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  • How much of STL is too much?

    - by Darius Kucinskas
    I am using a lot of STL code with std::for_each, bind, and so on, but I noticed that sometimes STL usage is not good idea. For example if you have a std::vector and want to do one action on each item of the vector, your first idea is to use this: std::for_each(vec.begin(), vec.end(), Foo()) and it is elegant and ok, for a while. But then comes the first set of bug reports and you have to modify code. Now you should add parameter to call Foo(), so now it becomes: std::for_each(vec.begin(), vec.end(), std::bind2nd(Foo(), X)) but that is only temporary solution. Now the project is maturing and you understand business logic much better and you want to add new modifications to code. It is at this point that you realize that you should use old good: for(std::vector::iterator it = vec.begin(); it != vec.end(); ++it) Is this happening only to me? Do you recognise this kind of pattern in your code? Have you experience similar anti-patterns using STL?

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  • Flash/Flex sending XML to Rails App

    - by bdicasa
    I'm trying to send some XML to a rails app in Flex. I'm using the URLRequest and URLLoader objects. However, I'm having trouble determining how to send the XML and _method parameter to the rails app using these flash objects. Below is how I'm currently trying to achieve this. var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.POST; request.data = new Object(); request.data.xml = Blog.xml.toXMLString(); request.contentType = "text/xml"; var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, saveCompleteHandler); var saveUrl:String = ""; saveUrl = BASE_URL; if (Blog.isNewBlog) { // Set the rails REST method. request.data._method = "POST"; saveUrl += "blogs.xml"; } else { // Set the rails REST method. request.data._method = "PUT"; saveUrl += "blogs/" + Blog.id.toString() + ".xml"; } request.url = saveUrl; //trace(request.data.toString()); loader.load(request); However the only data that is getting sent to the server is [Object object]. If some one could let me know where I'm going wrong I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks.

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  • Filling SWT table object using a separated thread class ...

    - by erlord
    Hi all I've got a code snippet by the swt team that does exactly what I need. However, there is a part I want to separate into another class, in particular, the whole inline stuff. In response to my former question, it has been suggested that Callable should be used in order to implement threaded objects. It is suggested to make use of an implementation of runnable or better callable, since I do need some kind of return. However, I don't get it. My problems are: In the original code, within the inline implementation of the method run, some of the parents objects are called. How would I do this when the thread is separated? Pass the object via the C'tor's parameter? In the original code, another runnable object is nested within the runnable implementation. What is it good for? How to implement this when having separated the code? Furthermore, this nested runnable again calls objects created by the main method. Please, have mercy with me, but I am still quite a beginner and my brain is near collapsing :-( All I want is to separate all the threaded stuff into another class and make the program do just the same thing as it already does. Help please! Again thank you very much in advance for any useful suggestions, hints, examples etc... Regs Me

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  • add row to a BindingSource gives different autoincrement value from whats saved into DB

    - by Ruben Trancoso
    I have a DataGridView that shows list of records and when I hit a insert button, a form should add a new record, edit its values and save it. I have a BindingSource bound to a DataGridView. I pass is as a parameter to a NEW RECORD form so // When the form opens it add a new row and de DataGridView display this new record at this time DataRowView currentRow; currentRow = (DataRowView) myBindindSource.AddNew(); when user confirm to save it I do a myBindindSource.EndEdit(); // inside the form and after the form is disposed the new row is saved and the bindingsorce position is updated to the new row DataRowView drv = myForm.CurrentRow; avaliadoTableAdapter.Update(drv.Row); avaliadoBindingSource.Position = avaliadoBindingSource.Find("ID", drv.Row.ItemArray[0]); The problem is that this table has a AUTOINCREMENT field and the value saved may not correspond the the value the bindingSource gives in EDIT TIME. So, when I close and open the DataGridView again the new rowd give its ID based on the available slot in the undelying DB at the momment is was saved and it just ignores the value the BindingSource generated ad EDIT TIME, Since the value given by the binding source should be used by another table as a foreingKey it make the reference insconsistent. There's a way to get the real ID was saved to the database?

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  • Ninject problem binding to constant value in MVC3 with a RavenDB session

    - by Jim
    I've seen a lot of different ways of configuring Ninject with ASP.NET MVC, but the implementation seems to change slightly with each release of the MVC framework. I'm trying to inject a RavenDB session into my repository. Here is what I have that's almost working. public class MvcApplication : NinjectHttpApplication { ... protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { base.OnApplicationStarted(); AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterGlobalFilters(GlobalFilters.Filters); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } protected override IKernel CreateKernel() { return new StandardKernel(new MyNinjectModule()); } public static IDocumentSession CurrentSession { get { return (IDocumentSession)HttpContext.Current.Items[RavenSessionKey]; } } ... } public class MyNinjectModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { Bind<IUserRepository>().To<UserRepository>(); Bind<IDocumentSession>().ToConstant(MvcApplication.CurrentSession); } } When it tries to resolve IDocumentSession, I get the following error. Error activating IDocumentSession using binding from IDocumentSession to constant value Provider returned null. Activation path: 3) Injection of dependency IDocumentSession into parameter documentSession of constructor of type UserRepository Any ideas on how to make the IDocumentSession resolve?

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  • how to do these in visio 2007?

    - by user285825
    I am very annoyed with this software. I am unable to do many things with this software. In the book 'UML distilled' many features of UML are discussed which I am not sure how to accomplish with visio 2007. For instance, 1) I can't find the unary association. In the UML static structure under shapes panel on left, there are a lot of components like package, class, blah, blah, binary association, blah, blah, association class. But where is unary association. 2) For sequence diagram, I created a message (any of sync, async, call type message, ordinary message). The I tried to incorporate some parameter information. I went to the properties. There were a category called arguments. But selecting that shows a table where arguments are supposed to be shown. But all are diasbled. 3) For sequence diagram, there is no component delete (the big X) in the UML Sequence. 4) For class diagram, there is supposed to be a comment compartment where comments like mentioning the responsibilities are allowed using a comment prefixed with "--". But I am not sure how to accomplish them. 5) there is also supposed to be a way to indicate static properties of a class. But I am not sure how to do that in visio. 6) there is supposed to be a stereotype for class <. But in the stereotype drop down there is no stereotype. 7) where is the ball and socket component?

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  • Windows Workflow Foundation: Recommendations how to design architecture

    - by Petr Felzmann
    We are running several the same ASP.NET applications (one per customer) based on our custom framework (libraries). Each application use its own database (Initial Catalog in the term of connection string). Now we would like to add workflow capability (of course 4.0 ;) to the applications. So the particular workflows will be the same for all the applications only some initial settings of each workflow can vary, e.g. in one application the e-mail will be send to the user X, but in other application to the user Y. I have several general questions how to design architecture: (1) Can be the workflow database shared for all the applications? (2) Where to host workflow engine - inside our custom windows NT service or inside IIS? What are the criteria to choose the right host? (3) How the workflow engine should communicate with applications? Should application call some WCF endpoint API configured in workflow host or vice verse - should each application provide WCF endpoint API and workflow engine will call it? How then the workflow engine will identify applications? Both cases requires probably some application identifier as a parameter in API calls? (4) We would like to also store some information to the application databases based on the workflow states. Is it possible? Thanks for suggestions!

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  • JSESSIONID collision between two servers on same ip but different ports

    - by Steve Armstrong
    I've got a situation where I have two different webapps running on a single server, using different ports. They're both running Java's Jetty servlet container, so they both use a cookie parameter named JSESSIONID to track the session id. These two webapps are fighting over the session id. Open a Firefox tab, and go to WebApp1 WebApp1's HTTP response has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 Firefox now has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 in all it's HTTP requests to WebApp1 Open a second Firefox tab, and go to WebApp2 The HTTP reqeust to WebApp2 also has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1, but in the doGet, when I call req.getSession(false); I get null. And if I call req.getSession(true) I get a new Session object, but then the HTTP response from WebApp2 has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=20 Now, WebApp2 has a working Session, but WebApp1's session is gone. Going to WebApp1 will give me a new session, blowing away WebApp2's session. Continue forever So the Sessions are thrashing between each web app. I'd really like for the req.getSession(false) to return a valid session if there's already a JSESSIONID cookie defined. One option is to basically reimplement the Session framework with a HashMap and cookies called WEBAPP1SESSIONID and WEBAPP2SESSIONID, but that sucks, and means I'll have to hack the new Session stuff into ActionServlet and a few other places. This must be a problem others have encountered. Is Jetty's HttpServletRequest.getSession(boolean) just crappy?

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  • Pass Variable to Java Method from an Ant Target

    - by user200317
    At the moment I have a .properties file to store settings related to the framework. Example: default.auth.url=http://someserver-at008:8080/ default.screenshots=false default.dumpHTML=false And I have written a class to extract those values and here is the method of that class. public static String getResourceAsStream(String defaultProp) { String defaultPropValue = null; //String keys = null; try { InputStream inputStream = SeleniumDefaultProperties.class.getClassLoader().getResourceAsStream(PROP_FILE); Properties properties = new Properties(); //load the input stream using properties. properties.load(inputStream); defaultPropValue = properties.getProperty(defaultProp); }catch (IOException e) { log.error("Something wrong with .properties file, check the location.", e); } return defaultPropValue; } Throughout the application I use method like follows to just exact property needed, public String getBrowserDefaultCommand() { String bcmd = SeleniumDefaultProperties.getResourceAsStream("default.browser.command"); if(bcmd.equals("")) handleMissingConfigProperties(SeleniumDefaultProperties.getResourceAsStream("default.browser.command")); return bcmd; } But I have not decided do a change to this and use ant and pass a parameter instead of using it from .properties file. I was wondering how could I pass a value to a Java Method using ANT. Non of these classes have Main methods and will not have any main. Due to this I was unable to use it as a java system properties. Thanks in advance.

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  • Directly call distutils' or setuptools' setup() function with command name/options, without parsing

    - by Ryan B. Lynch
    I'd like to call Python's distutils' or setuptools' setup() function in a slightly unconventional way, but I'm not sure whether distutils is meant for this kind of usage. As an example, let's say I currently have a 'setup.py' file, which looks like this (lifted verbatim from the distutils docs--the setuptools usage is almost identical): from distutils.core import setup setup(name='Distutils', version='1.0', description='Python Distribution Utilities', author='Greg Ward', author_email='[email protected]', url='http://www.python.org/sigs/distutils-sig/', packages=['distutils', 'distutils.command'], ) Normally, to build just the .spec file for an RPM of this module, I could run python setup.py bdist_rpm --spec-only, which parses the command line and calls the 'bdist_rpm' code to handle the RPM-specific stuff. The .spec file ends up in './dist'. How can I change my setup() invocation so that it runs the 'bdist_rpm' command with the '--spec-only' option, WITHOUT parsing command-line parameters? Can I pass the command name and options as parameters to setup()? Or can I manually construct a command line, and pass that as a parameter, instead? NOTE: I already know that I could call the script in a separate process, with an actual command line, using os.system() or the subprocess module or something similar. I'm trying to avoid using any kind of external command invocations. I'm looking specifically for a solution that runs setup() in the current interpreter. For background, I'm converting some release-management shell scripts into a single Python program. One of the tasks is running 'setup.py' to generate a .spec file for further pre-release testing. Running 'setup.py' as an external command, with its own command line options, seems like an awkward method, and it complicates the rest of the program. I feel like there may be a more Pythonic way.

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  • More FP-correct way to create an update sql query

    - by James Black
    I am working on access a database using F# and my initial attempt at creating a function to create the update query is flawed. let BuildUserUpdateQuery (oldUser:UserType) (newUser:UserType) = let buf = new System.Text.StringBuilder("UPDATE users SET "); if (oldUser.FirstName.Equals(newUser.FirstName) = false) then buf.Append("SET first_name='").Append(newUser.FirstName).Append("'" ) |> ignore if (oldUser.LastName.Equals(newUser.LastName) = false) then buf.Append("SET last_name='").Append(newUser.LastName).Append("'" ) |> ignore if (oldUser.UserName.Equals(newUser.UserName) = false) then buf.Append("SET username='").Append(newUser.UserName).Append("'" ) |> ignore buf.Append(" WHERE id=").Append(newUser.Id).ToString() This doesn't properly put a , between any update parts after the first, for example: UPDATE users SET first_name='Firstname', last_name='lastname' WHERE id=... I could put in a mutable variable to keep track when the first part of the set clause is appended, but that seems wrong. I could just create an list of tuples, where each tuple is oldtext, newtext, columnname, so that I could then loop through the list and build up the query, but it seems that I should be passing in a StringBuilder to a recursive function, returning back a boolean which is then passed as a parameter to the recursive function. Does this seem to be the best approach, or is there a better one?

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  • SSRS2005 timeout error

    - by jaspernygaard
    Hi I've been running around circles the last 2 days, trying to figure a problem in our customers live environment. I figured I might as well post it here, since google gave me very limited information on the error message (5 results to be exact). The error boils down to a timeout when requesting a certain report in SSRS2005, when a certain parameter is used. The deployment scenario is: Machine #1 Running reporting services (SQL2005, W2K3, IIS6) Machine #2 Running datawarehouse database (SQL2005, W2K3) which is the data source for #1 Both machines are running on the same vm cluster and LAN. The report requests a fairly simple SP - lets called it sp(param $a, param $b). When requested with param $a filled, it executes correctly. When using param $b, it times out after the global timeout periode has passed. If I run the stored procedure with param $b directly from sql management studio on #2, it returns the results perfectly fine (within 3-4s). I've profiled the datawarehouse database on #2 and when param $b is used, the query from the reporting service to the database, never reaches #2. The error message that I get upon timeout, when using param $b, when invoking the report directly from SSRS web interface is: "An error has occurred during report processing. Cannot read the next data row for the data set DataSet. A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Operation cancelled by user." The ExecutionLog for the SSRS does give me much information besides the error message rsProcessingAborted I'm running out of ideas of how to nail this problem. So I would greatly appreciate any comments, suggestions or ideas. Thanks in advance!

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  • Unit test complex classes with many private methods

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I've got a class with one public method and many private methods which are run depending on what parameter are passed to the public method so my code looks something like: public class SomeComplexClass { IRepository _repository; public SomeComplexClass() this(new Repository()) { } public SomeComplexClass(IRepository repository) { _repository = repository; } public List<int> SomeComplexCalcualation(int option) { var list = new List<int>(); if (option == 1) list = CalculateOptionOne(); else if (option == 2) list = CalculateOptionTwo(); else if (option == 3) list = CalculateOptionThree(); else if (option == 4) list = CalculateOptionFour(); else if (option == 5) list = CalculateOptionFive(); return list; } private List<int> CalculateOptionOne() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionTwo() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionThree() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionFour() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionFive() { // Some calculation } } I've thought of a few ways to test this class but all of them seem overly complex or expose the methods more than I would like. The options so far are: Set all the private methods to internal and use [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo()] Separate out all the private methods into a separate class and create an interface. Make all the methods virtual and in my tests create a new class that inherits from this class and override the methods. Are there any other options for testing the above class that would be better that what I've listed? If you would pick one of the ones I've listed can you explain why? Thanks

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  • Problem with looping a video in Flash

    - by Blaze
    I am trying to loop a video and i am having some issues with this in flash. You can view the video here: http://www.healthcarepros.net/travel.html Here the specific code for the flash video: <script language="javascript"> if (AC_FL_RunContent == 0) { alert("This page requires AC_RunActiveContent.js."); } else { AC_FL_RunContent( 'codebase', 'http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0', 'width', '330', 'height', '245', 'src', 'healthcare-video', 'quality', 'high', 'pluginspage', 'http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer', 'align', 'middle', 'play', 'true', 'loop', 'true', 'scale', 'showall', 'wmode', 'window', 'devicefont', 'false', 'id', 'healthcare-video', 'bgcolor', '#ffffff', 'name', 'healthcare-video', 'menu', 'true', 'allowFullScreen', 'false', 'allowScriptAccess','sameDomain', 'movie', 'healthcare-video', 'salign', '' ); //end AC code } </script> <noscript> <object classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="330" height="245" id="healthcare-video" align="middle"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="loop" value="true" /> <param name="play" value="true" /> <param name="movie" value="healthcare-video.swf" /><param name="quality" value="high" /><param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <embed src="healthcare-video.swf" play="true" flashvars="autoplay=true&play=true" quality="high" bgcolor="#ffffff" width="330" height="245" name="healthcare-video" align="middle" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" allowFullScreen="false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object> Additionally, i have added in the parameter code that calls the loop function but for some reason it still doesnt seem to work, any suggestions?

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  • Passing Object to Service in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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  • Full Text Search in MSSQL2008 shows wrong display_item for Thai language

    - by ensecoz
    I am working with MSSQL2008. My task is to investigate the issue where FTS cannot find the right result for Thai. First, I have the table which enables the FTS on the column 'ItemName' which is nvarchar. The Catalog is created with the Thai Language. Note that the Thai language is one of the languages that doesn't separate the word by spaces, so '????' '???' '????' are written like this in a sentence: '???????????' In the table, there are many rows that include the word (????); for example row#1 (ItemName: '???????????') On the webpage, I try to search for '????' but SQLServer cannot find it. So I try to investigate it by trying the following query in SQLServer: select * from sys.dm_fts_parser(N'"???????????"', 1054, 0, 0) ...to see how the words are broken. The first one is the text to be broken. The second parameter is to specify that we're using Thai (WorkBreaker, so on). Here is the result: row#1 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#2 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#3 (display_item: '??', source_item: '???????????') Notice that the first and second row display the wrong display_item '?' in the '????' isn't even Thai characters. '?' in '????' is not a Thai character either. So the question is where did those alien characters come from? I guess this why I cannot search for '????' because the word breaker is broken and keeping the wrong character in the indexes. Please help!

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  • .NET MVC custom routing with empty parameters

    - by user135498
    Hi All, I have a .net mvc with the following routes: routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}/{firstname}/{middlename}/{lastname}/{city}/{state}/{address}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = (string)null, middlename = (string)null, lastname = (string)null, city = (string)null, state = (string)null, address = (string)null, SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "" }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "", SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Account", action = "LogOn", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); The following request works fine: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john/w/smith/seattle/wa/123 main This request does not work: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john//smith//wa/ Not all requests will have all paramters and I would like empty parameters to be passed to the method as empty string or null. Where am I going wrong? The method: public ActionResult Search(string firstname, string middlename, string lastname, string city, string state, string address, SearchType searchtype, InputType inputtype) { SearchRequest r = new SearchRequest { Firstname = firstname, Middlename = middlename, Lastname = lastname, City = city, State = state, Address = address, SearchType = searchtype, InputType = inputtype }; return View(r); }

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  • MySQL Stored Procedures not working with SELECT (basic question)

    - by TMG
    Hello, I am using a platform (perfectforms) that requires me to use stored procedures for most of my queries, and having never used stored procedures, I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. The following statement executes without error: DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_db.test_proc// CREATE PROCEDURE test_db.test_proc() SELECT 'foo'; // DELIMITER ; But when I try to call it using: CALL test_proc(); I get the following error: #1312 - PROCEDURE test_db.test_proc can't return a result set in the given context I am executing these statements from within phpmyadmin 3.2.4, PHP Version 5.2.12 and the mysql server version is 5.0.89-community. When I write a stored procedure that returns a parameter, and then select it, things work fine (e.g.): DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_db.get_sum// CREATE PROCEDURE test_db.get_sum(out total int) BEGIN SELECT SUM(field1) INTO total FROM test_db.test_table; END // DELIMITER ; works fine, and when I call it: CALL get_sum(@t); SELECT @t; I get the sum no problem. Ultimately, what I need to do is have a fancy SELECT statement wrapped up in a stored procedure, so I can call it, and return multiple rows of multiple fields. For now I'm just trying to get any select working. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Binding type variables that only occur in assertions

    - by Giuseppe Maggiore
    Hi! I find it extremely difficult to describe my problem, so here goes nothing: I have a bunch of assertions on the type of a function. These assertions rely on a type variable that is not used for any parameter of the function, but is only used for internal bindings. Whenever I use this function it does not compile because, of course, the compiler has no information from which to guess what type to bind my type variable. Here is the code: {-# LANGUAGE MultiParamTypeClasses, FunctionalDependencies, FlexibleInstances, UndecidableInstances, FlexibleContexts, EmptyDataDecls, ScopedTypeVariables, TypeOperators, TypeSynonymInstances #-} class C a a' where convert :: a -> a' class F a b where apply :: a -> b class S s a where select :: s -> a data CInt = CInt Int instance S (Int,String) Int where select (i,_) = i instance F Int CInt where apply = CInt f :: forall s a b . (S s a, F a b) => s -> b f s = let v = select s :: a y = apply v :: b in y x :: Int x = f (10,"Pippo") And here is the generated error: FunctorsProblems.hs:21:4: No instances for (F a Int, S (t, [Char]) a) arising from a use of `f' at FunctorsProblems.hs:21:4-17 Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (F a Int, S (t, [Char]) a) In the expression: f (10, "Pippo") In the definition of `x': x = f (10, "Pippo") Failed, modules loaded: none. Prelude>

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  • CallbackValidator called with empty string

    - by Paolo Tedesco
    I am writing a custom configuration section, and I would like to validate a configuration property with a callback, like in this example: using System; using System.Configuration; class CustomSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("stringValue", IsRequired = false)] [CallbackValidator(Type = typeof(CustomSection), CallbackMethodName = "ValidateString")] public string StringValue { get { return (string)this["stringValue"]; } set { this["stringValue"] = value; } } public static void ValidateString(object value) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty((string)value)) { throw new ArgumentException("string must not be empty."); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { CustomSection cfg = (CustomSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("customSection"); Console.WriteLine(cfg.StringValue); } } And my App.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="customSection" type="CustomSection, config-section"/> </configSections> <customSection stringValue="lorem ipsum"/> </configuration> My problem is that when the ValidateString function is called, the value parameter is always an empty string, and therefore the validation fails. If i just remove the validator, the string value is correctly initialized to the value in the configuration file. What am I missing?

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  • Hibernate: Check if object exists/changed

    - by swalkner
    Assuming I have an object Person with long id String firstName String lastName String address Then I'm generating a Person-object somewhere in my application. Now I'd like to check if the person exists in the database (= firstname/lastname-combination is in the database). If not = insert it. If yes, check, if the address is the same. If not = update the address. Of course, I can do some requests (first, try to load object with firstname/lastname), then (if existing), compare the address. But isn't there a simpler, cleaner approach? If got several different classes and do not like to have so many queries. I'd like to use annotations as if to say: firstname/lastname = they're the primary key. Check for them if the object exists. address is the parameter you have to compare if it stayed the same or not. Does Hibernate/JPA (or another framework) support something like that? pseude-code: if (database.containsObject(person)) { //containing according to compound keys if (database.containsChangedObject(person)) { database.updateObject(person); } } else { database.insertObject(person); }

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  • Hibernate JDBCConnectionException: Communications link failure and java.io.EOFException: Can not read response from server

    - by Marc
    I get a quite well-known using MySql jdbc driver : JDBCConnectionException: Communications link failure, java.io.EOFException: Can not read response from server. This is caused by the wait_timeout parameter in my.cnf. So I decided to use c3p0 pool connection along with Hibernate. Here is what I added to hibernate.cfg.xml : <property name="hibernate.connection.provider_class">org.hibernate.connection.C3P0ConnectionProvider</property> <property name="c3p0.min_size">10</property> <property name="c3p0.max_size">100</property> <property name="c3p0.timeout">1000</property> <property name="c3p0.preferredTestQuery">SELECT 1</property> <property name="c3p0.acquire_increment">1</property> <property name="c3p0.idle_test_period">2</property> <property name="c3p0.max_statements">50</property> idle_test_period is volontarily low for test purposes. Looking at the mysql logs I can see the "SELECT 1" request which is regularly sent to the mysql server so it works. Unfortunately I still get this EOF exception within my app if I wait longer than 'wait_timout' seconds (set to 10 for test purposes). I'm using Hibernate 4.1.1 and mysql-jdbc-connector 5.1.18. So what am I doing wrong? Thanks, Marc.

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  • Javascript API not working for Chrome or Safari on JW Player 5.9

    - by Lando
    I am working on a custom interface for the JW Player which displays the current track title and has play/pause, next track, previous track and volume toggle buttons. It works for IE8/9 and FF but fails for Chrome and Safari. Chrome's console gives the following error: Uncaught TypeError: Object # has no method 'addControllerListener' This is the code I am using for testing. <div id="container">Loading the player ...</div> <script type="text/javascript"> jwplayer("container").setup({ image: "preview.jpg", height: 320, width: 480, modes: [ { type: "html5" }, { type: "flash", src: "player.swf" } ], 'playlist': [ { 'file': "audio/01.mp3", 'title': "Track 1" }, { 'file': "audio/02.mp3", 'title': "Track 2" }, { 'file': "audio/03.mp3", 'title': "Track 3" } ], }); function playerReady(obj) { player = document.getElementById(obj.id); displayFirstItem(); }; function displayFirstItem() { try { playlist = player.getPlaylist(); } catch(e) { setTimeout("displayFirstItem()", 100); } player.addControllerListener('ITEM', 'itemMonitor'); itemMonitor({index:0}); }; function itemMonitor(obj) { $('#nowplaying').html('<span><strong>Now Playing:</strong> ' + playlist[obj.index]['title'] + '</span>'); }; </script> <div id="nowplaying"></div> <div class="control_bar"> <ul> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("play");'>[ &#8250; ] Play / Pause</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("prev");'>[ &laquo; ] Previous item</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("next");'>[ &raquo; ] Next item</li> </ul> </div> I have searched and tried several modifications, like adding the javascriptid parameter, nothing seems to work for Chrome or Safari. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • How to create a fully lazy singleton for generics

    - by Brendan Vogt
    I have the following code implementation of my generic singleton provider: public sealed class Singleton<T> where T : class, new() { Singleton() { } public static T Instance { get { return SingletonCreator.instance; } } class SingletonCreator { static SingletonCreator() { } internal static readonly T instance = new T(); } } This sample was taken from 2 articles and I merged the code to get me what I wanted: http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/singleton.html and http://www.codeproject.com/Articles/11111/Generic-Singleton-Provider. This is how I tried to use the code above: public class MyClass { public static IMyInterface Initialize() { if (Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance == null // Error 1 { Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance = CreateEngineInstance(); // Error 2 Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance.Initialize(); } return Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance; } } And the interface: public interface IMyInterface { } The error at Error 1 is: 'MyProject.IMyInterace' must be a non-abstract type with a public parameterless constructor in order to use it as parameter 'T' in the generic type or method 'MyProject.Singleton<T>' The error at Error 2 is: Property or indexer 'MyProject.Singleton<MyProject.IMyInterface>.Instance' cannot be assigned to -- it is read only How can I fix this so that it is in line with the 2 articles mentioned above? Any other ideas or suggestions are appreciated.

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  • How do I pass parameters between request-scoped beans

    - by smayers81
    This is a question that has been bothering me for sometime. My application uses ICEFaces for our UI framework and Spring 2.5 for Dependency Injection. In addition, Spring actually maintains all of our backing beans, not the ICEFaces framework, so our faces-config is basically empty. Navigation is not even really handled through navigation-rules. We perform manual redirects to new windows using window.open. All of our beans are defined in our appContext file as being request-scoped. I have Page ABC which is backed by BackingBeanABC. Inside that backing bean, I have a parameter say: private Order order; I then have Page XYZ backed by BackingBeanXYZ. When I redirect from page ABC to page XYZ, I want to transfer the 'order' property from ABC to XYZ. The problem is since everything is request-scoped and I'm performing a redirect, I am losing the value of 'description'. There has got to be an easier way to pass objects between beans in request scope during a redirect. Can anyone assist with this issue?

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