Button1 = customButton.__init__(self, parent, -1) # ... finishes in a basic wx.program style... customButton.py # I've included all of the code in the file # because have no idea where the bug/error happens import wx from wxPython.wx import * class Custom_Button(wx.PyControl): # The BMP's Over_bmp = None #wxEmptyBitmap(1,1,1) # When the mouse is over Norm_bmp = None #wxEmptyBitmap(1,1,1) # The normal BMP Push_bmp = None #wxEmptyBitmap(1,1,1) # The down BMP def __init__(self, parent, id, **kwargs): wx.PyControl.__init__(self,parent, id, **kwargs) # Set the BMP's to the ones given in the constructor #self.Over_bmp = wx.Bitmap(wx.Image(MOUSE_OVER_BMP, wx.BITMAP_TYPE_ANY).ConvertToBitmap()) #self.Norm_bmp = wx.Bitmap(wx.Image(NORM_BMP, wx.BITMAP_TYPE_ANY).ConvertToBitmap()) #self.Push_bmp = wx.Bitmap(wx.Image(PUSH_BMP, wx.BITMAP_TYPE_ANY).ConvertToBitmap()) #self.Pos_bmp = self.pos self.Bind(wx.EVT_LEFT_DOWN, self._onMouseDown) self.Bind(wx.EVT_LEFT_UP, self._onMouseUp) self.Bind(wx.EVT_LEAVE_WINDOW, self._onMouseLeave) self.Bind(wx.EVT_ENTER_WINDOW, self._onMouseEnter) self.Bind(wx.EVT_ERASE_BACKGROUND,self._onEraseBackground) self.Bind(wx.EVT_PAINT,self._onPaint) self._mouseIn = self._mouseDown = False def _onMouseEnter(self, event): self._mouseIn = True def _onMouseLeave(self, event): self._mouseIn = False def _onMouseDown(self, event): self._mouseDown = True def _onMouseUp(self, event): self._mouseDown = False self.sendButtonEvent() def sendButtonEvent(self): event = wx.CommandEvent(wx.wxEVT_COMMAND_BUTTON_CLICKED, self.GetId()) event.SetInt(0) event.SetEventObject(self) self.GetEventHandler().ProcessEvent(event) def _onEraseBackground(self,event): # reduce flicker pass def _onPaint(self, event): dc = wx.BufferedPaintDC(self) dc.SetFont(self.GetFont()) dc.SetBackground(wx.Brush(self.GetBackgroundColour())) dc.Clear() dc.DrawBitmap(self.Norm_bmp) # draw whatever you want to draw # draw glossy bitmaps e.g. dc.DrawBitmap if self._mouseIn: # If the Mouse is over the button dc.DrawBitmap(self, self.Mouse_over_bmp, self.Pos_bmp, useMask=False) if self._mouseDown: # If the Mouse clicks the button dc.DrawBitmap(self, self.Push_bmp, self.Pos_bmp, useMask=False)

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Unexplained crashs with coregraphic

- by Ziggy

Hello there, i'm on this bug for a week now, and i can't solve it. I have some crash with coregraphic calls, it happen randomly (sometimes after 2 mn, or just at the start), but often at the same places in the code. I have a class that just wrap a CGContext, it have a CGContextRef as member. This Object is re-created each time DrawRect() is called, so the CGContextRef is always up-to-date. The draw calls came from the main thread, only After looking for this kind of error, it appear that it should be object Release related. Here is an example of an error : #0 0x90d8a7a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x90d8a8b2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x90d0d0b6 in CFRetain #3 0x95e54a5d in CGColorRetain #4 0x95e5491d in CGGStateCreateCopy #5 0x95e5486d in CGGStackSave #6 0x95e54846 in CGContextSaveGState #7 0x00073500 in CAutoContextState::CAutoContextState at Context.cpp:47 the AutoContextSave() class look like this : class CAutoContextState { private: CGContextRef m_Hdc; public: CAutoContextState(const CGContextRef& Hdc) { m_Hdc = Hdc; CGContextSaveGState(m_Hdc); } virtual ~CAutoContextState() { CGContextRestoreGState(m_Hdc); } }; It crash at CGContextSaveGState(m_Hdc). Here is what i see into GDB: * -[Not A Type retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x16a148b0. When i type malloc-history on the address, i have this : 0: 0x954cf10c in malloc_zone_malloc 1: 0x90d0d201 in _CFRuntimeCreateInstance 2: 0x95e3fe88 in CGTypeCreateInstanceWithAllocator 3: 0x95e44297 in CGTypeCreateInstance 4: 0x95e58f57 in CGColorCreate 5: 0x71fdd in _ZN4Flux4Draw8CContext10DrawStringERKNS_7CStringEPKNS0_5CFontEPKNS0_6CBrushERKNS_5CRectENS0_12tagAlignmentESE_NS0_17tagStringTrimmingEfiPKf at /Volumes/Sources Mac/Flux/Sources/DotFlux/Projects/../Draw/CoreGraphic/Context.cpp:1029 Which point me at this line of code : f32 components[] = {pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfRed(), pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfGreen(), pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfBlue(), pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfAlpha()}; //{ 1.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.8 }; CGColorRef TextColor = CGColorCreate(rgbColorSpace, components); Point this func : CGColorCreate(); Any help would be appreciated, i need to finish this task very soon, but i don't know how to resolve this :( Thanks.

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FILE* issue PPU side code

- by Cristina

We are working on a homework on CELL programming for college and their feedback response to our questions is kinda slow, thought i can get some faster answers here. I have a PPU side code which tries to open a file passed down through char* argv[], however this doesn't work it cannot make the assignment of the pointer, i get a NULL. Now my first idea was that the file isn't in the correct directory and i copied in every possible and logical place, my second idea is that maybe the PPU wants this pointer in its LS area, but i can't deduce if that's the bug or not. So... My question is what am i doing wrong? I am working with a Fedora 7 SDK Cell, with Eclipse as an IDE. Maybe my argument setup is wrong tho he gets the name of the file correctly. Code on request: images_t *read_bin_data(char *name) { FILE *file; images_t *img; uint32_t *buffer; uint8_t buf; unsigned long fileLen; unsigned long i; //Open file file = (FILE*)malloc(sizeof(FILE)); file = fopen(name, "rb"); printf("[Debug]Opening file %s\n",name); if (!file) { fprintf(stderr, "Unable to open file %s", name); return NULL; } //....... } Main launch: int main(int argc,char* argv[]) { int i,img_width; int modif_this[4] __attribute__ ((aligned(16))) = {1,2,3,4}; images_t *faces, *nonfaces; spe_context_ptr_t ctxs[SPU_THREADS]; pthread_t threads[SPU_THREADS]; thread_arg_t arg[SPU_THREADS]; //intializare img_width img_width = atoi(argv[1]); printf("[Debug]Img size is %i\n",img_width); faces = read_bin_data(argv[3]); //....... } Thanks for the help.

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Having an issue with Nullable MySQL columns in SubSonic 3.0 templates

- by omegawkd

Looking at this line in the Settings.ttinclude string CheckNullable(Column col){ string result=""; if(col.IsNullable && col.SysType !="byte[]" && col.SysType !="string") result="?"; return result; } It describes how it determines if the column is nullable based on requirements and returns either "" or "?" to the generated code. Now I'm not too familiar with the ? nullable type operator but from what I can see a cast is required. For instance, if I have a nullable integer MySQL column and I generate the code using the default template files it returns a line similar to this: int? _User_ID; When trying to compile the project I get the error: Cannot implicitly convert type 'int?' to 'int'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) I checked teh Settings files for the other database types and they all seems to have the same routine. So my question is, is this behaviour expected or is this a bug? I need to solve it one way or the other before I can procede. Thanks for your help.

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How do I protect the trunk from hapless newbies?

- by Michael Haren

A coworker relayed the following problem, let's say it's fictional to protect the guilty: A team of 5-10 works on a project which is issue-driven. That is, the typical flow goes like this: a chunk of work (bug, enhancement, etc.) is created as an issue in the issue tracker The issue is assigned to a developer The developer resolves the issue and commits their code changes to the trunk At release time, the frozen, and heavily tested trunk or release branch or whatever is built in release mode and released The problem he's having is that a couple newbies made several bad commits that weren't caught due to an unfortunate chain of events. This was followed by a bad release with a rollback or flurry of hot fixes. One idea we're toying with: Revoke commit access to the trunk for newbies and make them develop on a per-developer branch (we're using SVN): Good: newbies are isolated and can't hurt others Good: committers merge newbie branches with the trunk frequently Good: this enforces rigid code reviews Bad: this is burdensome on the committers (but there's probably no way around it since the code needs reviewed!) Bad: it might make traceability of trunk changes a little tougher since the reviewer would be doing the commit--not too sure on this. Update: Thank you, everyone, for your valuable input. I have concluded that this is far less a code/coder problem than I first presented. The root of the issue is that the release procedure failed to capture and test some poor quality changes to the trunk. Plugging that hole is most important. Relying on the false assumption that code in the trunk is "good" is not the solution. Once that hole--testing--is plugged, mistakes by everyone--newbie or senior--will be caught properly and dealt with accordingly. Next, a greater emphasis on code reviews and mentorship (probably driven by some systematic changes to encourage it) will go a long way toward improving code quality. With those two fixes in place, I don't think something as rigid or draconian as what I proposed above is necessary. Thanks!

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How to control CSS class applied to ASP.NET 4 Menu with RenderingMode=List

- by Joe

I am using an ASP.NET 4.0 Menu control with RenderingMode=List and am struggling with creating the appropriate CSS. Each menu item is represented by an <li tag that contains a nested <a tag with what appear to be fixed class names: <a class="level1" for unselected level 1 menu items <a class="level2" for unselected level 2 menu items <a class="level1 selected" for the selected level 1 menu item ... etc... What I want to do is to is to prevent the currently selected menu item from being "clickable". To do so I tried using: if (menuItem.Selected) menuItem.Selectable = false; This has the desired effect of removing the href attribute from the <a tag but also removes the class attribute - and as a result my CSS can not identify what level the menu item belongs to! Looks to me like a possible bug, but in any case I can't find any documentation describing what CSS class names are used, nor whether there is any way to control this (the old Style properties don't appear to have any effect). Ideally I would like to have "level" class attributes on the <li tags, not just the nested <a tags.

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SVN Serve, Missing a Directory

- by Ryan Smith

I'm sure this is an asinine question, and I blame myself for not fully understanding how the SVNSERVE process works. I have an SVN repo, but it needs to be moved to a server within a clients cloud. I did this a while back and ran into the issue of the SVNSERVE.exe process not getting set to the right directory. I have the SVNSERVE.exe process running as a windows service and pointing to the right directory. There are two other repos there that are serving out fine in the same directory. I copied out the new directory just like I did with the others, but I'm getting the error "No repository found". I thought that SVNSERVE just looked at that directory and served out the repositories that were there, but I have had a hard time finding more information about that. I thought it was a Windows permission problem, but I set the whole folder to be full control to EVERYONE, so that's not it. I feel horrible I didn't fully understand this problem the first time I fought it, but it's late on a Sunday night and clients are yelling. Anyone know what I'm missing? Thanks. EDIT: It's specific to the repository. I tested the same process with some of the other repos we have on our server and when I copied them up, they worked just as expected. This bug is breaking me and I wish I could provide more details, but that's all I know. I'm going to try to do an SVN Dump instead of an XCopy and see how that goes. I'll let you know.

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Manage multiple UDP calls

- by rayman

Hi all, I would like to have an advice for this issue: I am using Jbos 5.1.0, EJB3.0 I have system, which sending requests via UDP'S to remote modems, and suppose to wait for an answer from the target modem. the remote modems support only UDP calls, therefor I o design asynchronous mechanism. (also coz I want to request X modems parallel) this is what I try to do: all calls are retrieved from Data Base, then each call will be added as a message to JMS QUE. let's say i will set X MDB'S on that que, so I can work asynchronous. now each MDB will send UDP request to the IP-address(remote modem) which will be parsed from the que message. so basicly each MDB, which takes a message is sending a udp request to the remote modem and [b]waiting [/b]for an answer from that modem. [u]now here is the BUG:[/u] could happen a scenario where MDB will get an answer, but not from the right modem( which it requested in first place). that bad scenario cause two wrong things: a. the sender which sent the message will wait forever since the message never returned to him(it got accepted by another MDB). b. the MDB which received the message is not the right one, and probablly if it was on a "listener" mode, then it supposed to wait for an answer from diffrent sender.(else it wouldnt get any messages) so ofcourse I can handle everything with a RETRY mechanisem. so both mdb's(the one who got message from the wrong sender, and the one who never got the answer) will try again, to do thire operation with a hope that next time it will success. This is the mechanism, mybe you could tell me if there is any design pattren, or any other effective solution for this problem? Thanks, ray.

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Practical refactoring using unit tests

- by awhite

Having just read the first four chapters of Refactoring: Improving the Design of Existing Code, I embarked on my first refactoring and almost immediately came to a roadblock. It stems from the requirement that before you begin refactoring, you should put unit tests around the legacy code. That allows you to be sure your refactoring didn't change what the original code did (only how it did it). So my first question is this: how do I unit-test a method in legacy code? How can I put a unit test around a 500 line (if I'm lucky) method that doesn't do just one task? It seems to me that I would have to refactor my legacy code just to make it unit-testable. Does anyone have any experience refactoring using unit tests? And, if so, do you have any practical examples you can share with me? My second question is somewhat hard to explain. Here's an example: I want to refactor a legacy method that populates an object from a database record. Wouldn't I have to write a unit test that compares an object retrieved using the old method, with an object retrieved using my refactored method? Otherwise, how would I know that my refactored method produces the same results as the old method? If that is true, then how long do I leave the old deprecated method in the source code? Do I just whack it after I test a few different records? Or, do I need to keep it around for a while in case I encounter a bug in my refactored code? Lastly, since a couple people have asked...the legacy code was originally written in VB6 and then ported to VB.NET with minimal architecture changes.

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Site doesn't show up. Instead a bunch of weird characters?

- by Richard Knop

‹?????í˜±jÃ0†w=Å=AÜ ÂÐƒ)ÅKGÅ:¢En%¹©ß¾²Ý 7xèpußøãŸ~ÝöÇ®Ömót¨•îŸû®©îao‚½‘Í:ºR†æk@´huõÃ(];z:¼•Íö¾þ{¥•‚¾ímwi£_±Ä1)–ÄÇ?‡‘,‰%Ž#YKF²Ä²Ä8ŒèKF²$–88ŒdI,qpÉ’Xâà0’%±Ä1Àaþe–TïÆOŒ@ 2^ßÇh"ù¦`Î!ëœ„yœ"Dü˜0e°Ó:ËË>e„ñÊˆfp.à(U®<œv¿ì;xñhRY3˜‹¡?ÞdŒ;Uºõ×R°WkÑ^Z÷¥¯Wß.Ò¤·?? That's exactly what shows up instead of my website in the web browser. Though on localhost the website works great. It's a Zend Framework based website, on localhost the output looks something like this (shortened version): <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Title</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <meta http-equiv="Content-Style-Type" content="text/css" /> <meta http-equiv="Content-Language" content="en-US" /> </head> <body>  </body> </html> What could cause this problem? It used to work before, this bug has only appeared today (or maybe already yesterday, I'm not sure).

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Simple jQuery code contains a syntax error that I can't find

- by inkedmn

I've got this (remarkably) simple JavaScript function that is called when a user clicks a "Cancel" link: function hideNewUserPanel(){ $('#create_user_panel').slideUp('slow'); $('.right_interior_panel').slideDown('slow'); } And the code to add the handler: $(function(){ $('#cancel_create_user_btn').live('click', function(){ hideNewUserPanel(); } }); Functionally, everything works as expected. Trouble is, when I click the "Cancel" link, Firebug shows an error in the console: uncaught exception: Syntax error, unrecognized expression: # I've stepped through the code several times and the error appears at some point before the call to hideNewUserPanel(). At the risk of sounding like one of "those programmers" (the kind that claim to have found a bug in GCC and assume their own code is perfect), the exception is being thrown from somewhere within jQuery proper, so I assume the issue is in there. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2 (this is a legacy project using many jQuery plugins that will break if we update to 1.4.x). Is there anything obviously wrong with my code that I'm simply not seeing? This code is, frankly, very simple and I don't really see what the issue could be. Thanks!

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jQuery.clone() IE problem

- by mofle

I'm have some that uses jQuery.clone() to get the html of a page and then add it to a pre tag. It works correctly in Firefox and Chrome, but nothing happens in IE: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script class="jsbin" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js"></script> <meta charset=utf-8 /> <title>JS Bin</title>  <script> $(function(){ $('button').click(function(){ var $clone = $('html').clone(); $('#output').text($clone.html()); }); }); </script> <style> article, aside, figure, footer, header, hgroup, menu, nav, section { display: block; } </style> </head> <body> <button>run test</button> <pre id="output"></pre> </body> </html> Is there any know bug with IE that prevents this, or am I doing something wrong? (I need to clone it because I'm doing some changes to it before outputting it)

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VS2010: Why do my custom Toolbox tabs and contained controls keep disappearing?

- by Velika2

This is how I expected the toolbox to work: Let's say I add a custom Tab to the Toolbox called "Ajaxtoolkit." To add controls to the new tab, I right mouse click and select "Choose Items" and browse to a file, Ajaxtoolkit.dll, that is of a particular version number. I would expect that when I save and reopen the solution, that the Ajax Toolkit custom tab would still be in my Toolbox and that it would contain the same controls that were there last time, the controls that were in the dll that I referenced when the controls were added. If I created a brand new web app, I (possibly) wouldn't expect to see the same Ajax Toolkit custom tab. However, I could perform the same steps as above and add a "Ajax Toolkit" tab and perhaps, this time, select a DIFFERENT VERSION of the tookit, and the state of the toolkit would be retained with each solution file. Another possibility would be for the original Ajaxtoolkit to be retained when the 2nd web solution is created, and perhaps, if I wanted to mix versions of the toolkit across diffreent web sites in my solution, I should start naming my custom toolkit tabs with version specific names like "Ajaxtoolkit 4.0," etc. ...But instead, the Ajaxtoolkit tab disappears when I close VS2010 and reopen it. Why? Is this desirable behavior or a bug?

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