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• Automated Oracle Schema Migration Tool

  - by Dave Jarvis

  What are some tools (commercial or OSS) that provide a GUI-based mechanism for creating schema upgrade scripts? To be clear, here are the tool responsibilities: Obtain connection to recent schema version (called "source"). Obtain connection to previous schema version (called "target"). Compare all schema objects between source and target. Create a script to make the target schema equivalent to the source schema ("upgrade script"). Create a rollback script to revert the source schema, used if the upgrade script fails (at any point). Create individual files for schema objects. The software must: Use ALTER TABLE instead of DROP and CREATE for renamed columns. Work with Oracle 10g or greater. Create scripts that can be batch executed (via command-line). Trivial installation process. (Bonus) Create scripts that can be executed with SQL*Plus. Here are some examples (from StackOverflow, ServerFault, and Google searches): Change Manager Oracle SQL Developer Software that does not meet the criteria, or cannot be evaluated, includes: TOAD PL/SQL Developer - Invalid SQL*Plus statements. Does not produce ALTER statements. SQL Fairy - No installer. Complex installation process. Poorly documented. DBDiff - Crippled data set evaluation, poor customer support. OrbitDB - Crippled data set evaluation. SchemaCrawler - No easily identifiable download version for Oracle databases. SQL Compare - SQL Server, not Oracle. LiquiBase - Requires changing the development process. No installer. Manually edit config files. Does not recognize its own baseUrl parameter. The only acceptable crippling of the evaluation version is by time. Crippling by restricting the number of tables and views hides possible bugs that are only visible in the software during the attempt to migrate hundreds of tables and views.

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• MySQL Stored Procedures not working with SELECT (basic question)

  - by TMG

  Hello, I am using a platform (perfectforms) that requires me to use stored procedures for most of my queries, and having never used stored procedures, I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. The following statement executes without error: DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_db.test_proc// CREATE PROCEDURE test_db.test_proc() SELECT 'foo'; // DELIMITER ; But when I try to call it using: CALL test_proc(); I get the following error: #1312 - PROCEDURE test_db.test_proc can't return a result set in the given context I am executing these statements from within phpmyadmin 3.2.4, PHP Version 5.2.12 and the mysql server version is 5.0.89-community. When I write a stored procedure that returns a parameter, and then select it, things work fine (e.g.): DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_db.get_sum// CREATE PROCEDURE test_db.get_sum(out total int) BEGIN SELECT SUM(field1) INTO total FROM test_db.test_table; END // DELIMITER ; works fine, and when I call it: CALL get_sum(@t); SELECT @t; I get the sum no problem. Ultimately, what I need to do is have a fancy SELECT statement wrapped up in a stored procedure, so I can call it, and return multiple rows of multiple fields. For now I'm just trying to get any select working. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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• Build number increment not reflected in AssemblyVersion

  - by awshepard

  I've browsed through some of the discussion on auto-incrementing build numbers, but in the impatience of youth decided to roll my own and re-invent the wheel. I know there are probably better ways to go about this (which I'm definitely going to investigate), but my question centers more around the Assembly and/or Version classes. My approach was to write a separate exe (BuildIncrementer) that takes a command line parameter for file name, does a regex match on the contents to grab the [assembly: AssemblyVersion...] string, do the modifications that I want (increment the build number, etc.), then write the contents back to the file. This approach works as-is. The next thing I did was in the project that I wanted to use this on, I set up a pre-build command line that is simply the command to execute that BuildIncrementer.exe on this project's AssemblyInfo.cs file. This too works, updating the assembly info as desired. The problem comes when I run the project, it sends an email containing the current version, obtained with Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetName().Version.ToString(). BUT, the version showing up is the previous version. When my AssemblyInfo.cs says [assembly: AssemblyVersion("1.0.2.49667")], I get sent 1.0.1.45660, which was the previous build. Anyone have any ideas why that might be?

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• In C#, are event handler arguments contravariant?

  - by Roger Lipscombe

  If I have a class that raises an event, with (e.g.) FrobbingEventArgs, am I allowed to handle it with a method that takes EventArgs? Here's some code: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Frobber frobber = new Frobber(); frobber.Frobbing += FrobberOnFrobbing; frobber.Frob(); } private static void FrobberOnFrobbing(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Do something interesting. Note that the parameter is 'EventArgs'. } } internal class Frobber { public event EventHandler<FrobbingEventArgs> Frobbing; public event EventHandler<FrobbedEventArgs> Frobbed; public void Frob() { OnFrobbing(); // Frob. OnFrobbed(); } private void OnFrobbing() { var handler = Frobbing; if (handler != null) handler(this, new FrobbingEventArgs()); } private void OnFrobbed() { var handler = Frobbed; if (handler != null) handler(this, new FrobbedEventArgs()); } } internal class FrobbedEventArgs : EventArgs { } internal class FrobbingEventArgs : EventArgs { } The reason I ask is that ReSharper seems to have a problem with (what looks like) the equivalent in XAML, and I'm wondering if it's a bug in ReSharper, or a mistake in my understanding of C#.

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• Ninject problem binding to constant value in MVC3 with a RavenDB session

  - by Jim

  I've seen a lot of different ways of configuring Ninject with ASP.NET MVC, but the implementation seems to change slightly with each release of the MVC framework. I'm trying to inject a RavenDB session into my repository. Here is what I have that's almost working. public class MvcApplication : NinjectHttpApplication { ... protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { base.OnApplicationStarted(); AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterGlobalFilters(GlobalFilters.Filters); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } protected override IKernel CreateKernel() { return new StandardKernel(new MyNinjectModule()); } public static IDocumentSession CurrentSession { get { return (IDocumentSession)HttpContext.Current.Items[RavenSessionKey]; } } ... } public class MyNinjectModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { Bind<IUserRepository>().To<UserRepository>(); Bind<IDocumentSession>().ToConstant(MvcApplication.CurrentSession); } } When it tries to resolve IDocumentSession, I get the following error. Error activating IDocumentSession using binding from IDocumentSession to constant value Provider returned null. Activation path: 3) Injection of dependency IDocumentSession into parameter documentSession of constructor of type UserRepository Any ideas on how to make the IDocumentSession resolve?

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• 2 different routes on one page?

  - by Dejan.S

  Hi I'm pretty new with MVC2 or MVC in general. If it's one thing I get caught up with it's routes. Like now I got this scenario. Im going from the regular site to Admin. My navigation is the same partialview on both I just do a check which data to render something like this. <% if (!Request.RawUrl.Contains("Admin")){%> <% foreach (var site in Model) { %> <%= Html.MenuItem(site.BelongSite, "Sida", "Site", site.BelongSite) %> | <%} %> <%} else {%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Konfig", "Konfigurera", "Admin") %> <% } %> My route looks like this routes.MapRoute( "Admin", // Route name "Admin/{action}/{name}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Admin", action = "konfigurera", name = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); On my View called Konfigurera I got Edit sites and they use the route above and it works great. The navigation tho dont get no action assigned to it. It's just <a href='Admin/'> The navigation is in the shared folder, and it is a strongly typed. Any Ideas? I been struggling with this for about a hour now Thanks for any input

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• COM-Objects containing maps / content error(0)

  - by Florian Berzsenyi

  I'm writing a small wrapper to get familiar with some important topics in C++ (WinAPI, COM, STL,OOP). For now, my class shall be able to create a (child) window. Mainly, this window is connected to a global message loop that distribute messages to a local loop of the right instance (global is static, local is virtual). Obviously, there are surely better ways to do that but I'm using std::maps to store HWND and their instance pointer in pairs (the Global loop looks for the pointer with the HWND-parameter, gets itself the pointer from the map and calls then the local loop). Now, it appears that the map does not accept any values because of a unknown reason. It seems to allocate enough space but something went wrong anyway [ (error) 0 is displayed instead of the entries in visual C++). I've looked that up in google as well and found out that maps cause some trouble when used in classes AND DLLs. May this be the reason and is there any solution?? Protected scope of class: static std::map<HWND,MAP_BASE_OBJECT*> m_LoopBuf Implementation in .cpp-file: std::map<HWND,MAP_BASE_OBJECT*> HWindow::m_LoopBuf;

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• Conditional macro expansion

  - by Dave DeLong

  Heads up: This is a weird question. I've got some really useful macros that I like to use to simplify some logging. For example I can do Log(@"My message with arguments: %@, %@, %@", @"arg1", @"arg2", @"arg3"), and that will get expanded into a more complex method invocation that includes things like self, _cmd, __FILE__, __LINE__, etc, so that I can easily track where things are getting logged. This works great. Now I'd like to expand my macros to not only work with Objective-C methods, but general C functions. The problem is the self and _cmd portions that are in the macro expansion. These two parameters don't exist in C functions. Ideally, I'd like to be able to use this same set of macros within C functions, but I'm running into problems. When I use (for example) my Log() macro, I get compiler warnings about self and _cmd being undeclared (which makes total sense). My first thought was to do something like the following (in my macro): if (thisFunctionIsACFunction) { DoLogging(nil, nil, format, ##__VA_ARGS__); } else { DoLogging(self, _cmd, format, ##__VA_ARGS__); } This still produces compiler warnings, since the entire if() statement is substituted in place of the macro, resulting in errors with the self and _cmd keywords (even though they will never be executed during function execution). My next thought was to do something like this (in my macro): if (thisFunctionIsACFunction) { #define SELF nil #define CMD nil } else { #define SELF self #define CMD _cmd } DoLogging(SELF, CMD, format, ##__VA_ARGS__); That doesn't work, unfortunately. I get "error: '#' is not followed by a macro parameter" on my first #define. My other thought was to create a second set of macros, specifically for use in C functions. This reeks of a bad code smell, and I really don't want to do this. Is there some way I can use the same set of macros from within both Objective-C methods and C functions, and only reference self and _cmd if the macro is in an Objective-C method?

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• How to find the first declaring method for a reference method

  - by Oliver Gierke

  Suppose you have a generic interface and an implementation: public interface MyInterface<T> { void foo(T param); } public class MyImplementation<T> implements MyInterface<T> { void foo(T param) { } } These two types are frework types. In the next step I want allow users to extend that interface as well as redeclare foo(T param) to maybe equip it with further annotations. public interface MyExtendedInterface extends MyInterface<Bar> { @Override void foo(Bar param); // Further declared methods } I create an AOP proxy for the extended interface and intercept especially the calls to furtherly declared methods. As foo(…) is no redeclared in MyExtendedInterface I cannot execute it by simply invoking MethodInvocation.proceed() as the instance of MyImplementation only implements MyInterface.foo(…) and not MyExtendedInterface.foo(…). So is there a way to get access to the method that declared a method initially? Regarding this example is there a way to find out that foo(Bar param) was declared in MyInterface originally and get access to the accoriding Method instance? I already tried to scan base class methods to match by name and parameter types but that doesn't work out as generics pop in and MyImplementation.getMethod("foo", Bar.class) obviously throws a NoSuchMethodException. I already know that MyExtendedInterface types MyInterface to Bar. So If I could create some kind of "typed view" on MyImplementation my math algorithm could work out actually.

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• Directly call distutils' or setuptools' setup() function with command name/options, without parsing

  - by Ryan B. Lynch

  I'd like to call Python's distutils' or setuptools' setup() function in a slightly unconventional way, but I'm not sure whether distutils is meant for this kind of usage. As an example, let's say I currently have a 'setup.py' file, which looks like this (lifted verbatim from the distutils docs--the setuptools usage is almost identical): from distutils.core import setup setup(name='Distutils', version='1.0', description='Python Distribution Utilities', author='Greg Ward', author_email='[email protected]', url='http://www.python.org/sigs/distutils-sig/', packages=['distutils', 'distutils.command'], ) Normally, to build just the .spec file for an RPM of this module, I could run python setup.py bdist_rpm --spec-only, which parses the command line and calls the 'bdist_rpm' code to handle the RPM-specific stuff. The .spec file ends up in './dist'. How can I change my setup() invocation so that it runs the 'bdist_rpm' command with the '--spec-only' option, WITHOUT parsing command-line parameters? Can I pass the command name and options as parameters to setup()? Or can I manually construct a command line, and pass that as a parameter, instead? NOTE: I already know that I could call the script in a separate process, with an actual command line, using os.system() or the subprocess module or something similar. I'm trying to avoid using any kind of external command invocations. I'm looking specifically for a solution that runs setup() in the current interpreter. For background, I'm converting some release-management shell scripts into a single Python program. One of the tasks is running 'setup.py' to generate a .spec file for further pre-release testing. Running 'setup.py' as an external command, with its own command line options, seems like an awkward method, and it complicates the rest of the program. I feel like there may be a more Pythonic way.

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• What is actually happening to this cancelled HTTP request?

  - by Brian Schroth

  When a user takes a particular action on a page, an AJAX call is made to save their data. Unfortunately, this call is synchronous as they need to wait to see if the data is valid before being allowed to continue. Obviously, this eliminates a lot of the benefit of using Asynchronous Javascript And XML, but that's a subject for another post. That's the design I'm working with. The request is made using the dojo.xhrPost function, with a 60s timeout parameter, and the error handler redirects to an error page. What I am finding in testing is that in Firefox, if I initiate the ajax request and then press ESC, the page hangs waiting for a response, and then eventually after exactly 90s (not 60s, the function's timeout), the error handler will kick in and redirect to the error page. I expected this to happen, but either immediately as soon as the request was cancelled, or after 60s due to the timeout value being 60s. What I don't understand is why is it 90s? What is actually happening under the hood when the user cancels their request in Firefox, and how does it differ from IE, where everything works fine exactly the same as if the request had not been cancelled? Is the 90s related to any user-configurable browser settings?

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• Not showing error when calling another function in Spring

  - by Javi

  Hello, I have a controller with 2 methods. The first one just add some lists to the model (the lists of my comboboxes) and return a JSP with a form. The second one validates the data and if there aren't errors it saves the data. The code looks like this: public String showForm(Model model){ //load some data into some lists return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } public String save(@Valid @ModelAttribute("MyData") Data data, BindingResult result, Model model){ if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages //(but I need to reload the combobox lists) return showForm(model); } //save data } The problem is that in this way I don't see the error messages in the form (though I see by the debugger that it has found errors). I've thought that the problem comes because the showForm method doesn't have the error messages because it can't see the BindingResult, so I've added BindingResult as a parameter of showForm method, but it still doesn't work. I've added My Model Attribute as well but I get the same problem. If I just return the JSP file in the save method I can see the errors, but in this way I would need to add again in this other method the lists I had already added in the showForm (duplicated code). I can't save the data in session scope so it's compulsory to get again the lists after getting the error. if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } Why are errors not shown when I call a function to display my JSP different from the one I used for the validation? What's the best way to do this? Thanks.

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• Adding a minimum display time for Silverlight splash screen.

  - by David

  When hosting a silverlight application on a webpage it is possible to use the splashscreensource parameter to specify a simple Silverlight 1.0 (xaml+javascript) control to be displayed while the real xap file is downloaded, and which can receive notification of the downloads progress through onSourceDownloadProgressChanged. If the xap file is in cache, the splash screen is not shown (and if the download only takes 1 second, the splash screen will only be shown for 1 second). I know this is not best practice in general, but I am looking for a way to specify a minimum display time for the splash screen - even if the xap cached or the download is fast, the splash screen would remain up for at least, let's say, 5 seconds (for example to show a required legal disclaimer, corporate identity mark or other bug). I do want to do it in the splash screen exclusively (rather then in the main xap) as I want it to be clean and uninterupted (for example a sound bug) and shown to the user as soon as they open the page, rather then after the download (which could take anywhere from 1 to 20+ seconds). I'd prefer not to accomplish this with preloading - replacing the splash screen with a full Silverlight xap application (with it's own loading screen), which then programmably loads and displays the full xap after a minimum wait time.

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• Receiving generic typed <T> custom objects through remote object in Flex

  - by Aaron

  Is it possible to receive custom generic typed objects through AMF? I'm trying to integrate a flex app with an existing C# service but flex is choking on custom generic typed objects. As far as I can tell Flex doesn't even support generics, but I'd like to be able to even just read in the object and cast its members as necessary. I basically just want flex to ignore the <T>. I'm hopeful that there's a way to do this, since flex doesn't complain about typed collections (a server call returning List works fine and flex converts it to an ArrayCollection just like an un-typed List). Here's a trimmed down example of what's going on for me: The custom C# typed class public class TypeTest<T> { public T value { get; set; } public TypeTest () { } } The server method returning the typeTest public TypeTest<String> doTypeTest() { TypeTest<String> theTester = new TypeTest<String>("grrrr"); return theTester; } The corresponding flex value object: [RemoteClass(alias="API.Model.TypeTest")] public class TypeTest { private var _value:Object; public function get value():Object { return _value; } public function set value(theValue:Object):void { _value = value; } public function TypeTest() { } } and the result handler code: public function doTypeTest(result:TypeTest):void { var theString:String = result.value as String; trace(theString); } When the result handler is called I get the runtime error: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert mx.utils::ObjectProxy@11a98041 to com.model.vos.TypeTest. Irritatingly if I change the result handler to take parameter of type Object it works fine. Anyone know how to make this work with the value object? I feel like i'm missing something really obvious.

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• C# reflection instantiation

  - by NickLarsen

  I am currently trying to create a generic instance factory for which takes an interface as the generic parameter (enforced in the constructor) and then lets you get instantiated objects which implement that interface from all types in all loaded assemblies. The current implementation is as follows:     public class InstantiationFactory     {         protected Type Type { get; set; }         public InstantiationFactory()         {             this.Type = typeof(T);             if (!this.Type.IsInterface)             {                 // is there a more descriptive exception to throw?                 throw new ArgumentException(/* Crafty message */);             }         }         public IEnumerable GetLoadedTypes()         {             // this line of code found in other stack overflow questions             var types = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.GetAssemblies()                 .SelectMany(a = a.GetTypes())                 .Where(/* lambda to identify instantiable types which implement this interface */);             return types;         }         public IEnumerable GetImplementations(IEnumerable types)         {             var implementations = types.Where(/* lambda to identify instantiable types which implement this interface */                 .Select(x = CreateInstance(x));             return implementations;         }         public IEnumerable GetLoadedImplementations()         {             var loadedTypes = GetLoadedTypes();             var implementations = GetImplementations(loadedTypes);             return implementations;         }         private T CreateInstance(Type type)         {             T instance = default(T);             var constructor = type.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes);             if (/* valid to instantiate test */)             {                 object constructed = constructor.Invoke(null);                 instance = (T)constructed;             }             return instance;         }     } It seems useful to me to have my CreateInstance(Type) function implemented as an extension method so I can reuse it later and simplify the code of my factory, but I can't figure out how to return a strongly typed value from that extension method. I realize I could just return an object:     public static class TypeExtensions     {         public object CreateInstance(this Type type)         {             var constructor = type.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes);             return /* valid to instantiate test */ ? constructor.Invoke(null) : null;         }     } Is it possible to have an extension method create a signature per instance of the type it extends? My perfect code would be this, which avoids having to cast the result of the call to CreateInstance():     Type type = typeof(MyParameterlessConstructorImplementingType);     MyParameterlessConstructorImplementingType usable = type.CreateInstance();

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• CallbackValidator called with empty string

  - by Paolo Tedesco

  I am writing a custom configuration section, and I would like to validate a configuration property with a callback, like in this example: using System; using System.Configuration; class CustomSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("stringValue", IsRequired = false)] [CallbackValidator(Type = typeof(CustomSection), CallbackMethodName = "ValidateString")] public string StringValue { get { return (string)this["stringValue"]; } set { this["stringValue"] = value; } } public static void ValidateString(object value) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty((string)value)) { throw new ArgumentException("string must not be empty."); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { CustomSection cfg = (CustomSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("customSection"); Console.WriteLine(cfg.StringValue); } } And my App.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="customSection" type="CustomSection, config-section"/> </configSections> <customSection stringValue="lorem ipsum"/> </configuration> My problem is that when the ValidateString function is called, the value parameter is always an empty string, and therefore the validation fails. If i just remove the validator, the string value is correctly initialized to the value in the configuration file. What am I missing?

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• IIS6 compressing static files, but not JSON requests

  - by user500038

  I have IIS6 compression setup, and static content is being compressed correctly as per Coding Horror. Example of a static file: Response Headers Content-Length 55513 Content-Type application/x-javascript Content-Encoding gzip Last-Modified Mon, 20 Dec 2010 15:31:58 GMT Accept-Ranges bytes Vary Accept-Encoding Server Microsoft-IIS/6.0 X-Powered-By ASP.NET Date Wed, 29 Dec 2010 16:37:23 GMT Request Headers Accept */* Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive As you can see, the response is correctly compressed. However with a JSON call you'll see the request with the gzip parameter correctly set: Accept application/json, text/javascript, */*; q=0.01 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive X-Requested-With XMLHttpRequest Then for the response: Cache-Control private Content-Length 6811 Content-Type application/json; charset=utf-8 Server Microsoft-IIS/6.0 X-Powered-By ASP.NET X-AspNet-Version 2.0.50727 X-AspNetMvc-Version 2.0 No gzip! I found this article by Rick Stahl, which outlines how to compress in your code, but I'd like IIS to handle this. Is this possible with IIS6?

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• ajax to php to curl and back..

  - by pfunc

  I am trying to make an ajax call to a php script. The php script calls an rss feed using curl, gets the data, and returns the data to the funciton. I keep getting an error "Warning: Wrong parameter count for curl_error() in" .... Here is my php code:1 $ch = curl_init() or die(curl_error()); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $feed); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); echo $data1; and the ajax call: $.ajax({ url: "getSingleFeed.php", type: "POST", data: "feedURL=" + window.feedURL, success: function(feed){ alert(feed); }}); I tested all the variables, they are being passed correctly, I can echo them out. But this line: $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); is what is giving me the error. I am doing the same thing with curl on other pages, just without ajax, and it is working fine. Is there anything special I need to do with ajax to do this?

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• LOAD DATA INFILE with variables

  - by Hasitha

  I was tring to use the LOAD DATA INFILE as a sotred procedure but it seems it cannot be done. Then i tried the usual way of embedding the code to the application itself like so, conn = new MySqlConnection(connStr); conn.Open(); MySqlCommand cmd = new MySqlCommand(); cmd = conn.CreateCommand(); string tableName = getTableName(serverName); string query = "LOAD DATA INFILE '" + fileName + "'INTO TABLE "+ tableName +" FIELDS TERMINATED BY '"+colSep+"' ENCLOSED BY '"+colEncap+"' ESCAPED BY '"+colEncap+"'LINES TERMINATED BY '"+colNewLine+"' ("+colUpFormat+");"; cmd.CommandText = query; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.Close(); The generated query that gets saved in the string variable query is, LOAD DATA INFILE 'data_file.csv'INTO TABLE tbl_shadowserver_bot_geo FIELDS TERMINATED BY ',' ENCLOSED BY '"' ESCAPED BY '"'LINES TERMINATED BY '\n' (timestamp,ip,port,asn,@dummy,@dummy,@dummy,@dummy,@dummy,@dummy,url,agent,@dummy,@dummy,@dummy,@dummy,@dummy,@dummy,@dummy,@dummy,@dummy,@dummy,@dummy); But now when i run the program it gives an error saying, MySQLException(0x80004005) Parameter @dummy must be defined first. I dont know how to get around this, but when i use the same query on mysql itself directly it works fine. PLEASE help me..thank you very much :)

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• More FP-correct way to create an update sql query

  - by James Black

  I am working on access a database using F# and my initial attempt at creating a function to create the update query is flawed. let BuildUserUpdateQuery (oldUser:UserType) (newUser:UserType) = let buf = new System.Text.StringBuilder("UPDATE users SET "); if (oldUser.FirstName.Equals(newUser.FirstName) = false) then buf.Append("SET first_name='").Append(newUser.FirstName).Append("'" ) |> ignore if (oldUser.LastName.Equals(newUser.LastName) = false) then buf.Append("SET last_name='").Append(newUser.LastName).Append("'" ) |> ignore if (oldUser.UserName.Equals(newUser.UserName) = false) then buf.Append("SET username='").Append(newUser.UserName).Append("'" ) |> ignore buf.Append(" WHERE id=").Append(newUser.Id).ToString() This doesn't properly put a , between any update parts after the first, for example: UPDATE users SET first_name='Firstname', last_name='lastname' WHERE id=... I could put in a mutable variable to keep track when the first part of the set clause is appended, but that seems wrong. I could just create an list of tuples, where each tuple is oldtext, newtext, columnname, so that I could then loop through the list and build up the query, but it seems that I should be passing in a StringBuilder to a recursive function, returning back a boolean which is then passed as a parameter to the recursive function. Does this seem to be the best approach, or is there a better one?

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• Windows Workflow Foundation: Recommendations how to design architecture

  - by Petr Felzmann

  We are running several the same ASP.NET applications (one per customer) based on our custom framework (libraries). Each application use its own database (Initial Catalog in the term of connection string). Now we would like to add workflow capability (of course 4.0 ;) to the applications. So the particular workflows will be the same for all the applications only some initial settings of each workflow can vary, e.g. in one application the e-mail will be send to the user X, but in other application to the user Y. I have several general questions how to design architecture: (1) Can be the workflow database shared for all the applications? (2) Where to host workflow engine - inside our custom windows NT service or inside IIS? What are the criteria to choose the right host? (3) How the workflow engine should communicate with applications? Should application call some WCF endpoint API configured in workflow host or vice verse - should each application provide WCF endpoint API and workflow engine will call it? How then the workflow engine will identify applications? Both cases requires probably some application identifier as a parameter in API calls? (4) We would like to also store some information to the application databases based on the workflow states. Is it possible? Thanks for suggestions!

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• a selective dual command binding converter in WPF?

  - by Jippers

  I'll start off and say I am not using the MVVM pattern for my WPF app. Please forgive me. Right now I have a data template with two buttons, each binds to a different command on the CLR object this data template represents. Both use the same command parameter. Here's an example of the buttons. <Button x:Name="Button1" Command="{Binding Path=Command1}" CommandParameter="{Binding Path=Text, ElementName=TextBox1}" /> <Button x:Name="Button2" Command="{Binding Path=Command2}" CommandParameter="{Binding Path=Text, ElementName=TextBox1}" /> I would like to refactor this into a single button that can perform either command based on a user setting like a boolean in Settings.settings. I don't have access to refactoring the CLR object itself. Also this is a Data Template there isn't codebehind for me to work with. My take is that a converter would be the best bet, but I don't know how I would put that together. The converter would need to take in the CommandParameter, as well as the DataContext so it knows which object to execute the Commands on. Can someone lend me a hand with this? Thanks in advance.

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• What is the best way to save the environment from before an alarm handler goes off when the alarm do

  - by EpsilonVector

  I'm trying to implement user threads on a 2.4 Linux kernel (homework) and the trick for context switch seems to be using an alarm that goes off every x milliseconds and sends us to an alarm handler from which we can longjmp to the next thread. What I'm having difficulties with is figuring out how to save the environment to return to later. Basically I have an array of jmp_buffs, and every time a "context switch" using the alarm happens I want to save the previous context to the appropriate entry of the array and longjmp to the next one. However, just the fact that I need to do this from the event handler means that just using setjmp in the event handler won't give me exactly the kind of environment I want (as far as stack and program counter are involved) because the stack has the event handler call in it and the pc is in the event handler. I suppose I can look at the stack and alter it to fit my needs, but that feels a bit cumbersome. Another idea I had is to somehow pass the environment before the jump to event handler as a parameter to the event handler, but I can't figure out if this is possible. So I guess my question is- how do I do this right?

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• Return enum instead of bool from function for clarity ?

  - by Moe Sisko

  This is similar to : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2908876/net-bool-vs-enum-as-a-method-parameter but concerns returning a bool from a function in some situations. e.g. Function which returns bool : public bool Poll() { bool isFinished = false; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return isFinished; } Used like this : while (!Poll()) { // do stuff during wait. } Its not obvious from the calling context what the bool returned from Poll() means. It might be clearer in some ways if the "Poll" function was renamed "IsFinished()", but the method does a bit of work, and (IMO) would not really reflect what the function actually does. Names like "IsFinished" also seem more appropriate for properties. Another option might be to rename it to something like : "PollAndReturnIsFinished" but this doesn't feel right either. So an option might be to return an enum. e.g : public enum Status { Running, Finished } public Status Poll() { Status status = Status.Running; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return status; } Called like this : while (Poll() == Status.Running) { // do stuff during wait. } But this feels like overkill. Any ideas ?

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• pass object from JS to PHP and back

  - by Radu

  This is something that I don't think can't be done, or can't be done easy. Think of this, You have an button inside a div in HTML, when you click it, you call a php function via AJAX, I would like to send the element that start the click event(or any element as a parameter) to PHP and BACK to JS again, in a way like serialize() in PHP, to be able to restore the element in JS. Let me give you a simple example: PHP: function ajaxCall(element){ return element; } JS: callbackFunction(el){ el.color='red'; } HTML: <div id="id_div"> <input type="button" value="click Me" onClick="ajaxCall(this, callbackFunction);" /> </div> So I thing at 3 methods method 1. I can give each element in the page an ID. so the call to Ajax would look like this: ajaxCall(this.id, callbackFunction); and the callback function would be: document.getElementById(el).color='red'; This method I think is hard, beacause in a big page is hard to keep track of all ID's. method 2. I think that using xPath could be done, If i can get the exact path of an element, and in the callback function evaluate that path to reach the element. This method needs some googling, it is just an ideea. method 3. Modify my AJAX functions, so it retain the element that started the event, and pass it to the callback function as argument when something returns from PHP, so in my AJAX would look like this: eval(callbackFunction(argumentsFromPhp, element)); and the callback function would be: callbackFunction(someArgsFromPhp, el){ el.color='red'; // parse someArgsFromPhp } I think that the third option is my choise to start this experiment. Any of you has a better idea how I can accomplish this ? Thank you.

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