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  • i18n redirection breaks my tests ....

    - by Mike
    I have a big application covered by more than a thousand tests via rspec. We just made the choice to redirect any page like : / /foo /foo/4/bar/34 ... TO : /en /en/foo /fr/foo/4/bar/34 .... So I made a before filter in application.rb like so : if params[:locale].blank? headers["Status"] = "301 Moved Permanently" redirect_to request.env['REQUEST_URI'].sub!(%r(^(http.?://[^/]*)?(.*))) { "#{$1}/#{I18n.locale}#{$2}" } end It's working great but ... It's breaking a lot of my tests, ex : it "should return 404" do Video.should_receive(:failed_encodings).and_return([]) get :last_failed_encoding response.status.should == "404 Not Found" end To fix this test, I should do : get :last_failed_encoding, :locale => "en" But ... seriously I don't want to fix all my test one by one ... I tried to make the locale a default parameter like this : class ActionController::TestCase alias_method(:old_get, :get) unless method_defined?(:old_get) def get(path, parameters = {}, headers = nil) parameters.merge({:locale => "fr"}) if parameters[:locale].blank? old_get(path, parameters, headers) end end ... but couldnt make this work ... Any idea ??

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  • HTTP POST prarameters order / REST urls

    - by pq
    Let's say that I'm uploading a large file via a POST HTTP request. Let's also say that I have another parameter (other than the file) that names the resource which the file is updating. The resource cannot be not part of the URL the way you can do it with REST (e.g. foo.com/bar/123). Let's say this is due to a combination of technical and political reasons. The server needs to ignore the file if the resource name is invalid or, say, the IP address and/or the logged in user are not authorized to update the resource. Looks like, if this POST came from an HTML form that contains the resource name first and file field second, for most (all?) browsers, this order is preserved in the POST request. But it would be naive to fully rely on that, no? In other words the order of HTTP parameters is insignificant and a client is free to construct the POST in any order. Isn't that true? Which means that, at least in theory, the server may end up storing the whole large file before it can deny the request. It seems to me that this is a clear case where RESTful urls have an advantage, since you don't have to look at the POST content to perform certain authorization/error checking on the request. Do you agree? What are your thoughts, experiences?

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  • JSESSIONID collision between two servers on same ip but different ports

    - by Steve Armstrong
    I've got a situation where I have two different webapps running on a single server, using different ports. They're both running Java's Jetty servlet container, so they both use a cookie parameter named JSESSIONID to track the session id. These two webapps are fighting over the session id. Open a Firefox tab, and go to WebApp1 WebApp1's HTTP response has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 Firefox now has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 in all it's HTTP requests to WebApp1 Open a second Firefox tab, and go to WebApp2 The HTTP reqeust to WebApp2 also has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1, but in the doGet, when I call req.getSession(false); I get null. And if I call req.getSession(true) I get a new Session object, but then the HTTP response from WebApp2 has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=20 Now, WebApp2 has a working Session, but WebApp1's session is gone. Going to WebApp1 will give me a new session, blowing away WebApp2's session. Continue forever So the Sessions are thrashing between each web app. I'd really like for the req.getSession(false) to return a valid session if there's already a JSESSIONID cookie defined. One option is to basically reimplement the Session framework with a HashMap and cookies called WEBAPP1SESSIONID and WEBAPP2SESSIONID, but that sucks, and means I'll have to hack the new Session stuff into ActionServlet and a few other places. This must be a problem others have encountered. Is Jetty's HttpServletRequest.getSession(boolean) just crappy?

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  • Full Text Search in MSSQL2008 shows wrong display_item for Thai language

    - by ensecoz
    I am working with MSSQL2008. My task is to investigate the issue where FTS cannot find the right result for Thai. First, I have the table which enables the FTS on the column 'ItemName' which is nvarchar. The Catalog is created with the Thai Language. Note that the Thai language is one of the languages that doesn't separate the word by spaces, so '????' '???' '????' are written like this in a sentence: '???????????' In the table, there are many rows that include the word (????); for example row#1 (ItemName: '???????????') On the webpage, I try to search for '????' but SQLServer cannot find it. So I try to investigate it by trying the following query in SQLServer: select * from sys.dm_fts_parser(N'"???????????"', 1054, 0, 0) ...to see how the words are broken. The first one is the text to be broken. The second parameter is to specify that we're using Thai (WorkBreaker, so on). Here is the result: row#1 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#2 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#3 (display_item: '??', source_item: '???????????') Notice that the first and second row display the wrong display_item '?' in the '????' isn't even Thai characters. '?' in '????' is not a Thai character either. So the question is where did those alien characters come from? I guess this why I cannot search for '????' because the word breaker is broken and keeping the wrong character in the indexes. Please help!

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  • Getting the first result from a LINQ query - why does ElementAt<T>(0) fails when First<T>() succeeds

    - by Mr Roys
    I have a method AddStudent() which looks for a student with the same name and returns an existing student from the database if there is a student with the same name, otherwise it creates a new student and adds it to the database. I'm curious why se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); succeeds when se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); fails when I try to get the first result from the LINQ query. Aren't the two methods the same? The full code for the method is shown below. public Student AddStudent(string name) { using (SchoolEntities db = new SchoolEntities()) { // find student with same name via LINQ var students = from s in db.StudentEntitySet where s.name == name select s; StudentEntity se = default(StudentEntity); // if student with the same name is already present, return // that student if (students.Count<StudentEntity>() > 0) { // if i use ElementAt, if fails with a "LINQ to Entities does not // recognize the method 'StudentEntity ElementAt[StudentEntity] // (System.Linq.IQueryable`1[StudentEntity], Int32)' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression.", // but not when I use First. Why? // se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); } else { // passing 0 for first parameter (id) since it's represented by // a BigInt IDENTITY field in the database so any value // doesn't matter. se = StudentEntity.CreateStudentEntity(0, name); db.AddToStudentEntitySet(se); db.SaveChanges(); } // create a Student object from the Entity object return new Student(se); } } Thanks!

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  • 404 Not Found When Requesting URI With Encoded Patameters

    - by Richard Knop
    I am pretty sure this is some problem with the Apache configuration because it used to work on the previous hosting provider with the same PHP/MySQL configuration. In my application, users are able to delete photos by going to URIs like this: http://example.com/my-account/remove-media/id/9/ret/my-account%252Fedit-album%252Fid%252F1 The paramater id is an id of a photo to be removed, the parameter ret is a relative URL where user should be redirected after the removal of the photo but after clicking on a link like that I get 404 Not Found error with the text: Not Found The requested URL /public/my-account/remove-media/id/9/ret/my-account/edit-album/id/1 was not found on this server. Though it used to work on my previous hosting provider so I guess it is just some easy Apache configuration issue? One more thing, there is a htaccess file that changes the document root to /public: RewriteEngine On php_value upload_max_filesize 15M php_value post_max_size 15M php_value max_execution_time 200 php_value max_input_time 200 # Exclude some directories from URI rewriting #RewriteRule ^(dir1|dir2|dir3) - [L] RewriteRule ^\.htaccess$ - [F] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ="" RewriteRule ^.*$ /public/index.php [NC,L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/public/.*$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /public/$1 RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -f RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^public/.*$ /public/index.php [NC,L] In the public folder there is a second htaccess file for MVC: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -s [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -l [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^.*$ /index.php [NC,L] # Turn off magic quotes #php_flag magic_quotes_gpc off

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  • asp.net mvc ajax form helper/post additional data

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • APS.NET MVC Ajax: Passing a IList from the View to the Controller

    - by Bpimenta
    I need to pass the grid rows from the view to the controller using POST. The idea is to pass an IList of objects (people) that have the following structure: String Name String Address String ID I want to read the data from the JQGrid and pass it to the controller to fill the IList. I'm trying to build the data object to pass through the Ajax data parameter. Here is the Javascript code: $("#saveButton").click( function() { var returnData = '{'; var existingIDs = $('#listPeople').getDataIDs(); if (idsPeople.length > 0) { for (i=0;i<idsPeople.length;i++) { //Trying to build the obejct data ret = ret + '"people['+ i +'].Name":' $('#listPeople').getRowData(idsPeople[i]).Name + ','; ret = ret + '"people['+ i +'].Address":' $('#listPeople').getRowData(idsPeople[i]).Address+ ','; ret = ret + '"people['+ i +'].Id":' $('#listPeople').getRowData(idsPeople[i]).Id+ ','; //If it has more than one element if (idsPeople.length>1 && (i+1)<idsPeople.length) { ret = ret + ','; } } } ret = ret + '}'; My Ajax function for sending: var url_all = '<%=Url.Action("SaveData") %>; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: url_all, data: ret, dataType: "json", success: function(){ alert("OK"); }, error: function(){ alert("Error: check SaveData"); } }); My controller: public ActionResult SaveData(IList<PeopleHeader> people){ // using debug to know if "people" variable has any values return Json(true); } The problem I'm getting is an error: "System.NotSupportedException: Fixed size collection", and no data is being delivered. I think my problem relies on creating the object... is there any simpler way of doing this procedure? Thanks in advance,

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  • Google Web Toolkit Asynchronous Call from a Service Implementation

    - by Thor Thurn
    I'm writing a simple Google Web Toolkit service which acts as a proxy, which will basically exist to allow the client to make a POST to a different server. The client essentially uses this service to request an HTTP call. The service has only one asynchronous method call, called ajax(), which should just forward the server response. My code for implementing the call looks like this: class ProxyServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements ProxyService { @Override public Response ajax(String data) { RequestBuilder rb = /*make a request builder*/ RequestCallback rc = new RequestCallback() { @Override public void onResponseReceived(Response response) { /* Forward this response back to the client as the return value of the ajax method... somehow... */ } }; rb.sendRequest(data, requestCallback); return /* The response above... except I can't */; } } You can see the basic form of my problem, of course. The ajax() method is used asynchronously, but GWT decides to be smart and hide that from the dumb old developer, so they can just write normal Java code without callbacks. GWT services basically just do magic instead of accepting a callback parameter. The trouble arises, then, because GWT is hiding the callback object from me. I'm trying to make my own asynchronous call from the service implementation, but I can't, because GWT services assume that you behave synchronously in service implementations. How can I work around this and make an asynchronous call from my service method implementation?

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  • Filling SWT table object using a separated thread class ...

    - by erlord
    Hi all I've got a code snippet by the swt team that does exactly what I need. However, there is a part I want to separate into another class, in particular, the whole inline stuff. In response to my former question, it has been suggested that Callable should be used in order to implement threaded objects. It is suggested to make use of an implementation of runnable or better callable, since I do need some kind of return. However, I don't get it. My problems are: In the original code, within the inline implementation of the method run, some of the parents objects are called. How would I do this when the thread is separated? Pass the object via the C'tor's parameter? In the original code, another runnable object is nested within the runnable implementation. What is it good for? How to implement this when having separated the code? Furthermore, this nested runnable again calls objects created by the main method. Please, have mercy with me, but I am still quite a beginner and my brain is near collapsing :-( All I want is to separate all the threaded stuff into another class and make the program do just the same thing as it already does. Help please! Again thank you very much in advance for any useful suggestions, hints, examples etc... Regs Me

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  • Passing Key-Value pair to a COM method in C#

    - by Sinnerman
    Hello, I have the following problem: I have a project in C# .Net where I use a third party COM component. So the problem is that the above component has a method, which takes a string and a number of key-value pairs as arguments. I already managed to call that method through JavaScript like that: var srcName srcName = top.cadView.addSource( 'Database', { driver : 'Oracle', host : '10.10.1.123', port : 1234, database : 'someSID', user : 'someuser', password : 'somepass' } ) if ( srcName != '' ) { ... } ... and it worked perfectly well. However I have no idea how to do the same using C#. I tried passing the pairs as Dictionary and Struct/Class but it throws me a "Specified cast is not valid." exception. I also tried using Hashtable like that: Hashtable args = new Hashtable(); args.Add("driver", "Oracle"); args.Add("host", "10.10.1.123"); args.Add("port", 1234); args.Add("database", "someSID"); args.Add("user", "someUser"); args.Add("password", "samePass"); String srcName = axCVCanvas.addSource("Database", args); and although it doesn't throw an exception it still won't do the job, writing me in a log file [ Error] [14:38:33.281] Cad::SourceDB::SourceDB(): missing parameter 'driver' Any help will be appreciated, thanks.

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  • Redirect Desktop Internal Pages to Correct Mobile Internal Pages with Htaccess

    - by Luis Alejandro Ramrez Gallardo
    I have built a Mobile site in a sub-domain. I have successfully implemented the redirect 302 from: www.domain.com to m.domain.com in htaccess. What I'm looking to achieve now it to redirect users from: www.domain.com/internal-page/ > 302 > m.domain.com/internal-page.html Notice that URL name for desktop and mobile is not the same. The code I'm using looks like this: # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^index\.php$ - [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress # Mobile Redirect # Verify Desktop Version Parameter RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} (^|&)ViewFullSite=true(&|$) # Set cookie and expiration RewriteRule ^ - [CO=mredir:0:www.domain.com:60] # Prevent looping RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^m.domain.com$ # Define Mobile agents RewriteCond %{HTTP_ACCEPT} "text\/vnd\.wap\.wml|application\/vnd\.wap\.xhtml\+xml" [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} "sony|symbian|nokia|samsung|mobile|windows ce|epoc|opera" [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} "mini|nitro|j2me|midp-|cldc-|netfront|mot|up\.browser|up\.link|audiovox"[NC,OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} "blackberry|ericsson,|panasonic|philips|sanyo|sharp|sie-"[NC,OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} "portalmmm|blazer|avantgo|danger|palm|series60|palmsource|pocketpc"[NC,OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} "smartphone|rover|ipaq|au-mic,|alcatel|ericy|vodafone\/|wap1\.|wap2\.|iPhone|android"[NC] # Verify if not already in Mobile site RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^m\. # We need to read and write at the same time to set cookie RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} !(^|&)ViewFullSite=true(&|$) # Verify that we previously haven't set the cookie RewriteCond %{HTTP_COOKIE} !^.*mredir=0.*$ [NC] # Now redirect the users to the Mobile Homepage RewriteRule ^$ http://m.domain.com [R] RewriteRule $/internal-page/ http://m.domain.com/internal-page.html [R,L]

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Binding a Child Entity to the Model

    - by Nathan Taylor
    This one seems painfully obvious to me, but for some reason I can't get it working the way I want it to. Perhaps it isn't possible the way I am doing it, but that seems unlikely. This question may be somewhat related: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1274855/asp-net-mvc-model-binding-related-entities-on-same-page. I have an EditorTemplate to edit an entity with multiple related entity references. When the editor is rendered the user is given a drop down list to select related entities from, with the drop down list returning an ID as its value. <%=Html.DropDownListFor(m => m.Entity.ID)%> When the request is sent the form value is named as expected: "Entity.ID", however my strongly typed Model defined as an action parameter doesn't have Entity.ID populated with the value passed in the request. public ActionResult AddEntity(EntityWithChildEntities entityWithChildEntities) { } I tried fiddling around with the Bind() attribute and specified Bind(Include = "Entity.ID") on the entityWithChildEntities, but that doesn't seem to work. I also tried Bind(Include = "Entity"), but that resulted in the ModelBinder attempting to bind a full "Entity" definition (not surprisingly). Is there any way to get the default model binder to fill the child entity ID or will I need to add action parameters for each child entity's ID and then manually copy the values into the model definition?

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  • Serializing Exceptions WCF + Silverlight

    - by Bram
    I have a WCF service I use to submit bugs for my project. Snippet of the data class: Private _exception As Exception <DataMember()> _ Public Property Exception As Exception Get Return _exception End Get Set(ByVal value As Exception) _exception = value End Set End Property I have a Silverlight app that uses the WCF service to send any bugs home if and when they occur. This is the error I'm testing with: Dim i As Integer = 5 i = i / 0 The problem is SL is banging on with this message: System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException was unhandled by user code Message=There was an error while trying to serialize parameter :bug. The InnerException message was 'Type 'System.OverflowException' with data contract name 'OverflowException:http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System' is not expected. Add any types not known statically to the list of known types - for example, by using the KnownTypeAttribute attribute or by adding them to the list of known types passed to DataContractSerializer.'. Please see InnerException for more details. Is there some trick to get a generic .NET Exception (any InnerException) to serialize properly? I'm not doing anything funky with the exception - it's just a plain 'ol exception Thanks for any help.

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  • rake test not copying development postgres db with sequences

    - by Robert Crida
    I am trying to develop a rails application on postgresql using a sequence to increment a field instead of a default ruby approach based on validates_uniqueness_of. This has proved challenging for a number of reasons: 1. This is a migration of an existing table, not a new table or column 2. Using parameter :default = "nextval('seq')" didn't work because it tries to set it in parenthesis 3. Eventually got migration working in 2 steps: change_column :work_commencement_orders, :wco_number_suffix, :integer, :null => false#, :options => "set default nextval('wco_number_suffix_seq')" execute %{ ALTER TABLE work_commencement_orders ALTER COLUMN wco_number_suffix SET DEFAULT nextval('wco_number_suffix_seq'); } Now this would appear to have done the correct thing in the development database and the schema looks like: wco_number_suffix | integer | not null default nextval('wco_number_suffix_seq'::regclass) However, the tests are failing with PGError: ERROR: null value in column "wco_number_suffix" violates not-null constraint : INSERT INTO "work_commencement_orders" ("expense_account_id", "created_at", "process_id", "vo2_issued_on", "wco_template", "updated_at", "notes", "process_type", "vo_number", "vo_issued_on", "vo2_number", "wco_type_id", "created_by", "contractor_id", "old_wco_type", "master_wco_number", "deadline", "updated_by", "detail", "elective_id", "authorization_batch_id", "delivery_lat", "delivery_long", "operational", "state", "issued_on", "delivery_detail") VALUES(226, '2010-05-31 07:02:16.764215', 728, NULL, E'Default', '2010-05-31 07:02:16.764215', NULL, E'Procurement::Process', NULL, NULL, NULL, 226, NULL, 276, NULL, E'MWCO-213', '2010-06-14 07:02:16.756952', NULL, E'Name 4597', 220, NULL, NULL, NULL, 'f', E'pending', NULL, E'728 Test Road; Test Town; 1234; Test Land') RETURNING "id" The explanation can be found when you inspect the schema of the test database: wco_number_suffix | integer | not null So what happened to the default? I tried adding task: template: smmt_ops_development to the database.yml file which has the effect of issuing create database smmt_ops_test template = "smmt_ops_development" encoding = 'utf8' I have verified that if I issue this then it does in fact copy the default nextval. So clearly rails is doing something after that to suppress it again. Any suggestions as to how to fix this? Thanks Robert

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  • Cascading input control is empty while accessing a Jasper Report

    - by Yogesh R
    I call a jasper report through an independent URL through which I pass one of the input controls needed to run the report. E.g. http:// localhost:8080/jasperserver/flow.html?_flowId=viewReportFlow&standAlone=true&reportUnit=xyz&ParentFolderUri=abcd&j_username=xyz&j_password=xyz&parameter1=value1& . . . As you can see in the URL, I pass the JasperServer username and password, reportUnit name and location and other mandatory parameters, along with the report input parameter, i.e., "parameter1" which can have a value like "value1". I used a mandatory, read-only and visible input control for this input value. Its value would come from the URL, showed in the box but was read-only and hence could not be changed. The report was working absolutely fine upto this point. But the tragedy began when my client rejected this idea. He wanted a completely invisible input control to my report and the input value would be passed through the URL, just like illustrated above. And then my client asked me to refer to this and made me work on cascading input controls. Recently I added a cascading input control to this report. The input control type is a single select query, which utilizes two parameters that I pass to the report through the URL. Now when the Jasper server responds to the URL with the input parameters, all the other static parameters work properly, except for the cascaded one. When I click the select box of the cascaded input, I can see the desired options for a second, and then, it just goes empty while I'm viewing the select list. But when I make the "Parameter1" input control visible, the cascading input control works! And then I turn in invisible, the cascading input control turns into a beast that does things by itself and not listen to his master. I am not able to understand why this is happening. Could anybody please provide me a solution to this?

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler does not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • Generic object to object mapping with parametrized constructor

    - by Rody van Sambeek
    I have a data access layer which returns an IDataRecord. I have a WCF service that serves DataContracts (dto's). These DataContracts are initiated by a parametrized constructor containing the IDataRecord as follows: [DataContract] public class DataContractItem { [DataMember] public int ID; [DataMember] public string Title; public DataContractItem(IDataRecord record) { this.ID = Convert.ToInt32(record["ID"]); this.Title = record["title"].ToString(); } } Unfortanately I can't change the DAL, so I'm obliged to work with the IDataRecord as input. But in generat this works very well. The mappings are pretty simple most of the time, sometimes they are a bit more complex, but no rocket science. However, now I'd like to be able to use generics to instantiate the different DataContracts to simplify the WCF service methods. I want to be able to do something like: public T DoSomething<T>(IDataRecord record) { ... return new T(record); } So I'd tried to following solutions: Use a generic typed interface with a constructor. doesn't work: ofcourse we can't define a constructor in an interface Use a static method to instantiate the DataContract and create a typed interface containing this static method. doesn't work: ofcourse we can't define a static method in an interface Use a generic typed interface containing the new() constraint doesn't work: new() constraint cannot contain a parameter (the IDataRecord) Using a factory object to perform the mapping based on the DataContract Type. does work, but: not very clean, because I now have a switch statement with all mappings in one file. I can't find a real clean solution for this. Can somebody shed a light on this for me? The project is too small for any complex mapping techniques and too large for a "switch-based" factory implementation.

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  • MVVM-Light EventToCommand Behavior for CheckBox Checked/Unchecked in Silverlight

    - by George Durzi
    I would like to handle the Checked and Unchecked events of a Checkbox control and execute a command in my ViewModel. I wired up an EventTrigger for both the Checked and Unchecked events as follows: <CheckBox x:Name="chkIsExtendedHr" IsChecked="{Binding Schedule.Is24Hour, Mode=TwoWay}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Checked"> <GalaSoft_MvvmLight_Command:EventToCommand CommandParameter="{Binding IsChecked, ElementName=chkIsExtendedHr}" Command="{Binding Path=SetCloseTime, Mode=OneWay}" /> </i:EventTrigger> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Unchecked"> <GalaSoft_MvvmLight_Command:EventToCommand CommandParameter="{Binding IsChecked, ElementName=chkIsExtendedHr}" Command="{Binding Path=SetCloseTime, Mode=OneWay}" /> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> </CheckBox> I defined a RelayCommand in my ViewModel and wired up an action for it: public RelayCommand<Boolean> SetCloseTime{ get; private set; } ... SetCloseTime= new RelayCommand<bool>(ExecuteSetCloseTime); The parameter in the action for the command always resolves to the previous state of the CheckBox, e.g. false when the CheckBox is checked, and true when the CheckBox is unchecked. void ExecuteSetCloseTime(bool isChecked) { if (isChecked) { // do something } } Is this expected behavior? I have a workaround where I have separate triggers (and commands) for the Checked and Unchecked and use a RelayCommand instead of RelayCommand<bool>. Each command executes correctly when the CheckBox is checked and unchecked. Feels a little dirty though - even dirtier than having UI code in my ViewModel :) Thanks

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  • Basic syntax for an animation loop?

    - by Moshe
    I know that jQuery, for example, can do animation of sorts. I also know that at the very core of the animation, there must me some sort of loop doing the animation. What is an example of such a loop? A complete answer should ideally answer the following questions: What is a basic syntax for an effective animation recursion that can animate a single property of a particular object at a time? The function should be able to vary its target object and property of the object. What arguments/parameters should it take? What is a good range of reiterating the loop? In milliseconds? (Should this be a parameter/argument to the function?) REMEMBER: The answer is NOT necessarily language specific, but if you are writing in a specific language, please specify which one. Error handling is a plus. {Nothing is more irritating (for our purposes) than an animation that does something strange, like stopping halfway through.} Thanks!

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  • how do i execute a stored procedure with vici coolstorage?

    - by lincolnk
    I'm building an app around Vici Coolstorage (asp.net version). I have my classes created and mapped to my database tables and can pull a list of all records fine. I've written a stored procedure where the query jumps across databases that aren't mapped with Coolstorage, however, the fields in the query result map directly to one of my classes. The procedure takes 1 parameter. so 2 questions here: how do i execute the stored procedure? i'm doing this CSParameterCollection collection = new CSParameterCollection(); collection.Add("@id", id); var result = Vici.CoolStorage.CSDatabase.RunQuery("procedurename", collection); and getting the exception "Incorrect syntax near 'procedurename'." (i'm guessing this is because it's trying to execute it as text rather than a procedure?) and also, since the class representing my table is defined as abstract, how do i specify that result should create a list of MyTable objects instead of generic or dynamic or whatever objects? if i try Vici.CoolStorage.CSDatabase.RunQuery<MyTable>(...) the compiler yells at me for it being an abstract class.

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  • Encryption puzzle / How to create a ProxyStub for a Remote Assistance ticket

    - by Jon Clegg
    I am trying to create a ticket for Remote Assistance. Part of that requires creating a PassStub parameter. As of the documenation: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc240115(PROT.10).aspx PassStub: The encrypted novice computer's password string. When the Remote Assistance Connection String is sent as a file over e-mail, to provide additional security, a password is used.<16 In part 16 they detail how to create as PassStub. In Windows XP and Windows Server 2003, when a password is used, it is encrypted using PROV_RSA_FULL predefined Cryptographic provider with MD5 hashing and CALG_RC4, the RC4 stream encryption algorithm. As PassStub looks like this in the file: PassStub="LK#6Lh*gCmNDpj" If you want to generate one yourself run msra.exe in Vista or run the Remote Assistance tool in WinXP. The documentation says this stub is the result of the function CryptEncrypt with the key derived from the password and encrypted with the session id (Those are also in the ticket file). The problem is that CryptEncrypt produces a binary output way larger then the 15 byte PassStub. Also the PassStub isn't encoding in any way I've seen before. Some interesting things about the PassStub encoding. After doing statistical analysis the 3rd char is always a one of: !#$&()+-=@^. Only symbols seen everywhere are: *_ . Otherwise the valid characters are 0-9 a-z A-Z. There are a total of 75 valid characters and they are always 15 bytes. Running msra.exe with the same password always generates a different PassStub, indicating that it is not a direct hash but includes the rasessionid as they say. Some other ideas I've had is that it is not the direct result of CryptEncrypt, but a result of the rasessionid in the MD5 hash. In MS-RA (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc240013(PROT.10).aspx). The "PassStub Novice" is simply hex encoded, and looks to be the right length. The problem is I have no idea how to go from any hash to way the ProxyStub looks like.

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  • DataTable won't DataBind with a DataTable.NewRow()

    - by David
    Is DataRow.NewRow() insufficient as the only row in a DataTable? I would expect this to work, but it doesn't. It's near the end of my Page_Load inside my If(!Postback) block. gridCPCP is GridView DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt.Columns.Add("ID", int.MinValue.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Code", string.Empty.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Date", DateTime.MinValue.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Date2", DateTime.MinValue.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Filename", string.Empty.GetType()); //code to add rows if (dt.Rows.Count > 0) { gridCPCP.DataSource = dt; gridCPCP.DataBind(); } else { dt.Rows.Add(dt.NewRow()); gridCPCP.DataSource = dt; gridCPCP.DataBind(); //EXCEPTION int TotalColumns = gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells.Count; gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells.Clear(); gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells.Add(new TableCell()); gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells[0].ColumnSpan = TotalColumns; gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells[0].Text = "No Record Found"; } The exception throws on gridCPCP.DataBind() and only when execution reaches the else block. If there were rows added above via dt.Rows.Add(new object[] { ... } binding works. System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Length cannot be less than zero. Parameter name: length

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  • restrict documents for mapreduce with mongoid

    - by theBernd
    I implemented the pearson product correlation via map / reduce / finalize. The missing part is to restrict the documents (representing users) to be processed via a filter query. For a simple query like mapreduce(mapper, reducer, :finalize => finalizer, :query => { :name => 'Bernd' }) I get this to work. But my filter criteria is a little bit more complicated: I have one set of preferences which need to have at least one common element and another set of preferences which may not have a common element. In a later step I also want to restrict this to documents (users) within a certain geographical distance. Currently I have this code working in my map function, but I would prefer to separate this into either query params as supported by mongoid or a javascript function. All my attempts to solve this failed since the code is either ignored or raises an error. I did a couple of tests. A regular find like User.where(:name.in => ['Arno', 'Bernd', 'Claudia']) works and returns #<Mongoid::Criteria:0x00000101f0ea40 @selector={:name=>{"$in"=>["Arno", "Bernd", "Claudia"]}}, @options={}, @klass=User, @documents=[]> Trying the same with mapreduce User.collection. mapreduce(mapper, reducer, :finalize => finalizer, :query => { :name.in => ['Arno', 'Bernd', 'Claudia'] }) fails with `serialize': keys must be strings or symbols (TypeError) in bson-1.1.5 The intermediate query parameter looks like this :query=>{#<Mongoid::Criterion::Complex:0x00000101a209e8 @key=:name, @operator="in">=>["Arno", "Bernd", "Claudia"]} and at least @operator looks a bit weird to me. I'm also uncertain if the class name can be omitted. BTW - I'm using mongodb 1.6.5-x86_64, and the mongoid 2.0.0.beta.20, mongo 1.1.5 and bson 1.1.5 gems on MacOS. What am I doing wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • How much of STL is too much?

    - by Darius Kucinskas
    I am using a lot of STL code with std::for_each, bind, and so on, but I noticed that sometimes STL usage is not good idea. For example if you have a std::vector and want to do one action on each item of the vector, your first idea is to use this: std::for_each(vec.begin(), vec.end(), Foo()) and it is elegant and ok, for a while. But then comes the first set of bug reports and you have to modify code. Now you should add parameter to call Foo(), so now it becomes: std::for_each(vec.begin(), vec.end(), std::bind2nd(Foo(), X)) but that is only temporary solution. Now the project is maturing and you understand business logic much better and you want to add new modifications to code. It is at this point that you realize that you should use old good: for(std::vector::iterator it = vec.begin(); it != vec.end(); ++it) Is this happening only to me? Do you recognise this kind of pattern in your code? Have you experience similar anti-patterns using STL?

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