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  • Getting a stream back from a .Net remoting service that is accessible with IP v4 and v6

    - by jon.ediger
    My company has an existing .Net Remoting service that listens on a port, fronting interfaces used by external systems. This all works great with IP v4 based communications. However, this service now needs to support both IP v4 communications and IP v6 communications. I have found info that the system.runtime.remoting section of the app.config should include two channels as follows: <channel ref="tcp" name="tcp6" port="9000" bindTo="[::]" /> <channel ref="tcp" name="tcp4" port="9000" bindTo="0.0.0.0" /> The above config file changes to the System.Runtime.Remoting config section will get the remoting service responding to non-stream functions on both ip v4 and ip v6. The issue comes only when attempting to get a stream back, used to upload or download large files. In this case, instead of getting a usable stream back, the following ArgumentException is thrown instead: IPv4 address 0.0.0.0 and IPv6 address ::0 are unspecified addresses that cannot be used as a target address. Parameter name: hostNameOrAddress Is there a way to modify the app.config (in the system.runtime.remoting section, or another section) so that the service will return a stream mapped to a real ip so the client can actually upload/download files while maintaining the ability to use both IP v4 and IP v6?

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  • Overlay an image over video using OpenGL ES shaders

    - by BlueVoodoo
    I am trying to understand the basic concepts of OpenGL. A week into it, I am still far from there. Once I am in glsl, I know what to do but I find getting there is the tricky bit. I am currently able to pass in video pixels which I manipulate and present. I have then been trying to add still image as an overlay. This is where I get lost. My end goal is to end up in the same fragment shader with pixel data from both my video and my still image. I imagine this means I need two textures and pass on two pixel buffers. I am currently passing the video pixels like this: glGenTextures(1, &textures[0]); //target, texture glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, textures[0]); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, width, height, 0, GL_BGRA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, buffer); Would I then repeat this process on textures[1] with the second buffer from the image? If so, do I then bind both GL_TEXTURE0 and GL_TEXTURE1? ...and would my shader look something like this? uniform sampler2D videoData; uniform sampler2D imageData; once I am in the shader? It seems no matter what combination I try, image and video always ends up being just video data in both these. Sorry for the many questions merged in here, just want to clear my many assumptions and move on. To clarify the question a bit, what do I need to do to add pixels from a still image in the process described? ("easy to understand" sample code or any types of hints would be appreciated).

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  • How do I pass references as method parameters across AppDomains?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    I have been trying to get the following code to work(everything is defined in the same assembly) : namespace SomeApp{ public class A : MarshalByRefObject { public byte[] GetSomeData() { // } } public class B : MarshalByRefObject { private A remoteObj; public void SetA(A remoteObj) { this.remoteObj = remoteObj; } } public class C { A someA = new A(); public void Init() { AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("ChildDomain"); string currentAssemblyPath = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location; B remoteB = domain.domain.CreateInstanceFromAndUnwrap(currentAssemblyPath,"SomeApp.B") as B; remoteB.SetA(someA); // this throws an ArgumentException "Object type cannot be converted to target type." } } } What I'm trying to do is pass a reference of an 'A' instance created in the first AppDomain to the child domain and have the child domain execute a method on the first domain. In some point on 'B' code I'm going to call 'remoteObj.GetSomeData()'. This has to be done because the 'byte[]' from 'GetSomeData' method must be 'calculated' on the first appdomain. What should I do to avoid the exception, or what can I do to achieve the same result?

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  • Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

    - by StackedCrooked
    Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

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  • What is wrong with this Asynchronus task?

    - by bluebrain
    the method onPostExecute simply was not executed, I have seen 16 at LogCat but I can not see 16 in LogCAT. I tried to debug it, it seemed that it goes to the first line of the class (package line) after return statement. private class Client extends AsyncTask<Integer, Void, Integer> { protected Integer doInBackground(Integer... params) { Log.e(TAG,10+""); try { socket = new Socket(target, port); Log.e(TAG,11+""); oos = new ObjectOutputStream(socket.getOutputStream()); Log.e(TAG,14+""); ois = new ObjectInputStream(socket.getInputStream()); Log.e(TAG,15+""); } catch (UnknownHostException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Log.e(TAG,16+""); return 1; } protected void onPostExecute(Integer result) { Log.e(TAG,13+""); try { Log.e(TAG,12+""); oos.writeUTF(key); Log.e(TAG,13+""); if (ois.readInt() == OKAY) { isConnected = true; Log.e(TAG,14+""); }else{ Log.e(TAG,15+""); isConnected = false; } } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); isClosed = true; } } }

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  • Automatically Organize Tags in Tax/Folksonomy

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I'm working on a process that will perform natural language processing (NLP) on one--and potentially several--of our content rich sites. What I'd like to do once the NLP is complete is to automatically organize the output (generally a set of terms that you might think of as tags given the prevalence of that metaphor) into some kind of standard or generally accepted organizational structure. In a perfect world, I'd really like this to be crowd sourced under the folksonomy concept (as opposed to a taxonomy) since the ultimate goal is to target/appeal to real people rather than "domain experts", but I'm open to ideas and best practices. For the obvious purpose of scalability, I'd like to automate the population of this tax/folksonomy so that "some guy" in the team/organization isn't responsible for looking at a bunch of words (with or without context) and arbitrarily fleshing out the contextual components of the tree. I have a few ideas for doing this that require some research to establish viability, but I have exactly zero practical experience with this sort of thing so the ideas really just boil down to stuff I made up that might perform some role in accomplishing the task. Imagining that others have vastly more experience with this sort of thing, I'm hoping that I can stand on your shoulders. Thanks for your thoughts and insights.

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  • Invoking jQuery function without an element

    - by Sandman
    So, I use jQuery quite extensively and I am well aware of the "right" way to do the below, but there are times where I want to solve it in a more generic way. I'll explain. So, I may have a link, like this: <a href='menu' class='popup'>Show menu</a>. Now, I have a jQuery function that fires on click for all a.popup that takes the href-attribute and shows the <div id='menu'></div> item (in this case). It also handles URL's if it can't find a DOM item with that ID. No problem here. But, there are times when I don't have the same control over the coe where I can create a selectable target that way. Either because the code isn't created by me or because it is created through a chain of function that would all need a huge ovrhaul which I won't do. So, from time to time, I would like to have this code: <a href="javascript:popup('menu')">Show menu</a> This would be in a case where I can only submit the label and the HREF for a link. No class, no nothing. Problem here is that the function popup() has no idea about what element invoked it, and in most cases that's not a problem for me, since I only need to know where the mouse cursor was upon invokation. But in some cases, I use someone elses jQuery functions, like qTip or something else. so I still want to fire off qTip(); when clicking a link that runs this JS function, but what do I attach it to to make it show? I can't just runt $().qTip(); because that implies $(this) and "this" is undefined inside the function. So how do I do it? Any ideas?

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  • Faster Javascript text replace

    - by Stacey
    Given the following javascript (jquery) $("#username").keyup(function () { selected.username = $("#username").val(); var url = selected.protocol + (selected.prepend == true ? selected.username : selected.url) + "/" + (selected.prepend == true ? selected.url : selected.username); $("#identifier").val(url); }); This code basically reads a textbox (username), and when it is typed into, it reconstructs the url that is being displayed in another textbox (identifier). This works fine - there are no problems with its functionality. However it feels 'slow' and 'sluggish'. Is there a cleaner/faster way to accomplish this task? Here is the HTML as requested. <fieldset class="identifier delta"> <form action="/authenticate/openid" method="post" target="_top" > <input type="text" class="openid" id="identifier" name="identifier" readonly="readonly" /> <input type='text' id='username' name='username' class="left" style='display: none;'/> <input type="submit" value="Login" style="height: 32px; padding-top: 1px; margin-right: 0px;" class="login right" /> </form> </fieldset> The identifier textbox just has a value set based on the hyperlink anchor of a button.

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  • JQuery remove() not working with a two word id

    - by Programer
    I have a button <button onclick="takedown()"> take down </button> that creates a H1 and button with the id of the text in my text field and h1 at the end for the h1 and button at the end for the button the button has a onclick onclick="delete()". This is that function function takedown(){ note = document.getElementById("noteinput").value; idh1 = note + "h1"; idbutton = note + "button"; idcenter = note + "center"; $('<center id="' + idcenter + '"> <h1 id="' + idh1 + '">' + note + '</h1> <button id="'+ idbutton +'" onclick="deletenote()"> Delete </button> </center>').appendTo("body"); } For the delete function the remove() works only if the id of the button and the h1 is one word. function deletenote(){ // First setting var idbuttondelete = event.target.id; var idh1delete = idbuttondelete.replace("button", "h1"); // Removing the button, h1,center $('#' + idbuttondelete).remove(); $('#' + idh1delete).remove(); } Does anybody know whats wrong or how to use JQuery to delete something if it has a two word id.

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  • Whats wrong with my code? (jQuery + HTML)

    - by Art Zeeman
    I'm trying to open a link as soon as you open the page (by forcing a click) with jQuery, but it doesn't work. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $('a.bla').click(function(){ window.open(this.href); return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href="url-to-open.php" target="_blank" class='bla'><img src="pic.png" alt="" style="border:none;" /></a> </body> </html> I have no clue what's wrong. I hope someone of you knows how to fix this.

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  • Selenium problem locating by DOM

    - by bartonlee
    Hi, I'm trying to use the DOM to locate a form element in Selenium but I can't get it to work. Even if I use the example in the Selenium documentation it still fails, for example with this html... <html> <body> <form id="loginForm"> <input name="username" type="text" /> <input name="password" type="password" /> <input name="continue" type="submit" value="Login" /> <input name="continue" type="button" value="Clear" /> </form> </body> <html> and this command in the Selenium IDE... verifyElementPresent with target... dom=document.forms['loginForm'] I get [error] false in the log. The 'getElementById' example in the documentation does work, but none of the others. Can someone explain what I'm doing wrong here? Thanks.

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  • jQuery: How can I get the HTML from one div to display in another.

    - by rockinthesixstring
    I've got a small script that detects if the user is using Google Chrome var is_chrome = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase().indexOf('chrome') > -1; if(is_chrome){ $('.ifChrome').attr('style', 'display:block;'); $('.ifChrome').html($('noscript > div').html()); }; If they are using chrome, we want to display a div tag and show the HTML from a different div tag inside. <noscript> <div class="note"> Your browser does not properly support the WMD Markdown Editor.<br /> Please use <a href="/about/markdown" target="_blank">Markdown<.a> to style your input. </div> </noscript> <div class="hidden ifChrome note"></div> What I'm trying to do is show the "not supported" text from inside my <noscript> tag to users who are using google Chrome (because WMD Markdown doesn't work properly with Chrome). My existing Javascript is not working. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Multi-user job/task tracking/queue software

    - by Bmsgaffer86
    Background: I test and repair electronic products with a team. There are many 'jobs' going through my lab at any point in time. It is getting difficult to track whats coming in and going out because I don't do every test or repair myself. Target: User can enter a job when they drop it off in my lab, and it will appear on the master list or queue. Needs to have priorities and due dates that can be adjusted by users. Ideally this would be web based and open-source, but I am flexible. Dream: A large monitor displaying a list of jobs in the master queue with details. This is very optional though, and would be in the best case scenario. I have done MANY hours of Google-ing and I am not sure if I have been using the right terminology, but I have not found anything that is simple enough to stand alone yet complex enough to be multi-user based. I am mildly proficient in VB, and have the drive to piece anything together that I have to. I am open to ANY help or suggestions.

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  • IS operator behaving a bit strangely

    - by flockofcode
    1) According to my book, IS operator can check whether expression E (E is type) can be converted to the target type only if E is either a reference conversion, boxing or unboxing. Since in the following example IS doesn’t check for either of the three types of conversion, the code shouldn’t work, but it does: int i=100; if (i is long) //returns true, indicating that conversion is possible l = i; 2) a) B b; A a = new A(); if (a is B) b = (B)a; int i = b.l; class A { public int l = 100; } class B:A { } The above code always causes compile time error “Use of unassigned variable”. If condition a is B evaluates to false, then b won’t be assigned a value, but if condition is true, then it will. And thus by allowing such a code compiler would have no way of knowing whether the usage of b in code following the if statement is valid or not ( due to not knowing whether a is b evaluates to true or false) , but why should it know that? Intsead why couldn’t runtime handle this? b) But if instead we’re dealing with non reference types, then compiler doesn’t complain, even though the code is identical.Why? int i = 100; long l; if (i is long) l = i; thank you

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  • Runtime Error: "Out of Memory" From Excel Macro

    - by user356180
    I have one macro, which is called when a cell change occurs. This macro selects images, deletes them, and inserts another image depending on a cell value using the following code. I have the same code for two sheets. Private Sub Worksheet_SelectionChange(ByVal Target As Range) ActiveSheet.Shapes.SelectAll Selection.Delete 'insert image code here. End Sub In one sheet, it's working perfectly fine and deletes all images, while in the other sheet, it gives me the runtime error "Out of Memory" and highlights the following line: ActiveSheet.Shapes.SelectAll Can anyone tell me why this is happening? It works perfectly fine in one and not in the other. One other thing I want to tell you is it was working fine when I gave this Excel macro to my client; both sheets were working fine. Suddenly after 2 days, he started getting the error on one sheet on which he was working a lot. I don't know why this is happening. Can anyone tell me what's the reason for this and how I can solve it?

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  • Saving image to the existing file throws "A generic error occurred in GDI+" error.

    - by ryan
    i am trying to create a overlapped image using different images,then saving to a particular location. so that i can use generated image(overlapped img) in my telerik reporting. it is important to me to save the overlapped image to the same location with same name. but generating this overlapped image second time throws throws "A generic error occurred in GDI+" error. Please help me with this. It seems i can not override the existing image file. i tried deleting the existing image every time i generate the new one. but its not allowing me deleting the file ,may be it is used by telerik reporting. Here is the image create method which takes the baseimage path, sectionimage path and the reportimage path (this is the target locationenter code here) public static void Creat(List<string> sectionNames, string reportImagePath, string baseImagePath) { var file = Image.FromFile(baseImagePath); Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(file); foreach (var sectionName in sectionNames) { var image = Image.FromFile(sectionName); g.DrawImage(image, new PointF(0.0F, 0.0F)); } file.Save(reportImagePath, ImageFormat.Png); file.Dispose(); }

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  • removing a case clause: bash expansion in sed regexp: X='a\.b' ; Y=';;' sed -n '/${X}/,/${Y}/d'

    - by ChrisSM
    I'm trying to remove a case clause from a bash script. The clause will vary, but will always have backslashes as part of the case-match string. I was trying sed but could use awk or a perl one-liner within the bash script. The target of the edit is straightforward, resembles: $cat t.sh case N in a\.b); #[..etc., varies] ;; esac I am running afoul of the variable expansion escaping backslashes, semicolons or both. If I 'eval' I strip my backslash escapes. If I don't, the semi-colons catch me up. So I tried subshell expansion within the sed. This fouls the interpreter as I've written it. More escaping the semi-colons doesn't seem to help. X='a\.b' ; Y=';;' sed -i '/$(echo ${X} | sed -n 's/\\/\\\\/g')/,/$(echo ${Y} | sed -n s/\;/\\;/g')/d t.sh And this: perl -i.bak -ne 'print unless /${X}/ .. /{$Y}/' t.sh # which empties t.sh and eval perl -i.bak -ne \'print unless /${X}/ .. /{$Y}/' t.sh # which does nothing

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  • html escape characters

    - by user1468537
    I have the following: <form name="input" method="get" action="http://site:8083/Default.aspx?DC=" target="foo" onSubmit="window.open('', 'foo', 'width=1100 height=500,status=no,resizable=yes,scrollbars=yes')"> <select name="DC"> <option value="1&Type=type1">1</option> <option value="2&Type=type2">2</option> <option value="3&Type=type3">3</option> <option value="4&Type=type4">4</option> <option value="5&Type=type5">5</option> <option value="6&Type=type6">6</option> <option value="7&Type=type7">7</option> </select> <input type="submit" value=">>"/>&nbsp;&nbsp; </form> Basically my querystring should be something like DC=1&Type=type1 the problem I have is that when I click the button above the html screws up the stirng by changing & to %26 and = to %3D How can I make the value stay as I have it in the code above?

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  • Discussion - Allowing / blocking user access to pages / Client Side Validation (Client Side Only!) -

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR Using plain HTML / Javascript (Client Side) I want to prevent viewing of certain pages. The user will have to type a username and password and depending on that they get access to different pages. Answers can NOT include server side whatsoever It does not matter if they can break it easily. There is no sensitive information etc. Also the target audience will not have access to internet OR probably know what a cookie is... At some point the user will have to type username / password.(I can define the cookie here) Currently I thought of using cookies to set a cookie for each page to say "true" / "false" but that would get messy with so many cookies. Or setting an array within a cookie for each page? I have div field "#Content" which as it looks encompasses all of my content on the page so blocking out content will be as simple as replacing it with ("sorry you don't have access") etc. For Example: $.cookie("Access","page1, page2, page3"{ expires: 1 }); I am looking for anyway to do this does not have to be with cookies. Would be nice to get a discussion of different ways this can be done. So the question is: What do YOU think would be a good way to go about doing this with client side validation? Also on another note discussion on how to make client side more secure or ways to do so are acceptable.

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  • Vim: How do I tell where a function is defined? (

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    I just installed macvim yesterday and I installed vim latex today. One of the menu items is calling a broken fuction (TeX-Suite -> view). When I click on the menu-time it makes this call: :silent! call Tex_ViewLatex() Question: Where can I find that function? Is there some way to figure out where it is defined? Just for curiosity sake I removed the silent part and ran this: :call Tex_ViewLatex() Which produces: Error detected while processing function Tex_ViewLaTeX: line 34: E121: Undefined variable: s:viewer E116: Invalid arguments for function strlen(s:viewer) E15: Invalid expression: strlen(s:viewer) line 39: E121: Undefined variable: appOpt E15: Invalid expression: 'open '.appOpt.s:viewer.' $*.'.s:target line 79: E121: Undefined variable: execString E116: Invalid arguments for function substitute(execString, '\V$*', mainfname, 'g' ) E15: Invalid expression: substitute(execString, '\V$*', mainfname, 'g') line 80: E121: Undefined variable: execString E116: Invalid arguments for function Tex_Debug line 82: E121: Undefined variable: execString E15: Invalid expression: 'silent! !'.execString Press ENTER or type command to continue I suspect that if I could see the source function I could figure out what inputs are bad or what it is looking for. Thanks.

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  • How to know the type of an object in a list?

    - by nacho4d
    Hi, I want to know the type of object (or type) I have in my list so I wrote this: void **list; //list of references list = new void * [2]; Foo foo = Foo(); const char *not_table [] = {"tf", "ft", 0 }; list[0] = &foo; list[1] = not_table; if (dynamic_cast<LogicProcessor*>(list[0])) { //ERROR here ;( printf("Foo was found\n"); } if (dynamic_cast<char*> (list[0])) { //ERROR here ;( printf("char was found\n"); } but I get : error: cannot dynamic_cast '* list' (of type 'void*') to type 'class Foo*' (source is not a pointer to class) error: cannot dynamic_cast '* list' (of type 'void*') to type 'char*' (target is not pointer or reference to class) Why is this? what I am doing wrong here? Is dynamic_cast what I should use here? Thanks in advance EDIT: I know above code is much like plain C and surely sucks from the C++ point of view but is just I have the following situation and I was trying something before really implementing it: I have two arrays of length n but both arrays will never have an object at the same index. Hence, or I have array1[i]!=NULL or array2[i]!=NULL. This is obviously a waste of memory so I thought everything would be solved if I could have both kind of objects in a single array of length n. I am looking something like Cocoa's (Objective-C) NSArray where you don't care about the type of the object to be put in. Not knowing the type of the object is not a problem since you can use other method to get the class of a certain later. Is there something like it in c++ (preferably not third party C++ libraries) ? Thanks in advance ;)

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  • Flex 4: Scale to a point (zoom into an image where the mouse was clicked)

    - by Jason W
    I've been trying to get this working and I can't seem to figure it out. There is an Image control that when I click on it I need to zoom in (using the center/transform point where the mouse is clicked). I have the zoom transition working great, but when I set transformX & tranformY (with autoCenterTransform false) it doesn't zoom into that point. Here is my code that only zooms in (not to a specific point) <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ protected function imgLogo_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { transformer.play(); } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <s:Parallel id="transformer" target="{imgLogo}"> <s:Scale scaleXBy="0.5" scaleYBy="0.5" /> </s:Parallel> </fx:Declarations> <mx:Image id="imgLogo" width="250" x="100" y="100" maintainAspectRatio="true" source="@Embed('src/logo.png')" click="imgLogo_clickHandler(event)" /> Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • Python threading question (Working with a method that blocks forever)

    - by Nix
    I am trying to wrap a thread around some receiving logic in python. Basically we have an app, that will have a thread in the background polling for messages, the problem I ran into is that piece that actually pulls the messages waits forever for a message. Making it impossible to terminate... I ended up wrapping the pull in another thread, but I wanted to make sure there wasn't a better way to do it. Original code: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() #do other stuff... class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped ): #can never stop because pull below blocks message = receiver.pull() print "Message" + message What I refectored to: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): pullThread = PullThread(self.receiver) pullThread.start() #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped and pullThread.last_message ==None): pass message = pullThread.last_message print "Message" + message class PullThread(Thread): last_message = None def __init__(self, receiver): Thread.__init(self, target=get_message, args=(receiver)) def get_message(self, receiver): self.last_message = None self.last_message = receiver.pull() return self.last_message I know the obvious locking issues exist, but is this the appropriate way to control a receive thread that waits forever for a message? One thing I did notice was this thing eats 100% cpu while waiting for a message... **If you need to see the stopping logic please let me know and I will post.

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  • Lack of understanding crash report

    - by Alan Lai
    I have this crash report. Incident Identifier: CA9E350A-C842-4349-AAD8-E9E62E93BDD1 CrashReporter Key: 360bc129d2f79a48e291eb5ca38b24e822ed5b6b Hardware Model: xxx Process: OrientalDailyiOS [1502] Path: /var/mobile/Applications/39480A57-68FF-4C46-8445-340EFE204119/OrientalDailyiOS.app/OrientalDailyiOS Identifier: OrientalDailyiOS Version: ??? (???) Code Type: ARM (Native) Parent Process: launchd [1] Date/Time: 2012-10-14 15:49:10.884 -0700 OS Version: iOS 6.0 (10A403) Report Version: 104 Exception Type: EXC_CRASH (SIGABRT) Exception Codes: 0x0000000000000000, 0x0000000000000000 Crashed Thread: 0 Last Exception Backtrace: 0 CoreFoundation 0x37a0a29e __exceptionPreprocess + 158 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x34e3197a objc_exception_throw + 26 2 CoreFoundation 0x37955b70 -[__NSArrayM objectAtIndex:] + 160 3 OrientalDailyiOS 0x00064fdc -[Main_NewsDetail viewDidLoad] (Main_NewsDetail.m:43) 4 UIKit 0x386cb590 -[UIViewController loadViewIfRequired] + 360 5 UIKit 0x38757336 -[UIViewController shouldAutorotate] + 22 6 UIKit 0x38798cd4 -[UIWindowController transition:fromViewController:toViewController:target:didEndSelector:] + 1540 7 UIKit 0x38797fca -[UIViewController presentViewController:withTransition:completion:] + 3390 8 UIKit 0x388ba252 -[UIViewController presentModalViewController:animated:] + 26 9 Foundation 0x34364a6a __NSFireDelayedPerform + 446 10 CoreFoundation 0x379df5da __CFRUNLOOP_IS_CALLING_OUT_TO_A_TIMER_CALLBACK_FUNCTION__ + 10 11 CoreFoundation 0x379df28c __CFRunLoopDoTimer + 268 12 CoreFoundation 0x379ddefc __CFRunLoopRun + 1228 13 CoreFoundation 0x37950eb8 0x37948000 + 36536 14 CoreFoundation 0x37950d44 CFRunLoopRunInMode + 100 15 GraphicsServices 0x373e32e6 GSEventRunModal + 70 16 UIKit 0x387002fc 0x386a9000 + 357116 17 OrientalDailyiOS 0x0005fac2 main (main.m:16) 18 OrientalDailyiOS 0x0005fa84 0x5e000 + 6788 However, I couldn't know where is error, I play around with my apps but show no error. I also tried iOS 6 with iPad, no problem. what apple feedback was We found that your app crashed on iPad running iOS 6, which is not in compliance with the App Store Review Guidelines. Your app crashed on both Wi-Fi and cellular networks when we: 1. Launch the app. 2. Tap any item on main page. 3. App crashes.

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  • Run SQL Scripts from C# application across domains

    - by Saravanan AR
    To run sql script files from my C# application, I referred this. http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en/adodotnetdataproviders/thread/43e8bc3a-1132-453b-b950-09427e970f31 it works perfectly when my machine and DB server are in the same domain. my problem now is, i'm executing this console application from a machine (name: X, user id: abc, domain D1). the SQL server is in another machine (name: Y, domain: D2). I use VPN to connect to machine Y with user id 'abc' and work on SQL in remote desktop. how can i run sql scripts across domains? I use this in a custom activity in my TFS build template as the last step to run the scripts in the target database which is in domain D2. i'm getting this error: "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified)" is it possible to connect to the DB using the admin user ID of machine Y in domain D2?

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