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  • Help using RDA on a Desktop Applicaton?

    - by Joel
    I have a .NET 3.5 Compact Framework project that uses RDA for moving data between its mobile device's local SqlCe database and a remote MSSql-2008 server(it uses RDA Push and Pull). The server machine a virtual directory with sqlcesa35.dll (v3.5.5386.0) setup for RDA. We usually install these cabs on the mobile devices and the RDA process does not have any problems: sqlce.wce5.armv4i.cab sqlce.repl.wce5.armv4i.cab Now I am trying to run this application as a desktop application. RDA Pull (download) has been working well. But the RDA Push (upload) is giving me some problems. This is the exception that I get on the desktop application when I try to use RDA Push: System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeException The Client Agent and Server Agent component versions are incompatible. The compatible versions are: Client Agent versions 3.0 and 3.5 with Server Agent versions 3.5 and Client Agent version 3.5 with Server Agent version 3.5. Re-install the replication components with the matching versions for client and server agents. [ 35,30,Client Agent version = ,Server Agent version = ] I have tried copying the file C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition\v3.5\Desktop\SqlServerCe.dll (v3.5.5692.0) to bin\debug I have also tried copying another version of SqlServerCe.dll (v3.0.5206.0) to bin\debug. But this just gives me a slightly different exception: System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeException [ 35,30 ] Is there a different setup or any different dlls that I need to use? Thanks, -Joel

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  • How to access and run field events from extension js?

    - by Dan Roberts
    I have an extension that helps in submitting forms automatically for a process at work. We are running into a problem with dual select boxes where one option is selected and then that selection changes another field's options. Since setting an option selected property to true doesn't trigger the field's onchange event I am trying to do so through code. The problem I've run into is that if I try to access or run functions on the field object from the extension, I get the error Error: uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component is not available" nsresult: "0x80040111 (NS_ERROR_NOT_AVAILABLE)" location: "JS frame :: chrome://webformsidebar/content/webformsidebar.js :: WebFormSidebar_FillProcess :: line 499" data: no] the line causing the error is... if (typeof thisField.onchange === 'function') The line right before it works just fine... thisField.options[t].selected=true; ...so I'm not sure why this is resulting in such an error. What surprises me most I guess is that checking for the existence of the function leads to an error. It feels like the problem is related to the code running in the context of the extension instead of the browser window document. If so, is there any way to call a function in the browser window context instead? Do I need to actually inject code into the page somehow? Any other ideas? Thanks

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  • Loading external SWF with masked content - need width/height

    - by AZSL
    I am loading an external swf using the SWFLoader component. The swf that is being loaded is masked so that only a portion is being shown. However, when it's loaded the actual size of the swf (loader.content.width/loader.content.height) is the complete swf including the masked area. Therefore, the loaded swf does not display properly in the itemrenderer Is there a way to to grab the size of the just the masked area as opposed to getting the size of the entire swf's contents? One item to note that is complicating the issue, is that these are swf files that have already been created and there are many of them. In some instances, the size of the stage matches up with the size of the masked area. In other instances, the stage is larger (or possibly smaller) than the masked area movieclip as well as possibly the actual size of the movieclip (w/o the mask). I am currently loading the external swf in using a Loader. Once loaded, I make a copy (screen shot) of the swf by creating a bmp of the loader.content.This is done as I don't want to have any animations being shown on screen at this moment. I am setting the size of the bmp using using loader.content.width & loader.content.height. I then set the SWFLoader.source to the bitmap.

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  • SparkDataContainer Scroller not scrolling to bottom of container

    - by AZSL
    I am using a scroller component within a custom skin for a SkinnableDataContainer. I am running into an issue in that the thumbbar of the scroller stops at about the 50% point, however this is actually the end of the scrollable area. In actuality, the thumbbar should be at the bottom of the scroll track. Here's the code for the scroller: <s:SparkSkin xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo" bottom="150" > <!-- Properties of the parent ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ --> <s:states> <s:State name="normal" /> <s:State name="disabled" /> </s:states> <!-- Metadata ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ --> <fx:Metadata> [HostComponent("spark.components.SkinnableDataContainer")] </fx:Metadata> <!-- UI components ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ --> <s:Rect left="0" right="0" bottom="0" top="0" radiusX="4" radiusY="4" > <s:fill> <s:SolidColor id="fillColor" color="0xEFEFEF"/> </s:fill> </s:Rect> <s:Group width="905" height="395" id="mainGroup"> <s:Scroller left="10" right="10" top="4" bottom="10" > <s:DataGroup id="dataGroup" /> </s:Scroller> <s:Rect left="0" right="0" top="0" bottom="0"> <s:stroke> <s:SolidColorStroke weight="1" color="0xD8D8D8"/> </s:stroke> </s:Rect> </s:Group>

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  • what kind of relationship is there between a common wall and the rooms that located next to it?

    - by siamak
    I want to know whats the Relationship between a common wall (that are located In an adjoining room ) and the rooms. As i know the relationship between a room and its walls is Composition not Aggregation (am i right ?) And according to the definition of Composition the contained object can't be shared between two containers, whereas in aggregation it is possible. now i am confused that whats the best modeling approach to represent the relationship between a common wall and the rooms located next to it ? It would be highly Appreciated if you could provide your advices with some code. |--------|--------| Approch1: (wall class ---- room class) /Composition Approach2: wall class ----- room class /Aggregation Approch3: we have a wall class and a Common wall class , Common wall class inherits from wall class adjoining room class ---- (1) Common wall class /Aggregation adjoining room class ---- (6) wall class / composition Approach4: I am a developer not a designer :) so this is my idea : class Room { private wall _firstwall ; private wall _secondtwall; private wall _thirdwall ; private wall _commonwall ; public Room( CommonWall commonwall) { _firstwall=new Wall(); _secondtwall=new Wall(); _thirdwall=new Wall(); _commonwall=commonwall; } } Class CommonWall:Wall { //... } // in somewher : static void main() { Wall _commonWall=new Wall(); Room room1=new Room(_commonWall); Room room2=new Room(_commonWall); Room [] adjacentRoom =new Room[2]{room1,room2}; } Edit 1: I think this is a clear question but just for more clarification : The point of the question is to find out whats the best pattern or approach to model a relationship for an object that is a component of two other objects in the same time. and about my example : waht i mean by a "room" ?,surely i mean an enclosed square room with 4 walls and one door.but in this case one of these walls is a common wall and is shared between two adjacent rooms.

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  • Registry remotley hacked win 7 need help tracking the perp

    - by user577229
    I was writing some .VBS code at thhe office that would allow certain file extensions to be downloaded without a warning dialog on a w7x32 system. The system I was writing this on is in a lab on a segmented subnet. All web access is via a proxy server. The only means of accessing my machine is via the internet or from within the labs MSFT AD domain. While writing and testing my code I found a message of sorts. Upon refresing the registry to verify my code changed a dword, instead the message HELLO was written and visible in regedit where the dword value wass called for. I took a screen shot and proceeded to edit my code. This same weird behavior occurred last time I was writing registry code except on another internal server. I understand that remote registry access exists for windows systems. I will block this immediately once I return to the office. What I want to know is, can I trace who made this connection? How would I do this? I suspect the cause of this is the cause of other "odd" behaviors I'm experiencing at work such as losing control of my input director master control for over an hour and unchanged code that all of a sudden fails for no logical region. These failures occur at funny times, whenver I'm about to give a demonstration of my test code. I know this sounds crazy however knowledge of the registry component makes this believable. Once the registry can be accessed, the entire system is compromised. Any help or sanity checking is appreciated.

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  • Running Solr on VPS problems

    - by Camran
    I have a VPS with Ubuntu OS. I run solr om my local machine (windows xp laptop) just fine. I have configured Jetty, and Solr just the same way as on my computer, but on the server. I have also downloaded the JRE and installed it on the server. However, whenever I try to run the start.jar file, the PuTTY terminal shows a bunch of text but gets stuck. I could pase the text here but it is very long, so unless somebody wants to see it I wont. Also, I cant view the solr admin page at all. Does anybody have experience in this kind of problem? Maybe java isn't correctly installed? It is a VPS so maybe installation is different. Thanks UPDATE: These are the last lines from the terminal, in other words, this is where it stops every time: INFO: [] webapp=null path=null params={event=firstSearcher&q=static+firstSearcher+warming+query+from+solrconfig.xml} hits=0 status=0 QTime=9 May 28, 2010 8:58:42 PM org.apache.solr.core.QuerySenderListener newSearcher INFO: QuerySenderListener done. May 28, 2010 8:58:42 PM org.apache.solr.handler.component.SpellCheckComponent$SpellCheckerListener newSearcher INFO: Loading spell index for spellchecker: default May 28, 2010 8:58:42 PM org.apache.solr.core.SolrCore registerSearcher INFO: [] Registered new searcher Searcher@63a721 main

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  • Dependency Injection: How to maintain multiple configurations?

    - by Malax
    Hi StackOverflow, Lets assume we've build a system with a DI framework which is working quite fine. This system currently uses JMS to "talk" with other systems not maintained by us. The majority of our customers like the JMS approach and uses it according to our specification. The component which does all the messaging is injected with Spring into the rest of the application. Now we got the case that one customer cannot implement the JMS solution and want to use another messaging technology. Thats not a problem because we can simply implement a messaging service using this technology and inject it in the rest of the application. But how are we supposed to handle the deployment and maintenance of the configuration? Since the application uses Spring i could imagine to check in all the configurations i have for this application and the system administrator could start the application and passing the name of the DI XML file to specify which configuration should be loaded. But... it just don't feel right. Are there any solutions for such cases available? What are the best-practices you use? I could even imagine more complex scenarios which do not contain only one service substitution... Thanks a lot!

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  • Using a UITableViewController with a small-sized table?

    - by rpj
    When using a UITableViewController, the initWithStyle: method automatically creates the underlying UITableView with - according to the documentation - "the correct dimensions". My problem is that these "correct dimensions" seem 320x460 (the iPhone's screen size), but I'm pushing this TableView/Controller pair into a UINavigationController which is itself contained in a UIView, which itself is about half the height of the screen. No frame or bounds wrangling I can come up with seems to correctly reset the table's size, and as such it's "too long", meaning there are a collection of rows that are pushed off the bottom of the screen and are not visible nor reachable by scrolling. So my question comes down to: what is the proper way to tell a UITableViewController to resize its component UITableView to a specified rectangle? Thanks! Update I've tried all the techniques suggested here to no avail, but I did find one interesting thing: if I eschew the UINavigationController altogether (which I'm not yet willing to do for production, but as an experiment), and add the table view as a direct subview of the enclosing view I mentioned, the frame size given is respected. The very moment I re-introduce the UINavigationController into the mix, no matter if it is added as a subview before or after the table view, and no matter if alloc/init it before or after the table view is added as a subview, the result is the same as it was before. I'm beginning to suspect UINavigationController isn't much of a team player... Update 2 The suggestion to check frame size after the table view on screen was a good one: turns out that the navigation controller is in fact resizing it some time in between load and display. My solution, hacky at best, has been to cache the frame given on load and to reset it if changed at the beginning of tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:. Why there you ask? Because it's the one place I found that worked, that's why! I don't consider this a solution as it's obviously improper, but for the benefit of anyone else reading, it does seem to work.

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  • Java library class to handle scheduled execution of "callbacks"?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    My program has a component - dubbed the Scheduler - that lets other components register points in time at which they want to be called back. This should work much like the Unix cron service, i. e. you tell the Scheduler "notify me at ten minutes past every full hour". I realize there are no real callbacks in Java. Here's my approach, is there a library which already does this stuff? Feel free to suggest improvements, too. Register call to Scheduler passes: a time specification containing hour, minute, second, year month, dom, dow, where each item may be unspecified, meaning "execute it every hour / minute etc." (just like crontabs) an object containing data that will tell the calling object what to do when it is notified by the Scheduler. The Scheduler does not process this data, just stores it and passes it back upon notification. a reference to the calling object Upon startup, or after a new registration request, the Scheduler starts with a Calendar object of the current system time and checks if there are any entries in the database that match this point in time. If there are, they are executed and the process starts over. If there aren't, the time in the Calendar object is incremented by one second and the entreis are rechecked. This repeats until there is one entry or more that match(es). (Discrete Event Simulation) The Scheduler will then remember that timestamp, sleep and wake every second to check if it is already there. If it happens to wake up and the time has already passed, it starts over, likewise if the time has come and the jobs have been executed. Edit: Thanks for pointing me to Quartz. I'm looking for something much smaller, however.

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  • Win32 DLL importing issues (DllMain)

    - by brady
    I have a native DLL that is a plug-in to a different application (one that I have essentially zero control of). Everything works just great until I link with an additional .lib file (links my DLL to another DLL named ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll). This file contains some additional API from the parent application that I would like to utilize. I haven't even written any code to use any of the functions exported but just linking in this new DLL is causing problems. Specifically I get the following error when I attempt to run the program: The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000025). Clock on OK to terminate the application. I believe I have read somewhere that this is typically due to a DllMain function returning FALSE. Also, the following message is written to the standard output: ERROR: Memory allocation attempted before component initialization I am almost 100% sure this error message is coming from the application and is not some type of Windows error. Looking into this a little more (aka flailing around and flipping every switch I know of) I linked with /MAP turned on and found this in the resulting .map file: 0001:000af220 ??3@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0220 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af226 ??2@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b0226 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af22c ??_U@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b022c f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af232 ??_V@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0232 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll If I undecorate those names using "undname" they give the following (same order): void __cdecl operator delete(void * __ptr64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new(unsigned __int64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new[](unsigned __int64) void __cdecl operator delete[](void * __ptr64) I am not sure I understand how anything from ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll can exist within this .map file or why my DLL is even attempting to load ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll if I don't have any code that references this DLL. Can anyone help me put this information together and find out why this isn't working? For what it's worth I have confirmed via "dumpbin" that the parent application imports the same DLL (ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll), so it is being loaded no matter what. I have also tried delay loading this DLL in my DLL but that did not change the results.

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  • Mapping composite foreign keys in a many-many relationship, with overlapping components.

    - by Kirk Broadhurst
    I have a Page table and a View table. There is a many-many relationship between these two via a PageView table. Unfortunately all of these tables need to have composite keys (for business reasons). Page has a primary key of (PageCode, Version), View has a primary key of (ViewCode, Version). PageView obviously enough has PageCode, ViewCode, and Version. The FK to Page is (PageCode, Version) and the FK to View is (ViewCode, Version) Makes sense and works, but when I try to map this in Entity framework I get Error 3021: Problem in mapping fragments...: Each of the following columns in table PageView is mapped to multiple conceptual side properties: PageView.Version is mapped to (PageView_Association.View.Version, PageView_Association.Page.Version) So clearly enough, EF is having a complain about the Version column being a common component of the two foreign keys. Obviously I could create a PageVersion and ViewVersion column in the join table, but that kind of defeats the point of the constraint, i.e. the Page and View must have the same Version value. Has anyone encountered this, and is there anything I can do get around it? Thanks!

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  • Crashing when masking an image

    - by shameer
    I am trying to mask an image with a 'mask image". its work fine at first time. but when i try one more time with in the application with same mask image . Application crashed. but when trying with another mask image it works fine. Why this happens? pls help? Console shows ": CGImageMaskCreate: invalid mask bits/component: 4294967295." (UIImage*) maskImage:(UIImage *)image withMask:(UIImage *)maskImage { CGImageRef maskRef = maskImage.CGImage; CGImageRef mask = CGImageMaskCreate(CGImageGetWidth(maskRef), CGImageGetHeight(maskRef), CGImageGetBitsPerComponent(maskRef), CGImageGetBitsPerPixel(maskRef), CGImageGetBytesPerRow(maskRef), CGImageGetDataProvider(maskRef), NULL, false); CGImageRef masked = CGImageCreateWithMask([image CGImage], mask); UIImage *img2=[UIImage imageWithCGImage:masked]; CGImageRelease(maskRef); CGImageRelease(mask); CGImageRelease(masked); return img2; } fun1() { view.image=[self maskImage:image1 withMask:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image2.png"]]; } fun2() { view.image=[self maskImage:image1 withMask:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image2.png"]]; view.image=[self maskImage:image1 withMask:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image3.png"]]; } fun3() { view.image=[self maskImage:image1 withMask:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image2.png"]]; view.image=[self maskImage:image1 withMask:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image2.png"]]; } When calling fun1 and fun2 apllication works fine. Application crashing when calling fun3.

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  • xstream and ibm j9 sdk incompatibilities on linux

    - by Yoni
    I encountered an incompatibility with xstream and IBM J9 jdk (the 32bits version). Everything worked fine when I used sun jdk but fails on IBM jdk (on linux only. on windows it's ok with both jdks). When debugging, the error appears to be that xstream uses a java.util.TreeSet internally but the set's iterator returns elements in the wrong order (I know this sounds very strange, but this is the behavior that I saw). Googling for related bugs didn't give any meaningful results I tried upgrading pretty much any component possible but no luck. I tried the following configurations: ibm jdk 1.6 SR 7 (bundled with WebSphere 7.0.0.9), xstream 1.2.2 ibm jdk 1.6 SR 8, xstream 1.2.2 ibm jdk 1.6 SR 8, xstream 1.3.1 (I tried those both with tomcat and with WebSphere server, so actually there are 6 configurations using IBM jdk). The code in question is in class com.thoughtworks.xstream.core.DefaultConverterLookup, around line 44. It uses an iterator from class com.thoughtworks.xstream.core.util.PrioritizedList, which uses a custom comparator, but all the comparator does is compare integers (the priorities). Has anyone seen this before? Any idea what can I do or change?

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  • Our GUI Situation

    - by shawn-harrison
    These days, any decent Windows desktop application must perform well and look good under the following conditions: 1) XP and Vista and Windows 7. 2) 32 bit and 64 bit. 3) With and without Themes. 4) With and without Aero. 5) At 96 and 120 and perhaps custom DPIs. 6) One or more monitors (screens). 7) Each OS has it's own preferred Font. Oh My! What is a lowly little Windows desktop application developer to do :(. I'm hoping to get a thread started with suggestions on how to deal with this Gui dilemma. First off, I'm on Delphi 7. a) Does Delphi 2010 bring anything new to the table to help with this situation? b) Should we pick an aftermarket component suite and rely on them to solve all these problems? c) Should we go with an aftermarket skinning engine? d) Perhaps a more html type gui is the way to go. Can we make a relatively complex gui app with html that doesn't require using a browser? (prefer to keep it form based) e) Should we just knuckle down and code through each one of these scenarios and quit bitching about it? f) And finally, how in the world are we supposed to test all these conditions? thanks, shawnH

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  • Can the Singleton be replaced by Factory?

    - by lostiniceland
    Hello Everyone There are already quite some posts about the Singleton-Pattern around, but I would like to start another one on this topic since I would like to know if the Factory-Pattern would be the right approach to remove this "anti-pattern". In the past I used the singleton quite a lot, also did my fellow collegues since it is so easy to use. For example, the Eclipse IDE or better its workbench-model makes heavy usage of singletons as well. It was due to some posts about E4 (the next big Eclipse version) that made me start to rethink the singleton. The bottom line was that due to this singletons the dependecies in Eclipse 3.x are tightly coupled. Lets assume I want to get rid of all singletons completely and instead use factories. My thoughts were as follows: hide complexity less coupling I have control over how many instances are created (just store the reference I a private field of the factory) mock the factory for testing (with Dependency Injection) when it is behind an interface In some cases the factories can make more than one singleton obsolete (depending on business logic/component composition) Does this make sense? If not, please give good reasons for why you think so. An alternative solution is also appreciated. Thanks Marc

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  • java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap

    - by aelshereay
    I create a simple webapp using tomcat 6, spring 2.5.6 and maven. The problem is when I boot up tomcat, I am getting the following errors: SEVERE: StandardWrapper.Throwable java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/springframework/ui/ModelMap ... Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap The ModelMap class does exist in spring-2.5.6.jar and spring-context-2.5.6.jar, I also have some other spring jars. All of them are being deployed to tomcat correctly, when I check the application WEB-INF (deployed to tomcat) I found all those jars there! I have only one @Controller that has a @RequestMapping("/home.htm") showForm(ModelMap model) method. My applicationContext is quite simple: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:dwr="http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-2.5.xsd http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr-3.0.xsd" default-autowire="byName"> <context:component-scan base-package="org.myapp"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"/> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"></property> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/view/"></property> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"></property> </bean> </beans>

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  • Sencha touch 2/ app workflow with navigation view

    - by eplatonov
    I am trying to understand how can I implement the same functionality which provides navigation view in sencha touch 2, but .... Each item of the 'Ext.NavigationView' component should have it's own unique set of 'navigationBar' elements. I mean set of buttons, for example. I know that I can do something like this: this.getMain().getNavigationBar().rightBox.removeAll(); this.getMain().getNavigationBar().rightBox.add(this.getSettingButton()); //where 'getSettingButton' predefined by me a button And do this action each time when 'push' event happens (clear 'navigationBar' and add appropriate set of buttons) Of course, I even can implement 'Ext.Panel' with 'layout: card' and set of 'Ext.panel' elements in the 'items' property, each of which will be have unique 'toolbar'. To control the behavior I can use 'setActiveItem' method. But, I think each of these approaches is a bit weird, isn't it? I expected that would be much more natural approach to implement it. Most likely I don't know what I need. Confirm my doubts. What is the best way to do it.

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  • Using ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping with @Controller and extending AbstractController

    - by whiskerz
    Hey there, actually I thought I was trying something really simple. ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping sounded great to produce a small spring webapp using a very lean configuration. Just annotate the Controller with @Controller, have it extend AbstractController and the configuration shouldn't need more than this <context:component-scan base-package="test.mypackage.controller" /> <bean id="urlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.support.ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping" /> to resolve my requests and map them to my controllers. I've mapped the servlet to "*.spring", and calling <approot>/hello.spring All I ever get is an error stating that no mapping was found. If however I extend the MultiActionController, and do something like <approot>/hello/hello.spring it works. Which somehow irritates me, as I would have thought that if that is working, why didn't my first try? Does anyone have any idea? The two controllers I used looked like this @Controller public class HelloController extends AbstractController { @Override protected ModelAndView handleRequestInternal(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } } and @Controller public class HelloController extends MultiActionController { public ModelAndView hello(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } }

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  • New to Android: Dynamically changing views

    - by Josiah Kiehl
    I'm trying to learn how to build apps for Android. The first simple app, which will become a component of a bigger app I hope to build, is to have a button on the screen where, when tapped, it adds something new to the view. For instance: Imagine a layout that only has a button: [Create!] When that button, the view gets a new row added to it: [Create!] A Something! Upon subsequent presses, more rows are added [Create!] A Something! A Something! And so on. I've made a LinearLayout and placed the button in it, and have attached a click listener to it. That all works great. What I can't figure out is how to get a handle on the LinearLayout in the onClick function with which I'll addView() the new TextView that says "A Something!" Am I on the right track? What basic thing am I missing? Thanks!

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  • Memory leak when changing Text field of a Scintilla object.

    - by PlaZmaZ
    I have a relatively large program that I'm optimizing for ASCII input files around 10-80mB in size. The program reads every line of the file into a stringbuilder and then sets the Text field of the ScintillNET object to the stringbuilder. The stringbuilder is then set to null. private void ReloadFile(string sFile) { txt_log.ResetText(); try { StringBuilder sLine = new StringBuilder(""); using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(sFile)) { while (true) { string temp = sr.ReadLine(); if (temp == null) break; sLine.AppendLine(temp); } sr.Close(); } txt_log.Text = sLine.ToString(); sLine = null; } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(this, "An error occurred opening this file.\n\n" + ex.Message, "File Open Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } GC.Collect(); } The program has an option to reload or open a file. This is irrelevant, as any call to txt_log.Text seems to not get rid of the previous memory used for the .Text field. Commenting out the txt_log.Text line gives proper memory behavior. The GC.Collect() line seems pointless, and I have tried both with and without it. Is there something I'm missing here? I HIGHLY doubt it's a problem with the ScintillaNET component itself--rather something in this code.

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  • Oracle command hangs when using view for "WHILE x IN..." subquery

    - by Calvin Fisher
    I'm working on a web service that fetches data from an oracle data source in chunks and passes it back to an indexing/search tool in XML format. I'm the C#/.NET guy, and am kind of fuzzy on parts of Oracle. Our Oracle team gave us the following script to run, and it works well: SELECT ROWID, [columns] FROM [table] WHERE ROWID IN ( SELECT ROWID FROM ( SELECT ROWID FROM [table] WHERE ROWID > '[previous_batch_last_rowid]' ORDER BY ROWID ) WHERE ROWNUM <= 10000 ) ORDER BY ROWID 10,000 rows is an arbitrary but reasonable chunk size and ROWID is sufficiently unique for our purposes to use as a UID since each indexing run hits only one table at a time. Bracketed values are filled in programmatically by the web service. Now we're going to start adding views to the indexing, each of which will union a few separate tables. Since ROWID would no longer function as a unique identifier, they added a column to the views (VIEW_UNIQUE_ID) that concatenates the ROWIDs from the component tables to construct a UID for each union. But this script does not work, even though it follows the same form as the previous one: SELECT VIEW_UNIQUE_ID, [columns] FROM [view] WHERE VIEW_UNIQUE_ID IN ( SELECT VIEW_UNIQUE_ID FROM ( SELECT VIEW_UNIQUE_ID FROM [view] WHERE ROWID > '[previous_batch_last_view_unique_id]' ORDER BY VIEW_UNIQUE_ID ) WHERE ROWNUM <= 10000 ) ORDER BY VIEW_UNIQUE_ID It hangs indefinitely with no response from the Oracle server. I've waited 20+ minutes and the SQLTools dialog box indicating a running query remains the same, with no progress or updates. I've tested each subquery independently and each works fine and takes a very short amount of time (<= 1 second), so the view itself is sound. But as soon as the inner two SELECT queries are added with "WHERE VIEW_UNIQUE_ID IN...", it hangs. Why doesn't this query work for views? In what important way are they not interchangeable here?

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  • PPR in tr:selectOneChoice does not work

    - by Nhut Le
    Hi, I have a simple testing page that test my PPR on a selectOneChoice component. when select a value from selectOnechoice 1, the selected value will display on a output label and also reset the selected value and the other selectOneChoice. However, it prints the selected values to the label correctly but it can't set the selected value for the other selectOneChoice. and Here are my page and my value change event method. <tr:form id="nhutForm"> <tr:selectOneChoice id="one" value="#{nhutTestBean.one}" autoSubmit="true" immediate="true" valueChangeListener="#{nhutTestBean.onMyValueChanged}"> <tr:selectItem label="0" value="0"/> <tr:selectItem label="1" value="1"/> <tr:selectItem label="2" value="2"/> <tr:selectItem label="3" value="3"/> </tr:selectOneChoice> <tr:selectOneChoice id="two" value="#{nhutTestBean.two}" partialTriggers="one"> <f:selectItems value="#{nhutTestBean.myList}"/> </tr:selectOneChoice> <tr:outputText id="nhutTextBox" value="hello: #{nhutTestBean.output}" partialTriggers="one"/></tr:form> and my valueChangeEvent method: public void onMyValueChanged(ValueChangeEvent event) { this.setOutput((String)event.getNewValue()); this.setTwo((String)event.getNewValue()); } One thing I realize is that it calls my setTwo twice, the first the set the correct values, but the second time set it to null so that nothing would be selected for the two drop down box. please help. thank you so much.

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  • How do I ensure only the headers are shown for the first item in an ItemsControl in WPF?

    - by Dan Ryan
    I am using MVVM binding an ObservableCollection of children to an ItemsControl. The ItemsControl contains a UserControl used to style the UI for the children. <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Documents}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <View:DocumentView Margin="0, 10, 0, 0" /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I want to show a header row for the contents of the ItemsControl but only want to show this once at the top (not for every child). How can I implement this behaviour in the DocumentView user control? Fyi I am using a Grid layout to style the child rows: <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="34"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="100"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="60" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.Row="0" Text="Should only show this at the top"></TextBlock> <Image Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Height="24" Width="24" Source="/Beazley.Documents.Presentation;component/Icons/error.png"></Image> <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Name="ContentTypes" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.ContentTypes}" SelectedValue="{Binding ContentType}"/> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" Text="{Binding Path=FileName}"/> <Button Grid.Column="3" Grid.Row="1" Command="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.RemoveFile}" CommandParameter="{Binding}">Remove</Button> </Grid>

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  • Passing a URL as a URL parameter

    - by Andrea
    I am implementing OpenId login in a CakePHP application. At a certain point, I need to redirect to another action, while preserving the information about the OpenId identity, which is itself a URL (with GET parameters), for instance https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=31g2iy321i3y1idh43q7tyYgdsjhd863Es How do I pass this data? The first attempt would be function openid() { ... $this->redirect(array('controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'openid_create', $openid)); } but the obvious problem is that this completely messes up the way CakePHP parses URL parameters. I'd need to do either of the following: 1) encode the URL in a CakePHP friendly manner for passing it, and decoding it after that, or 2) pass the URL as a POST parameter but I don't know how to do this. EDIT: In response to comments, I should be more clear. I am using the OpenId component, and I have a working OpenId implementation. What I need to do is to link OpenId with an existing user system. When a new user logs in via OpenId, I ask for more details, and then create a new user with this data. The problem is that I have to keep the OpenId URL throughout this process.

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