Search Results

Search found 7799 results on 312 pages for 'changing'.

Page 249/312 | < Previous Page | 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256  | Next Page >

  • Is it necessary to "escape" character "<" and ">" for javascript string?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    Sometimes, server side will generate strings to be embedded in inline JavaScript code. For example, if "UserName" should be generated by ASP.NET. Then it looks like. <script> var username = "<%UserName%>"; </script> This is not safe, because a user can have his/her name to be </script><script>alert('bug')</script></script> It is XSS vulnerability. So, basically, the code should be: <script> var username = "<% JavascriptEncode(UserName)%>"; </script> What JavascriptEncode does is to add charater "\" before "/" and "'" and """. So, the output html is like. var username = "<\/scriptalert(\'bug\')<\/script<\/script"; Browser will not interpret "<\/script" as end of script block. So, XSS in avoided. However, there are still "<" and "" there. It is suggested to escape these two characters as well. First of all, I don't believe it is a good idea to change "<" to "&lt;" and "" to "&gt;" here. And, I'm not sure changing "<" to "\<" and "" to "\" is recognizable to all browsers. It seems it is not necessary to do further encoding for "<" and "". Is there any suggestion on this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Enabling/Disabling Aero from a Windows Service

    - by rgould
    I have some code to enable/disable the Windows Aero service in Vista, and I would like to run it in a Windows Service. The code works in a standalone application, but when I run it from a Service, nothing happens. No errors or exceptions are thrown. I realise that running code in a service is a different scope than running code in an application, but in this case, how would I enable/disable Aero from the service? Is this even possible? Here is the code I am working with: public static readonly uint DWM_EC_DISABLECOMPOSITION = 0; public static readonly uint DWM_EC_ENABLECOMPOSITION = 1; [DllImport("dwmapi.dll", EntryPoint="DwmEnableComposition")] protected static extern uint Win32DwmEnableComposition(uint uCompositionAction); public static bool EnableAero() { Win32DwmEnableComposition(DWM_EC_ENABLECOMPOSITION); } Edit: It turns out that the DwmEnableComposition call is returning HRESULT 0x80070018, or ERROR_BAD_LENGTH. Seems like a strange error, since the code works when not running as a service. I also tried changing the entire thing to the following code, but got the same result. It sets the window station and desktop, and it seems to be correct, but the call to DwmEnableComposition results in the same error. I've not included the PInvoke declarations for brevity. protected override void OnStop() { IntPtr winStation = OpenWindowStation("winsta0", true, 0x10000000 /* GENERIC_ALL */); if (winStation == null || winStation.ToInt32() == 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } if (!SetProcessWindowStation(winStation)) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } uint thread = GetCurrentThreadId(); IntPtr hdesk = OpenInputDesktop(0, false, 0x10000000 /* GENERIC_ALL */); if (hdesk == null || hdesk.ToInt32() == 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } if (!SetThreadDesktop(hdesk)) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } uint result = Win32DwmEnableComposition(DWM_EC_DISABLECOMPOSITION); if (result != 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } }

    Read the article

  • Is this trivial function silly?

    - by Chas. Owens
    I came across a function today that made me stop and think. I can't think of a good reason to do it: sub replace_string { my $string = shift; my $regex = shift; my $replace = shift; $string =~ s/$regex/$replace/gi; return $string; } The only possible value I can see to this is that it gives you the ability to control the default options used with a substitution, but I don't consider that useful. My first reaction upon seeing this function get called is "what does this do?". Once I learn what it does, I am going to assume it does that from that point on. Which means if it changes, it will break any of my code that needs it to do that. This means the function will likely never change, or changing it will break lots of code. Right now I want to track down the original programmer and beat some sense into him or her. Is this a valid desire, or am I missing some value this function brings to the table?

    Read the article

  • non-copyable objects and value initialization: g++ vs msvc

    - by R Samuel Klatchko
    I'm seeing some different behavior between g++ and msvc around value initializing non-copyable objects. Consider a class that is non-copyable: class noncopyable_base { public: noncopyable_base() {} private: noncopyable_base(const noncopyable_base &); noncopyable_base &operator=(const noncopyable_base &); }; class noncopyable : private noncopyable_base { public: noncopyable() : x_(0) {} noncopyable(int x) : x_(x) {} private: int x_; }; and a template that uses value initialization so that the value will get a known value even when the type is POD: template <class T> void doit() { T t = T(); ... } and trying to use those together: doit<noncopyable>(); This works fine on msvc as of VC++ 9.0 but fails on every version of g++ I tested this with (including version 4.5.0) because the copy constructor is private. Two questions: Which behavior is standards compliant? Any suggestion of how to work around this in gcc (and to be clear, changing that to T t; is not an acceptable solution as this breaks POD types). P.S. I see the same problem with boost::noncopyable.

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to use Guice and JMock together?

    - by Yishai
    I have started using Guice to do some dependency injection on a project, primarily because I need to inject mocks (using JMock currently) a layer away from the unit test, which makes manual injection very awkward. My question is what is the best approach for introducing a mock? What I currently have is to make a new module in the unit test that satisfies the dependencies and bind them with a provider that looks like this: public class JMockProvider<T> implements Provider<T> { private T mock; public JMockProvider(T mock) { this.mock = mock; } public T get() { return mock; } } Passing the mock in the constructor, so a JMock setup might look like this: final CommunicationQueue queue = context.mock(CommunicationQueue.class); final TransactionRollBack trans = context.mock(TransactionRollBack.class); Injector injector = Guice.createInjector(new AbstractModule() { @Override protected void configure() { bind(CommunicationQueue.class).toProvider(new JMockProvider<QuickBooksCommunicationQueue>(queue)); bind(TransactionRollBack.class).toProvider(new JMockProvider<TransactionRollBack>(trans)); } }); context.checking(new Expectations() {{ oneOf(queue).retrieve(with(any(int.class))); will(returnValue(null)); never(trans); }}); injector.getInstance(RunResponse.class).processResponseImpl(-1); Is there a better way? I know that AtUnit attempts to address this problem, although I'm missing how it auto-magically injects a mock that was created locally like the above, but I'm looking for either a compelling reason why AtUnit is the right answer here (other than its ability to change DI and mocking frameworks around without changing tests) or if there is a better solution to doing it by hand.

    Read the article

  • What is a faster way of merging the values of this Python structure into a single dictionary?

    - by jcoon
    I've refactored how the merged-dictionary (all_classes) below is created, but I'm wondering if it can be more efficient. I have a dictionary of dictionaries, like this: groups_and_classes = {'group_1': {'class_A': [1, 2, 3], 'class_B': [1, 3, 5, 7], 'class_c': [1, 2], # ...many more items like this }, 'group_2': {'class_A': [11, 12, 13], 'class_C': [5, 6, 7, 8, 9] }, # ...and many more items like this } A function creates a new object from groups_and_classes like this (the function to create this is called often): all_classes = {'class_A': [1, 2, 3, 11, 12, 13], 'class_B': [1, 3, 5, 7, 9], 'class_C': [1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] } Right now, there is a loop that does this: all_classes = {} for group in groups_and_classes.values(): for c, vals in group.iteritems(): for v in vals: if all_classes.has_key(c): if v not in all_classes[c]: all_classes[c].append(v) else: all_classes[c] = [v] So far, I changed the code to use a set instead of a list since the order of the list doesn't matter and the values need to be unique: all_classes = {} for group in groups_and_classes.values(): for c, vals in group.iteritems(): try: all_classes[c].update(set(vals)) except KeyError: all_classes[c] = set(vals) This is a little nicer, and I didn't have to convert the sets to lists because of how all_classes is used in the code. Question: Is there a more efficient way of creating all_classes (aside from building it at the same time groups_and_classes is built, and changing everywhere this function is called)?

    Read the article

  • A question about DOM parser used with Python

    - by fixxxer
    I'm using the following python code to search for a node in an XML file and changing the value of an attribute of one of it's children.Changes are happening correctly when the node is displayed using toxml().But, when it is written to a file, the attributes rearrange themselves(as seen in the Source and the Final XML below). Could anyone explain how and why this happen? Python code: #!/usr/bin/env python import xml from xml.dom.minidom import parse dom=parse("max.xml") #print "Please enter the store name:" for sku in dom.getElementsByTagName("node"): if sku.getAttribute("name") == "store": sku.childNodes[1].childNodes[5].setAttribute("value","Delhi,India") print sku.toxml() xml.dom.ext.PrettyPrint(dom, open("new.xml", "w")) a part of the Source XML: <node name='store' node_id='515' module='mpx.lib.node.simple_value.SimpleValue' config_builder='' inherant='false' description='Configurable Value'> <match> <property name='1' value='point'/> <property name='2' value='0'/> <property name='val' value='Store# 09204 Staten Island, NY'/> <property name='3' value='str'/> </match> </node> Final XML : <node config_builder="" description="Configurable Value" inherant="false" module="mpx.lib.node.simple_value.SimpleValue" name="store" node_id="515"> <match> <property name="1" value="point"/> <property name="2" value="0"/> <property name="val" value="Delhi,India"/> <property name="3" value="str"/> </match> </node>

    Read the article

  • Passing a var as an argument

    - by Lienau
    On a site I'm making I need to have a progress bar, I found one that suited my needs. By default it will incrementally change the color when a certain percentage is reached (0-30 red, 30-70 orange, etc). My only problem is changing them, I can set them easily with a static number such as 50, but when I try to do it dynamically (ie: 2000*.3 = 600) it fails. I don't know much js/jquery so this is especially difficult for me, if you could help that would be great. I'm pretty sure it's something really simple I'm missing. The code that Fails: var barmax = 2000; var orangeBound = Math.round(barmax * .3); var greenBound = Math.round(barmax * .7); //alert(orangeBound+":"+greenBound); $("#pb1").progressBar({ max: barmax, textFormat: 'fraction', barImage: { 0: 'images/progressbg_red.gif', orangeBound: 'images/progressbg_orange.gif', greenBound: 'images/progressbg_green.gif'} }); The code that works but I can't use because it has to be dynamic: $("#pb1").progressBar({ max: barmax, textFormat: 'fraction', barImage: { 0: 'images/progressbg_red.gif', 600: 'images/progressbg_orange.gif', 1400: 'images/progressbg_green.gif'} }); If you need to see the source, here. Thanks again!

    Read the article

  • NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

    - by Joe
    The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

    Read the article

  • iPhone application update (using Core Data on Sqlite)

    - by owen
    I have an app which is using Core Data on Sqlite, Now I have a update which has some DB structure changes say adding a new table I know when an app get updated, it updates the app binary only, nothing on document directory will be changed. When the app gets updated and launchs at the first time and run [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; It will find the difference between the data model and DB structure in Sqlite and will throw an exception and quit. Error: "The model used to open the store is incompatible with the one used to create the store" So, can anyone here give me some idea how to update an app when there is a DB structure change? I think we can run a DB script to create that new table when it launchs the update at the first time. But if there are other changes like changing the type of some fields or deleting some fields, and we need to migrate the old data, this is really a headache. In this case, Is the only way to do is creating a new app? Is there anyone tried something similar like this?

    Read the article

  • [Zend YouTubeAPP] failed to upgrade a token

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I was testing Zend Gdata 1.10.1 in my localhost. I downloaded Zend Gdate from this link: http://framework.zend.com/download/webservices Inside the Zend Gdata zip file, there was a folder called demos. I extracted it and used the YouTudeVideoApp to upload a sample video to Youtube. But every time after I logged into Youtube, before it redirected me to my localhost, I received a warning message like this warning message: localhost: This website is registered with Google to make authorization requests, but has not been configured to send requests securely. We recommend that you continue the process only if you trust the following destination: localhost:8080/youtube/operations.php So I googled on how to resolve the problem of getting this warning message when I saw some people suggesed changing the value of $secure to True in operation.php. Here is the script mentioned: function generateAuthSubRequestLink($nextUrl = null) { $scope = 'http://gdata.youtube.com'; $secure = true; $session = true; if (!$nextUrl) { generateUrlInformation(); $nextUrl = $_SESSION['operationsUrl']; } $url = Zend_Gdata_AuthSub::getAuthSubTokenUri($nextUrl, $scope, $secure, $session); echo '<a href="' . $url . '"><strong>Click here to authenticate with YouTube</strong></a>'; } After I altered the value of $secure to True, I found that the warning message changed to this: localhost: Registered, secure. This website is registered with Google to make authorization requests The new warning message is somehow shorter and looks better than the previous warning message. But once I pressed the Allow Access button, it turned out to be this: ERROR - Token upgrade for CI3M6_Q3EOGkxoL-___wEYjffToQQ failed : Token upgrade failed. Reason: Invalid AuthSub header. Error 401 ERROR - Unknown search type - '' I don't know why this happened. Could you help me solve the problem please?

    Read the article

  • Facebook PHP Api cUrl auto post to page's wall (not profile wall)

    - by Ian
    I need to be able to post to the wall of my page, i have given offline_permissions and I got it to post to my profile wall but I need it to post to my pages wall. Anyone know how to do this, where does my code need changing? thanks <?php session_start(); $fb_page_id = 106502962712016; $fb_access_token = '121247121254761|588e45312b074a0ec3dd62c39-1727154049|L0VGSJsCBrsSj5H4w1LwobRGeRc'; $url = 'https://graph.facebook.com/'.$fb_page_id.'/feed'; $attachment = array( 'access_token' => $fb_access_token, 'message' => 'message text', 'name' => 'name text', 'link' => 'http://domain.com/', 'description' => 'Description Text', 'picture'=>'http://domain.com/logo.jpg', ); // set the target url $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, FALSE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 2); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $attachment); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER,0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); $go = curl_exec($ch); curl_close ($ch); ?

    Read the article

  • SharePoint randomly replacing file names in web parts?

    - by nvuono
    Ok SharePoint is driving me crazy and I need to see if anyone has encountered a similar problem or knows of a solution: I have a content editor webpart with some HTML including links to PDF files that I've modified slightly to append an employee number querystring ie: <a href="http://moss.company.com/group/home/EPermits /Blank%20Form%20Templates/_blank_breach_permit.pdf?empNum=">New Breach Permit</a> And SharePoint seems to randomly replace the filename with aab04168 or some other similar characters: <a href="http://moss.company.com/group/home/EPermits /Blank%20Form%20Templates/aab04168?empNum=">New Breach Permit</a> After this happened a few times with no explanation I tried changing the content editor webpart to look directly at a documentLinks.html file located in the Shared Documents folder of the SharePoint site and guess what... SharePoint edited that document and replaced my filenames with random characters in there too! Figuring that filenames beginning with an underscore could be triggering some internal SharePoint procedures I've renamed all the files to remove the starting underscore--unfortunately the problem isn't immediately reproducible and I'm waiting right now to see if I run into any more trouble. edit: the underscore in the filename didn't help... my documentLinks.html wound up getting modified and all the hrefs were replaced with random characters again. Now I'm setting the hrefs in javascript with the filename text concatenated together from multiple strings. linkEle.href = ".../EPermits/Blank%20Form%20Templates/blank" + "_Chemical_Usage.pdf?empNum=" + empNumber;

    Read the article

  • Why does this JavaScript not correctly update input values?

    - by dmanexe
    I have two input fields, and without changing their names (i.e., I have to use the name with the brackets), how do I make this javascript code work? <script> function calc_concreteprice(mainform) { var oprice; var ototal; oprice = (eval(mainform.'estimate[concrete][sqft]'.value) * eval(mainform.'estimate[concrete][price]'.value)); ototal = (oprice); mainform.'estimate[concrete][quick_total]'.value = ototal; } </script> Here's the HTML of the input area. <tr> <td>Concrete Base Price</td> <td><input type="text" name="concrete[concrete][price]" value="" class="item_mult" onBlur="calc_concreteprice(document.forms.mainform);" /> per SF <strong>times</strong> <input type="text" name="concrete[concrete][sqft]" value="" class="item_mult" onBlur="calc_concreteprice(document.forms.mainform);" /> SF</td> <td> = <input type="text" name="concrete[concrete][quick_total]" value="" /></td> </tr> I know I can get it working by changing_the_input_name_with_underscores but I need to have the names with the brackets (storing the form contents in an array).

    Read the article

  • Android Java ArrayList inserting element not working

    - by DavidNg
    I have a simple Android program with one button and one textview. When the button is clicked, a number is inserted in in an ArrayList. However, it does not work. If changing to add, it works fine. package test_ad.com; import java.util.ArrayList; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.view.View.OnClickListener; import android.widget.Button; import android.widget.TextView; public class Test_adActivity extends Activity { ArrayList<Integer> al = new ArrayList<Integer>(); Button myB; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); myB = (Button) findViewById(R.id.button1); myTV = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.textView1); myB.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View arg0) { al.set(i,10*i);//insert an Integer at index i, but not working i++; if (i == 5) myTV.setText(al.toString()); } }); } }

    Read the article

  • Opening port 80 with Java application on Ubuntu

    - by Featheast
    What I need to do is running a Java application which is a RESTful service server side writtern by Restlet. And this service will be called by another app running on Google App Engine. Because of the restriction of GAE, every http call is limited to port 80 and 443 (http and https) with HttpUrlConnection class. As a result, I have to deploy my server side application on port 80 or 443. However, because the app is running on Ubuntu, and those ports under 1024 cannot be accessed by non-root user, then a Access Denied exception will be thrown when I run my app. The solutions that have come into my mind includs: Changing the security policy of JRE, which is the files resides in /lib/security/java.policy, to grantjava.net.SocketPermission "*.80" "listen, connect, accept, resolve" permission?However, neither using command line to include this file or overrides the content in JRE's java.policy file, the same exception keeps coming out. try to login as a root user, however because my unfamiliarity with Unix, I don't know how to do it. another solution I haven't try is to map all calls to 80 to a higher port like 1234, then I can deploy my app on 1234 without problem, and GAE call send request to port 80. But how to connect the missing gap is still a problem. Currently I am using a "hacking" method, which is to package the application into a jar file, and sudo running the jar file with root privilege. It works now, but definitely not appropriate in the real deployment environment. So if anyone have any idea about the solution, thanks very much!

    Read the article

  • Generating dynamic css using php and javascript

    - by Onkar Deshpande
    I want to generate tooltip based on a dynamically changing background image in css. This is my my_css.php file. <?php header('content-type: text/css'); $i = $_GET['index']; if($i == 0) $bg_image_path = "../bg_red.jpg"; elseif ($i == 1) $bg_image_path = "../bg_yellow.jpg"; elseif ($i == 2) $bg_image_path = "../bg_green.jpg"; elseif ($i == 3) $bg_image_path = "../bg_blue.jpg"; ?> .tooltip { white-space: nowrap; color:green; font-weight:bold; border:1px solid black;; font-size:14px; background-color: white; margin: 0; padding: 7px 4px; border: 1px solid black; background-image: url(<?php echo $bg_image_path; ?>); background-repeat:repeat-x; font-family: Helvetica,Arial,Sans-Serif; font-family: Times New Roman,Georgia,Serif; filter:alpha(opacity=85); opacity:0.85; zoom: 1; } In order to use this css I added <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/my_css.php" type="text/css" media="screen" /> in my html <head> tag of javascript code. I am thinking of passing different values of 'index' so that it would generate the background image dynamically. Can anyone tell me how should I pass such values from a javascript ? I am creating the tooltip using var tooltip = document.createElement("div"); document.getElementById("map").appendChild(tooltip); tooltip.style.visibility="hidden"; and I think before calling this createElement, I should set background image.

    Read the article

  • Decoding the IE9 user agent

    - by Portman
    I installed IE9 in a Windows 7 virtual machine, and was surprised to see this user agent: Mozilla/5.0 (compatible; MSIE 9.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/5.0; BOIE9;ENUSMSNIP) In particular, the last two keys BOIE9 and ENUSMSNIP look very spammy. I'm used to seeing toolbars and add-ins register themselves at the end of the user agent like that, but this is on a virgin install of Windows 7 with no other software. They're defined in the registry here: HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings\5.0\User Agent\PostPlatform That key has a value of IEAK, which is apparently the Internet Explorer Administrators Kit which according to Microsoft sends a custom user agent string. But why? I'm guessing that BOIE9 is stands for "Bing on IE9". It's the only active Add-On: As for ENUSMSNIP, I'm at a loss. My guesses are: ENUS = Locale, which for me is EN-US ("US English") MS = Microsoft NIP = ??? I tried changing my locale to EN-GB, but the user agent didn't update nor did the registry. So it appears it's only at the time of install that it matters (if I'm even right about ENUS). Does anyone know what these two user agent keys represent? Or, care to share what your IE9 user agent is, and maybe we can piece it together ourselves?

    Read the article

  • Change with jQuery a cell of a table created with JSF

    - by perissf
    From within a xhtml page created with JSF, I need to use JavaScript / jQuery for changing the content of a cell of a table. I know how to assign a unique id to the div containing the table, and to the tbody. I can also assign unique class names to the div itself and to the target column. The target row is identified by the data-rk attribute. <div id="tabForm:centerTabView:personsTable" class="ui-datatable ui-widget personsTable"> <table role="grid"> <tbody id="tabForm:centerTabView:personsTable_data" > <tr data-rk="2" > <td ... /> <td class="lastNameCol" role="gridcell"> <div> To Be Edited </div> </td> <td ... /> </tr> <tr ... /> </tbody> </table> </div> I have tried with many combinations of different jQuery selectors, but I am really lost. I need to search my target row and my target column inside that particular div or inside that particular table, because the xhtml page may contain other tables with different unique ids (and accidentally with the same row and column ids).

    Read the article

  • Targeted Simplify in Mathematica

    - by Timo
    I generate very long and complex analytic expressions of the general form: (...something not so complex...)(...ditto...)(...ditto...)...lots... When I try to use Simplify, Mathematica grinds to a halt, I am assuming due to the fact that it tries to expand the brackets and or simplify across different brackets. The brackets, while containing long expressions, are easily simplified by Mathematica on their own. Is there some way I can limit the scope of Simplify to a single bracket at a time? Edit: Some additional info and progress. So using the advice from you guys I have now started using something in the vein of In[1]:= trouble = Log[(x + I y) (x - I y) + Sqrt[(a + I b) (a - I b)]]; In[2]:= Replace[trouble, form_ /; (Head[form] == Times) :> Simplify[form],{3}] Out[2]= Log[Sqrt[a^2 + b^2] + (x - I y) (x + I y)] Changing Times to an appropriate head like Plus or Power makes it possible to target the simplification quite accurately. The problem / question that remains, though, is the following: Simplify will still descend deeper than the level specified to Replace, e.g. In[3]:= Replace[trouble, form_ /; (Head[form] == Plus) :> Simplify[form], {1}] Out[3]= Log[Sqrt[a^2 + b^2] + x^2 + y^2] simplifies the square root as well. My plan was to iteratively use Replace from the bottom up one level at a time, but this clearly will result in vast amount of repeated work by Simplify and ultimately result in the exact same bogging down of Mathematica I experienced in the outset. Is there a way to restrict Simplify to a certain level(s)? I realize that this sort of restriction may not produce optimal results, but the idea here is getting something that is "good enough".

    Read the article

  • Selectively disabling WebControl elements

    - by NeilD
    I have an ASP.Net MasterPage with a PlaceHolder element. The contents of the PlaceHolder can be viewed in two modes: read-write, and read-only. To implement read only, I wanted to disable all inputs inside the PlaceHolder. I decided to do this by recursively looping through the controls collection of the PlaceHolder, finding all the ones which inherit from WebControl, and setting control.Enabled = false;. Here's what I originally wrote: private void DisableControls(Control c) { if (c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl))) { WebControl wc = c as WebControl; wc.Enabled = false; } //Also disable all child controls. foreach (Control child in c.Controls) { DisableControls(child); } } This worked fine, and all controls are disabled... But then the requirement changed ;) NOW, we want to disable all controls except ones which have a certain CssClass. So, my first attempt at the new version: private void DisableControls(Control c) { if (c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl))) { WebControl wc = c as WebControl; if (!wc.CssClass.ToLower().Contains("someclass")) wc.Enabled = false; } //Also disable all child controls. foreach (Control child in c.Controls) { DisableControls(child); } } Now I've hit a problem. If I have (for example) an <ASP:Panel> which contains an <ASP:DropDownList>, and I want to keep the DropDownList enabled, then this isn't working. I call DisableControls on the Panel, and it gets disabled. It then loops through the children, and calls DisableControls on the DropDownList, and leaves it enabled (as intended). However, because the Panel is disabled, when the page renders, everything inside the <div> tag is disabled! Can you think of a way round this? I've thought about changing c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl)) to c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(SomeParentClassThatAllInputElementsInheritFrom)), but I can't find anything appropriate!

    Read the article

  • AS3 variables handling by AVM/compiler/scope

    - by jchmielewski
    I have couple of questions about AS3 variables handling by AVM/compiler/scope .1. This code in Flash will throw an error: function myFunction() { var mc:MovieClip=new MovieClip(); var mc:MovieClip=new MovieClip(); } but it won`t throw an error in Flex (only warning in Editor). Why? .2. How Flash sees variables in loops? Apparently this: for (var i:int=0; i<2; i++) { var mc:MovieClip=new MovieClip(); } isn`t equal to just: var mc:MovieClip=new MovieClip(); var mc:MovieClip=new MovieClip(); because it will throw an error again as earlier in Flash, but in Flex in function not? Is Flash changing somehow my loop before compilation? .3. Where in a class in equivalent to timeline in Flash - where in class I would put code which I put normally on timeline (I assume it is not constructor because of what I have written earlier, or maybe it`s a matter of Flash/Flex compiler)?

    Read the article

  • JavaFX 2.0 - How to change legend color of a LineChart dynamically?

    - by marie
    I am trying to style my JavaFX linechart but I have some trouble with the legend. I know how to change the legend color of a line chart in the css file: .default-color0.chart-series-line { -fx-stroke: #FF0000, white; } .default-color1.chart-series-line { -fx-stroke: #00FF00, white; } .default-color2.chart-series-line { -fx-stroke: #0000FF, white; } .default-color0.chart-line-symbol { -fx-background-color: #FF0000, white; } .default-color1.chart-line-symbol { -fx-background-color: #00FF00, white; } .default-color2.chart-line-symbol { -fx-background-color: #0000FF, white; } But this is not enough for my purposes. I have three or more colored toggle buttons and a series of data for every button. The data should be displayed in the same color the button has after I have selected the button. This should be possible with a multiselection of the buttons, so that more than one series of data can be displayed simultaneously. For the chart lines I have managed it by changing the style after I clicked the button: .. dataList.add(series); .. series.getNode().setStyle("-fx-stroke: rgba(" + rgba + ")"); If I deselect the button I remove the data from the list. dataList.remove(series); That is working fine for the strokes, but how can I do the same for the legend? You can see an example below. First I clicked the red button, thus the stroke and the legend is red (default-color0). After that I clicked the blue button. Here you can see the problem. The stroke is blue but the legend is green, because default color1 is used and I do not know how to change the legend color.

    Read the article

  • bad_alloc occuring when allocating small structs

    - by SalamiArmi
    A bad_alloc has started showing up in some code which looks perfectly valid to me and has worked very well in the past. The bad alloc only occurs once every 50-3000 iterations of the code, which is also confusing. The code itself is from a singly linked list, simply adding a new element to the queue: template<typename T> struct container { inline container() : next(0) {} container *next; T data; }; void push(const T &data) { container<T> *newQueueMember = new container<T>; //... unrelated to crash } Where T is: struct test { int m[256]; }; Changing the size of the array allocated array to anything but very small values (1-8 ints) still results in a bad_alloc occasionally. A few extra notes about my program: - I used Poco::ThreadPool to thread my program. I've only recently added this functionality, before I had it running with Win32 threads. However, only the main thread ever calls push(). - I am also occasionally getting other crashes which could be related. However, when I try to debug with visual studio 2008, I can't navigate back to the call stack, or the crash happens deep within new(). Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Foreign/accented characters in sql query

    - by FromCanada
    I'm using Java and Spring's JdbcTemplate class to build an SQL query in Java that queries a Postgres database. However, I'm having trouble executing queries that contain foreign/accented characters. For example the (trimmed) code: JdbcTemplate select = new JdbcTemplate( postgresDatabase ); String query = "SELECT id FROM province WHERE name = 'Ontario';"; Integer id = select.queryForObject( query, Integer.class ); will retrieve the province id, but if instead I did name = 'Québec' then the query fails to return any results (this value is in the database so the problem isn't that it's missing). I believe the source of the problem is that the database I am required to use has the default client encoding set to SQL_ASCII, which according to this prevents automatic character set conversions. (The Java environments encoding is set to 'UTF-8' while I'm told the database uses 'LATIN1' / 'ISO-8859-1') I was able to manually indicate the encoding when the resultSets contained values with foreign characters as a solution to a previous problem with a similar nature. Ex: String provinceName = new String ( resultSet.getBytes( "name" ), "ISO-8859-1" ); But now that the foreign characters are part of the query itself this approach hasn't been successful. (I suppose since the query has to be saved in a String before being executed anyway, breaking it down into bytes and then changing the encoding only muddles the characters further.) Is there a way around this without having to change the properties of the database or reconstruct it? PostScript: I found this function on StackOverflow when making up a title, it didn't seem to work (I might not have used it correctly, but even if it did work it doesn't seem like it could be the best solution.):

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256  | Next Page >