Search Results

Search found 7799 results on 312 pages for 'changing'.

Page 243/312 | < Previous Page | 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250  | Next Page >

  • PHP - Database schema: version control, branching, migrations.

    - by Billiam
    I'm trying to come up with (or find) a reusable system for database schema versioning in php projects. There are a number of Rails-style migration projects available for php. http://code.google.com/p/mysql-php-migrations/ is a good example. It uses timestamps for migration files, which helps with conflicts between branches. General problem with this kind of system: When development branch A is checked out, and you want to check out branch B instead, B may have new migration files. This is fine, migrating to newer content is straight forward. If branch A has newer migration files, you would need to migrate downwards to the nearest shared patch. If branch A and B have significantly different code bases, you may have to migrate down even further. This may mean: Check out B, determine shared patch number, check out A, migrate downwards to this patch. This must be done from A since the actual applied patches are not available in B. Then, checkout branch B, and migrate to newest B patch. Reverse process again when going from B to A. Proposed system: When migrating upwards, instead of just storing the patch version, serialize the whole patch in database for later use, though I'd probably only need the down() method. When changing branches, compare patches that have been run to patches that are available in the destination branch. Determine nearest shared patch (or oldest difference, maybe) between db table of run patches and patches in destination branch by ID or hash. Could also look for new or missing patches that are buried under a number of shared patches between the two branches. Automatically merge down to the nearest shared patch, using the db table stored down() methods, and then merge up to the branche's latest patch. My question is: Is this system too crazy and/or fraught with consequences to bother developing? My experience with database schema versioning is limited to PHP autopatch, which is an up()-only system requiring filenames with sequential IDs.

    Read the article

  • php parsing xml result from ipb ssi tool

    - by Sir Troll
    Last week my code was running fine and now (without changing anything) it is no longer able to parse the elements out of the XML. The response from the ssi tool: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <ipbsource><topic id="32"> <title>Test topic</title> <lastposter id="1">Drake</lastposter> <starter id="18">Drake</starter> <forum id="3">Updates</forum> <date timestamp="1345600720">22 August 2012 - 03:58 AM</date> </topic> </ipbsource> enter code here Update: Switched to SimpleXML but I can't extract data from the xml: $xml = file_get_contents('http://site.com/forum/ssi.php?a=out&f=2&show=10&type=xml'); $xml = new SimpleXMLElement($xml); $item_array = array(); var_dump($xml); foreach($xml->topic as $el) { var_dump($el); echo 'Title: ' . $el->title; } The var_dump output: object(SimpleXMLElement)#1 (1) { [0]=> string(1) " " }

    Read the article

  • NMock2.0 - how to stub a non interface call?

    - by dferraro
    Hello, I have a class API which has full code coverage and uses DI to mock out all the logic in the main class function (Job.Run) which does all the work. I found a bug in production where we werent doing some validation on one of the data input fields. So, I added a stub function called ValidateFoo()... Wrote a unit test against this function to Expect a JobFailedException, ran the test - it failed obviously because that function was empty. I added the validation logic, and now the test passes. Great, now we know the validation works. Problem is - how do I write the test to make sure that ValidateFoo() is actually called inside Job.Run()? ValidateFoo() is a private method of the Job class - so it's not an interface... Is there anyway to do this with NMock2.0? I know TypeMock supports fakes of non interface types. But changing mock libs right now is not an option. At this point if NMock can't support it, I will simply just add the ValidateFoo() call to the Run() method and test things manually - which obviously I'd prefer not to do considering my Job.Run() method has 100% coverage right now. Any Advice? Thanks very much it is appreciated. EDIT: the other option I have in mind is to just create an integration test for my Job.Run functionality (injecting to it true implementations of the composite objects instead of mocks). I will give it a bad input value for that field and then validate that the job failed. This works and covers my test - but it's not really a unit test but instead an integration test that tests one unit of functionality.... hmm.. EDIT2: IS there any way to do tihs? Anyone have ideas? Maybe TypeMock - or a better design?

    Read the article

  • PostgreSQL: BYTEA vs OID+Large Object?

    - by mlaverd
    I started an application with Hibernate 3.2 and PostgreSQL 8.4. I have some byte[] fields that were mapped as @Basic (= PG bytea) and others that got mapped as @Lob (=PG Large Object). Why the inconsistency? Because I was a Hibernate noob. Now, those fields are max 4 Kb (but average is 2-3 kb). The PostgreSQL documentation mentioned that the LOs are good when the fields are big, but I didn't see what 'big' meant. I have upgraded to PostgreSQL 9.0 with Hibernate 3.6 and I was stuck to change the annotation to @Type(type="org.hibernate.type.PrimitiveByteArrayBlobType"). This bug has brought forward a potential compatibility issue, and I eventually found out that Large Objects are a pain to deal with, compared to a normal field. So I am thinking of changing all of it to bytea. But I am concerned that bytea fields are encoded in Hex, so there is some overhead in encoding and decoding, and this would hurt the performance. Are there good benchmarks about the performance of both of these? Anybody has made the switch and saw a difference?

    Read the article

  • svcutil, XmlSerializer and xsd:list

    - by Dmitry Ornatsky
    I'm using svcutil to generate classes from service metadata. This XML schema <xsd:complexType name="FindRequest"> ... <xsd:attribute name="Significance" type="Significance" use="optional" /> </xsd:complexType> <xsd:simpleType name="Significance"> <xsd:list> <xsd:simpleType> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:int"> <xsd:enumeration value="1" /> <xsd:enumeration value="2" /> <xsd:enumeration value="3" /> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> </xsd:list> produces following code: public partial class FindRequest { ... private int significanceField; private bool significanceFieldSpecified; [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlAttributeAttribute()] public int Significance { get { return this.significanceField; } set { this.significanceField = value; } } [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlIgnoreAttribute()] public bool SignificanceSpecified { get { return this.significanceFieldSpecified; } set { this.significanceFieldSpecified = value; } } } My questions are: Is it possible to make XmlSerializer understand this type of list: <FindRequest Significance="1 2 3"/> For example by using some kind of a flags-style enum: public enum EmployeeStatus { [XmlEnum(Name = "1")] One = 1, [XmlEnum(Name = "2")] Two = 2, [XmlEnum(Name = "3")] Three = 4 } If the answer is yes, Is it possible to make svcutil/xsd.exe generate classes that are serialized that way without changing the schema?

    Read the article

  • Please help me with database connection types in Windows.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Sorry for a badly-phrased question. I have a requirement coming from a non-technical person that I need to make sense of. I am basically told: "Here use 'Driver={SQL Server};Server=SERVERNAME\INSTANCENAME;Database=DATABASENAME;Uid=UNAME;Pwd=PASSWORD;'; and here use Server=SERVERNAME\INSTANCENAME;Database=DATABASENAME;Uid=UNAME;Pwd=PASSWORD;';. I am getting no additional help here. While this seems to miraculously fix a bug, I want to understand what is it that I am changing, so I can leave a proper comment for the next developer, plus I can structure the code and name variables differently, depending on the meaning of the change. The work revolves around ASP.net, reporting, SQL Server 2008. Please give me some examples about when you would use one connection string over another. Feel free to edit the question if you can see a way to improve it. When can you lose a 'Driver={SQL Server};? Thank you. EDIT: SQL Server 2008 is the target database, but other can be used ... or maybe will be used in the future.

    Read the article

  • How will Arel affect rails' includes() 's capabilities.

    - by Tim Snowhite
    I've looked over the Arel sources, and some of the activerecord sources for Rails 3.0, but I can't seem to glean a good answer for myself as to whether Arel will be changing our ability to use includes(), when constructing queries, for the better. There are instances when one might want to modify the conditions on an activerecord :include query in 2.3.5 and before, for the association records which would be returned. But as far as I know, this is not programmatically tenable for all :include queries: (I know some AR-find-includes make t#{n}.c#{m} renames for all the attributes, and one could conceivably add conditions to these queries to limit the joined sets' results; but others do n_joins + 1 number of queries over the id sets iteratively, and I'm not sure how one might hack AR to edit these iterated queries.) Will Arel allow us to construct ActiveRecord queries which specify the resulting associated model objects when using includes()? Ex: User :has_many posts( has_many :comments) User.all(:include => :posts) #say I wanted the post objects to have their #comment counts loaded without adding a comment_count column to `posts`. #At the post level, one could do so by: posts_with_counts = Post.all(:select => 'posts.*, count(comments.id) as comment_count', :joins => 'left outer join comments on comments.post_id = posts.id', :group_by => 'posts.id') #i believe #But it seems impossible to do so while linking these post objects to each #user as well, without running User.all() and then zippering the objects into #some other collection (ugly) #OR running posts.group_by(&:user) (even uglier, with the n user queries)

    Read the article

  • ETL , Esper or Drools?

    - by geoaxis
    Hello, The question environment relates to JavaEE, Spring I am developing a system which can start and stop arbitrary TCP (or other) listeners for incoming messages. There could be a need to authenticate these messages. These messages need to be parsed and stored in some other entities. These entities model which fields they store. So for example if I have property1 that can have two text fields FillLevel1 and FillLevel2, I could receive messages on TCP which have both fill levels specified in text as F1=100;F2=90 Later I could add another filed say FillLevel3 when I start receiving messages F1=xx;F2=xx;F3=xx. But this is a conscious decision on the part of system modeler. My question is what do you think is better to use for parsing and storing the message. ETL (using Pantaho, which is used in other system) where you store the raw message and use task executor to consume them one by one and store the transformed messages as per your rules. One could use Espr or Drools to do the same thing , storing rules and executing them with timer, but I am not sure how dynamic you could get with making rules (they have to be made by end user in a running system and preferably in most user friendly way, ie no scripts or code, only GUI) The end user should be capable of changing the parse rules. It is also possible that end user might want to change the archived data as well (for example in the above example if a new value of FillLevel is added, one would like to put a FillLevel=-99 in the previous values to make the data consistent). Please ask for explanations, I have the feeling that I need to revise this question a bit. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Kerberos and/or other authentication systems - One time logon for all PHP scripts

    - by devviedev
    I'm managing a set of web apps, almost exclusively written in PHP, and would like to find an authentication platform to build a role-based authorization system on top of. Also, I'd like the authentication system to be extensible to use for, for example, system services (SSH, etc.) Here are some of the main characteristics I'm looking for, in order of importance: Easy PHP implementation (storing/reading easily roles, etc.). Redundant, if possible. If an auth system goes down everyone is not locked out. Has clients for Windows and Mac. Easy web-based administration (adding/removing users/roles, changing passwords). If not, I can build an administration system without too much effort. One-time log on. I'd also like, when an auth token is issued, to store the user's IP address and use that to authorize the user for some non web-based applications. For that reason, I'd like a desktop client to issue the token and revoke tokens when, for example, the user becomes idle at their workstation. I'm thinking Kerberos might be a solution, but what are other options?

    Read the article

  • Parsing RSS2 In PHP

    - by mrduclaw
    I'm trying to get content from an RSS2 feed from one of my sites and use it in another site. The feed is here. And the code I'm using is taken from this nice site and has been modified like the following: $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->load('http://tripleax.com/john/?feed=rss2'); $arrFeeds = array(); foreach ($doc->getElementsByTagName('item') as $node) { print('<div style="width:100%" class="option"><strong>'); $a = $node->getElementsByTagName('title')->item(0)->nodeValue; print("$a"); print('</strong><br /><span class="option">'); $a = $node->getElementsByTagName('description')->item(0)->nodeValue; print("$a");` } The problem I'm having is, I want to display the entire post's contents. And the description is a sort of the teaser. Changing $node->getElementsByTagName('description')->item(0)->nodeValue to $node->getElementsByTagName('content')->item(0)->nodeValue gives me nothing, and content:encoded is no better. Can someone please point me in the right direction to solving this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • validation control unable to find its control to validate

    - by nat
    i have a repeater that is bound to a number of custom dataitems/types on the itemdatabound event for the repeater the code calls a renderedit function that depending on the custom datatype will render a custom control. it will also (if validation flag is set) render a validation control for the appropriate rendered edit control the edit control overrides the CreateChildControls() method for the custom control adding a number of literalControls thus protected override void CreateChildControls() { //other bits removed - but it is this 'hidden' control i am trying to validate this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(string.Format( "<input type=\"text\" name=\"{0}\" id=\"{0}\" value=\"{1}\" style=\"display:none;\" \">" , this.UniqueID , this.MediaId.ToString()) )); //some other bits removed } the validation control is rendered like this: where the passed in editcontrol is the control instance of which the above createchildcontrols is a method of.. public override Control RenderValidationControl(Control editControl) { Control ctrl = new PlaceHolder(); RequiredFieldValidator req = new RequiredFieldValidator(); req.ID = editControl.ClientID + "_validator"; req.ControlToValidate = editControl.UniqueID; req.Display = ValidatorDisplay.Dynamic; req.InitialValue = "0"; req.ErrorMessage = this.Caption + " cannot be blank"; ctrl.Controls.Add(req); return ctrl; } the problem is, altho the validation controls .ControlToValidate property is set to the uniqueid of the editcontrol. when i hit the page i get the following error: Unable to find control id 'FieldRepeater$ctl01$ctl00' referenced by the 'ControlToValidate' property of 'FieldRepeater_ctl01_ctl00_validator'. i have tried changing the literal in the createchildcontrols to a new TextBox(), and then set the id etc then, but i get a similar problem. can anyone enlighten me? is this because of the order the controls are rendered in? ie the validation control is written before the editcontrol? or... anyhow any help much appreciated thanks nat

    Read the article

  • jackson failing to map empty array with No content to map to Object due to end of input

    - by ijabz
    I send a query to an api and map the json results to my classes using Jackson. When I get some results it works fine, but when there are no results it fails with java.io.EOFException: No content to map to Object due to end of input at org.codehaus.jackson.map.ObjectMapper._initForReading(ObjectMapper.java:2766) at org.codehaus.jackson.map.ObjectMapper._readMapAndClose(ObjectMapper.java:2709) at org.codehaus.jackson.map.ObjectMapper.readValue(ObjectMapper.java:1854) at com.jthink.discogs.query.DiscogsServerQuery.mapQuery(DiscogsServerQuery.java:382) at com.jthink.discogs.query.SearchQuery.mapQuery(SearchQuery.java:37)* But the thing is the api isn't returning nothing at all, so I dont see why it is failing. Here is the query: http://api.discogs.com/database/search?page=1&type=release&release_title=nude+and+rude+the+best+of+iggy+pop this is what I get back { "pagination": { "per_page": 50, "pages": 1, "page": 1, "urls": {}, "items": 0 }, "results": [] } and here is the top level object Im trying to map to public class Search { private Pagination pagination; private Result[] results; public Pagination getPagination() { return pagination; } public void setPagination(Pagination pagination) { this.pagination = pagination; } public Result[] getResults() { return results; } public void setResults(Result[] results) { this.results = results; } } Im guessing the problem is something to do with the results array being returned being blank, but cant see what Im doing wrong EDIT: The comment below was correct, although I usually receive { "pagination": { "per_page": 50, "pages": 1, "page": 1, "urls": {}, "items": 0 }, "results": [] } and in these cases there is no problem but sometimes I seem to just get an empty String. Now Im wondering if the problem is how I read from the inputstream if (responseCode == HttpURLConnection.HTTP_OK) InputStreamReader in= new InputStreamReader(uc.getInputStream()); BufferedReader br= new BufferedReader(in); while(br.ready()) { String next = br.readLine(); sb.append(next); } return sb.toString(); } although I dont read until I get the response code, is it possible that the first time I call br.ready() that I call it before it is ready, and therefore I don't read the input EDIT 2: Changing above code to simply String line; while ((line = br.readLine()) != null) { sb.append(line); } resolved the issue.

    Read the article

  • ObjectDataSource.Select with Parameters Time Out

    - by MasterMax1313
    I'm using an ObjectDataSource with a 2008 ReportViewer control and Linq to CSV. The ODS has two parameters (the SQL is spelled out in an XSD file with a table adapter). The Reportviewer takes a very long time to render the output after a button is clicked to generate the report. That's my first problem. Even though it works (most of the time), the processing time worries me, and subsequent requests don't seem to be changing the results shown on the screen. The next issue is that when I go to export the ODS to CSV I'm getting a time out exception on the select method of the ODS (shown below). This works for ODS without parameters, but it seems like now that I've added parameters that it doesn't want to cooperate. I'm fresh out of ideas, any thoughts? <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="obsGetDataAllCustomers" runat="server" SelectMethod="GetDataAllCustomers" TypeName="my.myAdapter.AllCustomers" OldValuesParameterFormatString="original_{0}" > <SelectParameters> <asp:ControlParameter ControlID="StartDate" Name="Start" PropertyName="Text" Type="DateTime" /> <asp:ControlParameter ControlID="EndDate" Name="_End" PropertyName="Text" Type="DateTime" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> After button click to view report - rvAllCustomers.LocalReport.Refresh() Export to CSV (adding the items returned to a list which is then processed by working code) - For Each dr As DataRow In CType(obs.Select(), DataView).Table.Rows l.Add(New FullOrderOutput(dr)) Next

    Read the article

  • Multi-table Update(MySQL)

    - by smokinguns
    Hey all, I have a question regarding multi-table update(MySQL). Consider table t1 and t2. The PKEY for t1 is 'tid' which is a foreign Key in t2. There is a field "qtyt2" in t2 which depends on a field called "qtyt1" in table t1. Consider the foll SQL statement: UPDATE t2,t1 SET t2.qtyt2=IF(( t2.qtyt2- t1.qtyt1 )<0,0,( t2.qtyt2- t1.qtyt1 ) ), t1.qtyt1 ="Some value.." where t2.tid="some value.." AND t2.tid=t1.tid In this example qtyt2 depends on qtyt1 for update and the latter itself is updated.Now the result should return 2 if two rows are updated. Is there a guarantee that the fields will be updated in the order in which they appear in the statement( first qtyt2 will be set and then qtyt1).Is it possible that qtyt1 will be set first and then qtyt2? Is the order of tables in the statement important (UPDATE t2, t1 or UPDATE t1,t2)? I found that if I wrote "UPDATE t1,t2" then only t1 would get updated, but on changing the statement to "UPDATE t2,t1" everything worked correctly.

    Read the article

  • Declaration of arrays before "normal" variables in c?

    - by bjarkef
    Hi We are currently developing an application for a msp430 MCU, and are running into some weird problems. We discovered that declaring arrays withing a scope after declaration of "normal" variables, sometimes causes what seems to be undefined behavior. Like this: foo(int a, int *b); int main(void) { int x = 2; int arr[5]; foo(x, arr); return 0; } foo sometimes is passed a pointer as the second variable, that does not point to the arr array. We verify this by single stepping through the program, and see that the value of the arr variable in the main scope is not the same as the value of the b pointer variable in the foo scope. And no, this is not really reproduceable, we have just observed this behavior once in a while. Changing the example seems to solve the problem, like this: foo(int a, int *b); int main(void) { int arr[5]; int x = 2; foo(x, arr); return 0; } Does anybody have any input or hints as to why we experience this behavior? Or similar experiences? The MSP430 programming guide specifies that code should conform to the ANSI C89 spec. and so I was wondering if it says that arrays has to be declared before non-array variables? Any input on this would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • errors when using c++ bison ---- in the file position.hh

    - by Eric
    firstly I'm not good at English so forgive me. I compile my program with the bison generated files in visual studio and get these errors: ...\position.hh(83): error C2589: '(' : illegal token on right side of '::' ...\position.hh(83): error C2059: syntax error : '::' ...\position.hh(83): error C2589: '(' : illegal token on right side of '::' ...\position.hh(83): error C2059: syntax error : '::' and the corresponding code is: inline void columns (int count = 1) { column = std::max (1u, column + count); } I think the problem is with std::max. If I change std::max to equivalent code then there is problem anymore, but is there a better solution instead of changing the generated code? here is the *.yy file I wrote. // // bison.yy // %skeleton "lalr1.cc" %require "2.4.2" %defines %define parser_class_name "cmd_parser" %locations %debug %error-verbose %code requires { class ParserDriver; } %parse-param { ParserDriver& driver } %lex-param { ParserDriver& driver } %union { struct ast *a; double d; struct symbol *s; struct symlist *sl; int fn; } %code { #include "helper_func.h" #include "ParserDriver.h" std::string error_msg = ""; } %token <d> NUMBER %token <s> NAME %token <fn> FUNC %token EOL %token IF THEN ELSE WHILE DO LET %token SYM_TABLE_OVERFLOW %token UNKNOWN_CHARACTER %nonassoc <fn> CMP %right '=' %left '+' '-' %left '*' '/' %nonassoc '|' UMINUS %type <a> exp stmt list explist %type <sl> symlist %{ extern int yylex(yy::cmd_parser::semantic_type *yylval, yy::cmd_parser::location_type* yylloc); %} %start calclist %% ... grammar rules ...

    Read the article

  • xcode 5.1: libCordova.a architecture problems

    - by inorganik
    Yesterday (3/10/14) when iOS 7.1 was released I also upgraded to Xcode 5.1 and found that my PhoneGap/Cordova project would no longer compile to my iPhone 5s. I also upgraded Cordova to the most recent release: v 3.4.0-0.1.3. I have read many different solutions on SO that relate so changing active architectures and building only active architectures, and none of them work. So here's what I've tried and the errors I get. Initially I got the error: missing required architecture arm64 in file <long file path omitted> libCordova.a Undefined symbols for architecture arm64 So I tried the following. I selected the CordovaLib sub-project in my project, and in both the project and target, I went to Build Settings under Architectures and made sure that arm64 was not included in any of the Debug or Release architectures. At this time Build Active Architecture Only is set to "Yes". That resulted in the following error: file was built for archive which is not the architecture being linked (armv7): <long file path omitted> libCordova.a Undefined symbols for architecture armv7 Setting Build Active Architecture Only to "No", the error again becomes: missing required architecture arm64 in file <long file path omitted> libCordova.a Undefined symbols for architecture arm64 I'm not sure what else to try. The project's architecture settings only includes the key "Base SDK" which is set to iOS 7.1. The project's target does not have architectures settings. Anyway I'm fairly certain the problem lies with the embedded CordovaLib sub-project. What can I do to make this thing compile to my device successfully? Update: same issue on Apache's Jira: https://issues.apache.org/jira/browse/CB-6223

    Read the article

  • How to suggest changes as a recently-hired employee ?

    - by ereOn
    Hi, I was recently hired in a big company (thousands of people, to give an idea of the size). They said they hired me because of my rigor and because I was, despite my youngness (i'm 25), experienced as a C/C++ programer. Now that I'm in, I can see that the whole system is old and often uses obsolete technologies. There is no naming convention (files, functions, variables, ...), they don't use Version Control, don't use exceptions or polymorphism and it seems like almost everybody lost his passion (some of them are only 30 years old). I'd like to suggest somes changes but i don't want to be "the new guy that wants to change everything just because he doesn't want to fit in". I tried to "fit in", but actually, It takes me one week to do what I would do in one afternoon, just because of the poor tools we're forced to use. A lot my collegues never look at the new "things" and techniques that people use nowadays. It's like they just given up. The situation is really frustrating. Have you ever been in a similar situation and, if so, what advices would you give me ? Is there a subtle way of changing things without becoming the black sheep here ? Or should I just give up my passion and energy as well ? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Open Source: Why not release into Public Domain?

    - by Goosey
    I have recently been wondering why so little code is ever released as 'Public Domain'. MIT and BSD licenses are becoming extremely popular and practically only have the restriction of license propagation. The reasons I can think of so far are: Credit - aka Prestige, Street-cred, 'Props', etc. Authors don't want usage of the code restricted, but they also want credit for creating the code. Two problems with this reason. I have seen projects copy/paste the MIT or BSD license without adding the 'Copyright InsertNameHere' thereby making it a tag-along license that doesn't give them credit. I have talked to authors who say they don't care about people giving them credit, they just want people to use their code. Public Domain would make it easier for people to do so. License Change - IANAL, but I believe by licensing their code, even with an extremely nonrestrictive license, this means they can change the license on a later revision? This reason is not good for explaining most BSD/MIT licensed code which seems to have no intent of ever becoming more restrictive. AS IS - All licenses seem to have the SCREAMING CAPS declaration saying that the software is 'as is' and that the author offers no implied or express warranty. IANAL, but isn't this implied in public domain? Am I missing some compelling reason? The authors I have talked to about this basically said something along the lines of "BSD/MIT just seems like what you do, no one does public domain". Is this groupthink in action, or is there a compelling anti-public domain argument? Thanks EDIT: I am specifically asking about Public Domain vs BSD/MIT/OtherEquallyUnrestrictiveLicense. Not GPL. Please understand what these licenses allow, and this includes: Selling the work, changing the work and not 'giving the changes back', and incorporating the work in a differently (such as commercially) licensed work. Thank You to everyone who has replied who understands what BSD/MIT means.

    Read the article

  • Get directory path by fd

    - by tylerl
    I've run into the need to be able refer to a directory by path given its file descriptor in Linux. The path doesn't have to be canonical, it just has to be functional so that I can pass it to other functions. So, taking the same parameters as passed to a function like fstatat(), I need to be able to call a function like getxattr() which doesn't have a f-XYZ-at() variant. So far I've come up with these solutions; though none are particularly elegant. The simplest solution is to avoid the problem by calling openat() and then using a function like fgetxattr(). This works, but not in every situation. So another method is needed to fill the gaps. The next solution involves looking up the information in proc: if (!access("/proc/self/fd",X_OK)) { sprintf(path,"/proc/self/fd/%i/",fd); } This, of course, totally breaks on systems without proc, including some chroot environments. The last option, a more portable but potentially-race-condition-prone solution, looks like this: DIR* save = opendir("."); fchdir(fd); getcwd(path,PATH_MAX); fchdir(dirfd(save)); closedir(save); The obvious problem here is that in a multithreaded app, changing the working directory around could have side effects. However, the fact that it works is compelling: if I can get the path of a directory by calling fchdir() followed by getcwd(), why shouldn't I be able to just get the information directly: fgetcwd() or something. Clearly the kernel is tracking the necessary information. So how do I get to it?

    Read the article

  • Serializing MDI Winforms for persistency

    - by Serge
    Hello, basically my project is an MDI Winform application where a user can customize the interface by adding various controls and changing the layout. I would like to be able to save the state of the application for each user. I have done quite a bit of searching and found these: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2076259/how-to-auto-save-and-auto-load-all-properties-in-winforms-c http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1669522/c-save-winform-or-controls-to-file Basically from what I understand, the best approach is to serialize the data to XML, however winform controls are not serializable, so I would have use surrogate classes: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/dotnet/Surrogate_Serialization.aspx Now, do I need to write a surrogate class for each of my controls? I would need to write some sort of a recursive algorithm to save all my controls, what is the best approach to do accomplish that? How would I then restore all the windows, should I use the memento design pattern for that? If I want to implement multiple users later, should I use Nhibernate to store all the object data in a database? I am still trying to wrap my head around the problem and if anyone has any experience or advice I would greatly appreciate it, thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to refactor this database to allow sync. with smart clients?

    - by Anton Zvgny
    Howdy, I have inherited the following database: http://i46.tinypic.com/einvjr.png (EDIT: I cannot post images, so here goes the link) This currently runs 100% online thru an Asp.Net web app , but some employees will need to have offline access to this database to either get documents or to insert new documents for later synchronization when back to the office. What changes need to be made to this database scheme to support such scenario (sync smart clients with central web database)? Thanks! ps. I'm not an developer/dba, i'm just an mechanic engineer tasked with changing this app, so, take it easy on me :D ps1. We're using MSSQL Server for the online central database and MSSQL Compact for the smart client. ps2. the ImageGuid field of the images table is used to save the images to the file system. The web app takes the guid and create folders according to the first 3 initial letters to persist the image to the file system. ps3. The users of the smart client not always get server data first and then go modifying to sync later the changes. Most of the time they start working completely offline (with a blank local database) and later sync the data to the server. ps4. All the users of the smart client app have an account at the web app.

    Read the article

  • python/django problem with sessions and language

    - by freakish
    Hello everyone! I have the following problem: on the main page I can change language. New language is saved in request.session['django_language']. I also have SESSION_COOKIE_DOMAIN set to my site, so session should be inherited by subdomains. And it is, because after changing language I check request.session['django_language'] in subdomains and it's fine. Then I use django.middleware.locale.LocaleMiddleware to translate my pages. And it works perfectly... only on main site! If I change language and refresh main site - it is ok. However, if I change language and go to a subpage (for example /LogIn), then the page is NOT translated at all. It stays on default language. This is really strange, because if I use {% load i18n %} {% get_current_language as lang %} in this subpage, then lang is good language. There is no mistake. What kind of problem can it be? Some suggestions?

    Read the article

  • In Netbeans, how do I avoid wsimport rebuilding web service clients every build?

    - by gustafc
    I'm on a project where we use NetBeans (6.8). We use several different web services, which we have added as web service references, and Netbeans auto-generates the Ant wsimport scripts for us. Very handy, with one drawback: The web service clients are recompiled every time ant is invoked. This slows down the build process considerably and has caused the number of sword-related injuries, maimings and deaths to skyrocket. Normally, I'd fix this by changing the wsimport element from <wsimport sourcedestdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" destdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" wsdl="${wsdl-PonyService}" catalog="catalog.xml" verbose="true"/> to <wsimport sourcedestdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" destdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" wsdl="${wsdl-PonyService}" catalog="catalog.xml" verbose="true"> <produces dir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" /> </wsimport> But I can't, 'cause this part of the Ant script is auto-generated. If I right-click the PonyService web service reference and select Edit Web Service Attributes ⇒ wsimport options, I can add attributes to the wsimport element, but not child elements. So: How do I add the produces child element to wsimport other than hacking the auto-generated Ant script? Or more generally: How do I make the NetBeans-generated wsimport not recompile the web service clients every time I build?

    Read the article

  • jQuery, unable to store data returned by $.get function.

    - by Deepak Prasanna
    I am trying to turn div#sidebar into a sidebar in my app. My code looks like the one below. $('#sidebar').userProfile(); jQuery.fn.userProfile = function() { $.get('/users/profile', function(data){ $(this).html(data); }); }; It didnt work because, I found the this (inside the $.get function) here contexts to the get request and not $('#sidebar'). Then I tried something like below. $('#sidebar').userProfile(); #This doesnot work jQuery.fn.userProfile = function() { var side_bar = null; $.get('/users/profile', function(data){ side_bar = data; }); $(this).html(side_bar); console.log(side_bar); }; This doesnt work either. In firebug console I see Null which I am setting on top when I am declaring the variable.Atlast I made it work by changing my code to something like below by hardcoding the selector. #This works, but I cannot turn any element to a sidebar which is sick. jQuery.fn.userProfile = function() { $.get('/users/profile', function(data){ $('#sidebar').html(data); }); }; But this is not I wanted because I wanted to turn any element to a sidebar. Where am I goin wrong or which is the correct way of doing it?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250  | Next Page >