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  • Always send certain values with an ajax request/post

    - by DZittersteyn
    I'm building a system that displays a list of user, and on selection of a user requests some form of password. These values are saved in a hidden field on the page, and need to be sent with every request as a form of authentication. (I'm aware of the MITM-vulnerability that lies herein, but it's a very low-key system, so security is not a large concern). Now I need to send these values with each and every request, to auth the currently 'logged in' user. I'd like to automate this, via ajaxSetup, however i'm running into some issues. My first try was: init_user_auth: function(){ $.ajaxSetup({ data: { 'user' : site_user.selected_user_id(), 'passcode': site_user.selected_user_pc(), 'barcode' : site_user.selected_user_bc() } }); }, However, as I should have known, this reads the values once, at the time of the call to ajaxSetup, and never rereads them. What I need is a way to actually call the functions every time an ajax-call is made. I'm currently trying to understand what is happening here: https://groups.google.com/forum/?fromgroups=#!topic/jquery-dev/OBcEfgvTJ9I, however through the flamewar and very low-level stuff going on there, I'm not exactly sure I get what is going on. Is this the way to proceed, or should I just face facts and manually add login-info to each ajax-call?

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  • Running a process at the Windows 7 Welcome Screen

    - by peelman
    So here's the scoop: I wrote a tiny C# app a while back that displays the hostname, ip address, imaged date, thaw status (we use DeepFreeze), current domain, and the current date/time, to display on the welcome screen of our Windows 7 lab machines. This was to replace our previous information block, which was set statically at startup and actually embedded text into the background, with something a little more dynamic and functional. The app uses a Timer to update the ip address, deepfreeze status, and clock every second, and it checks to see if a user has logged in and kills itself when it detects such a condition. If we just run it, via our startup script (set via group policy), it holds the script open and the machine never makes it to the login prompt. If we use something like the start or cmd commands to start it off under a separate shell/process, it runs until the startup script finishes, at which point Windows seems to clean up any and all child processes of the script. We're currently able to bypass that using psexec -s -d -i -x to fire it off, which lets it persist after the startup script is completed, but can be incredibly slow, adding anywhere between 5 seconds and over a minute to our startup time. We have experimented with using another C# app to start the process, via the Process class, using WMI Calls (Win32_Process and Win32_ProcessStartup) with various startup flags, etc, but all end with the same result of the script finishing and the info block process getting killed. I tinkered with rewriting the app as a service, but services were never designed to interact with the desktop, let alone the login window, and getting things operating in the right context never really seemed to work out. So for the question: Does anybody have a good way to accomplish this? Launch a task so that it would be independent of the startup script and run on top of the welcome screen?

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  • Is a web-server (e.g servlets) a good solution for an IM server?

    - by John
    I'm looking at a new app, broadly speaking an IM application with a strong client-server model - all communications go through a server so they can be logged centrally. The server will be Java in some form, clients could at this point be anything from a .NET Desktop app to Flex/Silverlight, to a simple web-interface using JS/AJAX. I had anticipated doing the server using standard J2EE so I get a thread-safe, multi-user server for 'free'... to make things simple let's say using Servlets (but in practice SpringMVC would be likely). This all seemed very neat but I'm concerned if the stateless nature of Servlets is the best approach. If my memory of servlets (been a year or two) is right, each time a client sent a HTTP request, typically a new message entered by the user, the servlet could not assume it had the user/chat in memory and might have to get it from the DB... regardless it has to look it up. Then it either has to use some PUSH system to inform other members of the chat, or cache that there are new messages, for other clients who poll the server using AJAX or similar - and when they poll it again has to lookup the chat, including new messages, and send the new data. I'm wondering if a better system would be the server is running core Java, and implements a socket-based communication with clients. This allows much more immediate data transfer and is more flexible if say the IM client included some game you could play. But then you're writing a custom server and sockets don't sound very friendly to a browser-based client on current browsers. Am I missing some big piece of the puzzle here, it kind of feels like I am? Perhaps a better way to ask the question would simply be "if the client was browser-based using HTML/JS and had to run on IE7+,FF2+ (i.e no HTML5), how would you implement the server?" edit: if you are going to suggest using XMPP, I have been trying to get my head around this in another question, so please consider if that's a more appropriate place to discuss this specifically.

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  • Automate Field Entry in outside site

    - by JClaspill
    I am attempting to automate the entry of data into form fields. The problem is that this data (user/pass) is not known by the user. I'm not expressly hiding it from them, but they also don't need to know it. This is used to automate logins on several of our outside partner websites, who do not want our agents knowing their passwords. Sadly, most of these sites do not have any APIs I can work with... so I have to get the user logged in. I tried using an iframe and javascript, but I ran into the issue of security permissions denying it access. And sadly, our clients do not have access to add our domain to their sites(they seem to be 3rd party). Requirements: - Display webpage - Automatically enter data into fields Would be nice: - Automate signin similar to form.submit() - Flash/AJAX support. These seem to give the VB app issues. Is there a way to do this via javascript/html, and if not, do you have any recommendations for C#/php/asp.net options? PS: I am not sure what this techinque is called, so google isn't helping me it seems. Please set me straight on the terminology of what I am actually trying to accomplish.

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  • Is Storing Cookies in a Database Safe?

    - by viatropos
    If I use mechanize, I can, for instance, create a new google analytics profile for a website. I do this by programmatically filling out the login form and storing the cookies in the database. Then, for at least until the cookie expires, I can access my analytics admin panel without having to enter my username and password again. Assuming you can't create a new analytics profile any other way (with OpenAuth or any of that, I don't think it works for actually creating a new Google Analytics profile, the Analytics API is for viewing the data, but I need to create an new analytics profile), is storing the cookie in the database a bad thing? If I do store the cookie in the database, it makes it super easy to programatically login to Google Analytics without the user ever having to go to the browser (maybe the app has functionality that says "user, you can schedule a hook that creates a new anaytics profile for each new domain you create, just enter your credentials once and we'll keep you logged in and safe"). Otherwise I have to keep transferring around emails and passwords which seems worse. So is storing cookies in the database safe?

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  • User to be validated against nested security groups in Windows.

    - by user412272
    Hi, This is my first post here and after much looking around I have come here with my question. Will really appreciate a fast response. I am faced with a problem to validate user credentials of the currently logged on user against a group in Windows. The user membership to a group can be through other groups also ie nested membership. Eg. User U is a part of group G1. Group G1 is a part of another group G2. The requirement is that when the user is validated against group G2, the validations should succeed. The user can be a local or AD user but the group will always be a local group ( or domain local group if created directly on a DC). I have tried using WindowsPrincipal.IsInRole() method, but it seems to be checking only for direct membership to a group. I also tried UserPrincipal.GetAuthorizationGroups() for the current user, but it also doesnt seem to be doing recursive search. I am posting a code snippet of the working code below, but this code is taking much more than acceptable time. bool CheckUserPermissions(string groupName) { WindowsIdentity currentUserIdentity = System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent(); bool found = false; PrincipalContext context= new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Machine); GroupPrincipal group = GroupPrincipal.FindByIdentity(context, IdentityType.Name, groupName); if (group!= null) { foreach (Principal p in group.GetMembers(true)) { if (p.Sid == currentUserIdentity.User) { found = true; break; } } group.Dispose(); } return found; }

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  • PHP Multi-Domain Sessions; ini_set Not Working?

    - by SumWon
    Hello, I'm trying to set it up so if you log in to my website the session carries over to all sub-domains of my website. For example, if you go to domain.com and log in, then go to sub.domain.com, you'll already be logged in at sub.domain.com. To my understanding, you would want to use ini_set('session.cookie_domain','.domain.com') and then session_start(), then set your session variables, but this isn't working. Example of what I'm doing: Code for domain.com: <?php ini_set('session.cookie_domain','.domain.com'); session_start(); $_SESSION['variable'] = 1; ?> Code for sub.domain.com: <?php session_start(); echo $_SESSION['variable']; ?> But $_SESSION['variable'] isn't set. I've also tried using ini_set() in the sub.domain.com code, but it made no difference. I've verified that setting session.cookie_domain is working by using ini_get(). What am I doing wrong? Thanks!

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  • Code thinks Datagrid footer textbox is empty...

    - by The Sheek Geek
    Hello All, I am working on an .net (C#) web application. Recently a defect came my way that stated that when two users were logged into the application at the same time they both could not update values without one refreshing the page. When I looked into the issue I discovered that the author of the code has used static datasets. I changed the datasets to not be static and everything works great. However, This issue spans many pages in the application and I must fix it everywhere. On some of these pages the application uses datasets to bind data to datagrids. The datagrids are populated with the information in the dataset and the footer contains some textboxes and an add button to add extra rows. Here is where the problem starts: When the page was using static datasets and the user attempted to add a row through the interface everything worked fine. However, when I changed it to use datasets that were not static (they are loaded every time the page loads) and the user attempts to add a row, the code thinks that the textbox is empty (discovered when debugging even though I can see the text that I entered) and empty field validation fails and a message is displayed. Can someone please tell me why on Earth this is happening? Why does it see the text when the dataset is static (the dataset NEVER populates the foot row) and not see the text when it is not static? Some insight would be awesome! Thanks in advance!

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  • Core Data Errors vs Exceptions Part 3

    - by John Gallagher
    My question is similar to this one. Background I'm creating a large number of objects in a core data store using NSOperations to speed things up. I've followed all the Core Data multithreading rules - I've got a single persistent store coordinator and a managed object context per thread that on save is merging back to the main managed object context. The Problem When the number of threads running at once is more than 1, I get the exception logged on save of my core data store: NSExceptionHandler has recorded the following exception: NSInternalInconsistencyException -- optimistic locking failure What I've Tried My code that creates new entities is quite complex - it makes entities that have relationships with other entities that could be being created in a separate thread. If I replace my object creation routine with some very simple code just making non-related entries, everything works perfectly. Initially, as well as the exceptions, I was getting a save error saying core data couldn't save due to the merge failing. I read the docs and realised I needed a merge policy on the Managed Object Context I was saving to. I set this up and as this question states, the save error goes away, but the exception remains. My Question Do I need to worry about these exceptions? If I do need to get rid of the exceptions, any ideas on how I do it?

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  • Obj-C Sending Messages Between Classes

    - by user544359
    I'm a newbie in iPhone Programming. I'm trying to send a message from one view controller to another. The idea is that viewControllerA takes information from the user and sends it to viewControllerB. viewControllerB is then supposed to display the information in a label. viewControllerA.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface viewControllerA : UIViewController { int num; } -(IBAction)do; @end viewControllerA.m #import "viewControllerA.h" #import "viewControllerB.h" @implementation viewControllerA - (IBAction)do { //initializing int for example num = 2; viewControllerB *viewB = [[viewControllerB alloc] init]; [viewB display:num]; [viewB release]; //viewA is presented as a ModalViewController, so it dismisses itself to return to the //original view, i know it is not efficient [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end viewControllerB.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface viewControllerB : UIViewController { IBOutlet UILabel *label; } - (IBAction)openA; - (void)display:(NSInteger)myNum; @end viewControllerB.m #import "viewControllerB.h" #import "viewControllerA.h" @implementation viewControllerB - (IBAction)openA { //presents viewControllerA when a button is pressed viewControllerA *viewA = [[viewControllerA alloc] init]; [self presentModalViewController:viewA animated:YES]; } - (void)display:(NSInteger)myNum { NSLog(@"YES"); [label setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", myNum]]; } @end YES is logged successfully, but the label's text does not change. I have made sure that all of my connections in Interface Builder are correct, in fact there are other (IBAction) methods in my program that change the text of this very label, and all of those other methods work perfectly... Any ideas, guys? You don't need to give me a full solution, any bits of information will help. Thanks.

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  • How to send java.util.logging to log4j?

    - by matt b
    I have an existing application which does all of its logging against log4j. We use a number of other libraries that either also use log4j, or log against Commons Logging, which ends up using log4j under the covers in our environment. One of our dependencies even logs against slf4j, which also works fine since it eventually delegates to log4j as well. Now, I'd like to add ehcache to this application for some caching needs. Previous versions of ehcache used commons-logging, which would have worked perfectly in this scenario, but as of version 1.6-beta1 they have removed the dependency on commons-logging and replaced it with java.util.logging instead. Not really being familiar with the built-in JDK logging available with java.util.logging, is there an easy way to have any log messages sent to JUL logged against log4j, so I can use my existing configuration and set up for any logging coming from ehcache? Looking at the javadocs for JUL, it looks like I could set up a bunch of environment variables to change which LogManager implementation is used, and perhaps use that to wrap log4j Loggers in the JUL Logger class. Is this the correct approach? Kind of ironic that a library's use of built-in JDK logging would cause such a headache when (most of) the rest of the world is using 3rd party libraries instead.

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  • how to fetch data from Plist in Label

    - by SameSung Vs Iphone
    I have a RegistrationController screen to store email-id ,password,DOB,Height,Weight and logininController screen to match email-id and password to log-in purpose. Now In some third screen I have to fetch only the Height,Weight from the plist of the logged-in user to display it on the label.now if I Store the values of email-id and password in from LoginViewController in string and call it in the new screen to match if matches then gives Height,Weight ..if it corrects then how to fetch Height,Weight from the plist of the same one. how can i fetch from the stored plist in a string... the code which i used to match in LoginController -(NSArray*)readFromPlist { NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *documentPlistPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"XYZ.plist"]; NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithContentsOfFile:documentPlistPath]; NSArray *valueArray = [dict objectForKey:@"title"]; return valueArray; } - (void)authenticateCredentials { NSMutableArray *plistArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[self readFromPlist]]; for (int i = 0; i< [plistArray count]; i++) { id object = [plistArray objectAtIndex:i]; if ([object isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) { NSDictionary *objDict = (NSDictionary *)object; if ([[objDict objectForKey:@"pass"] isEqualToString:emailTextFeild.text] && [[objDict objectForKey:@"title"] isEqualToString:passwordTextFeild.text]) { NSLog(@"Correct credentials"); return; } NSLog(@"INCorrect credentials"); } else { NSLog(@"Error! Not a dictionary"); } } }

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  • Receiving UDP on different Android phones gives different results

    - by user1868982
    I am willing to create a server and client program on my android mobile devices. The devices communicate with each other on the same wifi network, therefore, some simple scanning mechanism must be implemented - The client phones search for a server phone through some kind of broadcast. What I did: My protocol - the client phone broadcasts a message port p on the wifi, the server listens on port p. when the server gets the broadcast message it sends a message back, therefore discovering itself to the client. My code - I have opened a broadcast socket on my app, it sends a broadcast message. Meanwhile there is a python script on my PC that listens and replies - I use python so that my testing will be easier - Wireshark on the PC and I can see everything. What happens: When I use one of my Galaxy S phones - it works and I get a response. When I use the other Galaxy S phone - it doesn't work. Now this is what I know: The phone that works actually has Nexus ROM on it Ver. 4.1.1 The phone that doesn't work has 2.3.3 regular galaxy ROM The python code says it receives both of the broadcasts sent from both phones, and replies to both of them without raising any exception. So far I was thought the problem may be 1. the older version'd phone. 2. the windows firewall 3. the router firewall So I have opened Wireshark, and Indeed I saw that both phones are sending their broadcasts - it was logged on Wireshark. But the python script only responded to the first one. So this is why 1 & 3 are irrelevant - if the router firewall was blocking my UDP I would have still seen the python server response, same with the older versioned phone. To get rid of 2 i just disabled the windows firewall - still same problem. Does anyone has a clue to why this effect might happen? Thanks!

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  • OOP + MVC advice on Member Controller

    - by dan727
    Hi, I am trying to follow good practices as much as possible while I'm learning using OOP in an MVC structure, so i'm turning to you guys for a bit of advice on something which is bothering me a little here. I am writing a site where I will have a number of different forms for members to fill in (mainly data about themselves), so i've decided to set up a Member controller where all of the forms relating to the member are represented as individual methods. This includes login/logout methods, as well as editing profile data etc. In addition to these methods, i also have a method to generate the member's control panel widget, which is a constant on every page on the site while the member is logged in. The only thing is, all of the other methods in this controller all have the same dependencies and form templates, so it would be great to generate all this in the constructor, but as the control_panel method does not have the same dependencies etc, I cannot use the constructor for this purpose, and instead I have to redeclare the dependencies and same template snippets in each method. This obviously isn't ideal and doesn't follow DRY principle, but I'm wondering what I should do with the control_panel method, as it is related to the member and that's why I put it in that controller in the first place. Am I just over-complicating things here and does it make sense to just move the control_panel method into a simple helper class? Here are the basic methods of the controller: class Member_Controller extends Website_Controller { public function __construct() { parent::__construct(); if (request::is_ajax()) { $this->auto_render = FALSE; // disable auto render } } public static function control_panel() { //load control panel view $panel = new View('user/control_panel'); return $panel; } public function login() { } public function register() { } public function profile() { } public function household() { } public function edit_profile() { } public function logout() { } }

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  • redirecting _top page from asp:login control in iframe onloggedin

    - by jumpdart
    So yeah, Im building a little authenticated content(.NET app) to a large html site managed by another group. They are only comfortable with managing html so all my app content will be contained in iframes. Everything is working fine as far as navigation and calling services and whatnot but i cant bust out of the frame with my asp:login control. Im trying to register some JS on logged in but with no success. Thanks protected void login_LoggedIn(object sender, EventArgs e) { StringBuilder strScript = new StringBuilder(); strScript.Append("<script language='javascript'>"); string sHome = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["AppHomePageURL"].ToString(); //strScript.AppendFormat("window.navigate('{0}');", sHome); //strScript.AppendFormat("parent.location.href='{0}';", sHome); //strScript.AppendFormat("window.open('{0}', '_top', '', false);", sHome); strScript.AppendFormat("top.location.href='{0}';", sHome); strScript.Append("WTF_let_me_outa_here();"); strScript.Append("</script>"); ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(typeof(Page), "LoginGO", strScript.ToString()); }

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  • Core Data to-many relationship in code

    - by Jan Bezemer
    I have three entities: Session, User and Test. A session has 0-many users and a user can perform 0-6 tests. (I say 0 but in the real application always at least 1 is required, at least 1 user for a session and at least 1 test for a user. But I say 0 to express an empty start.) All entities have their own specific data attributes too. A user has a name, A session has a name, a test has six values to be filled in by the user, and so on. But my issue is with the relationships. How do I set multiple users and have them added to one session (same goes for multiple tests for one user). How do I show the content in a right way? How do I show a session that has multiple users and these users having completed multiple tests? Here's my code so far with regard to issue 1: Session *session = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Session" inManagedObjectContext:context]; session.name = @"Session 1"; User *users = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:context]; users.age = [NSNumber numberWithInt:28]; users.session = session; //sessie.users = users; [sessie addUserObject:users]; With regard to issue 2: I can log the session, but I can't get the user(s) logged from a session. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Session" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSArray *fetchedObjects = [context executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; for (Session *info in fetchedObjects) { NSLog(@"Name: %@", info.name); NSLog(@"Having problems with this: %@",info.user); //User *details = info.user; //NSLog(@"User: %@", details.age); }

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  • Change cookies when doing jQuery.ajax requests in Chrome Extensions

    - by haskellguy
    I have wrote a plugin for facebook that sends data to testing-fb.local. The request goes through if the user is logged in. Here is the workflow: User logs in from testing-fb.local Cookies are stored When $.ajax() are fired from the Chrome extension Chrome extension listen with chrome.webRequest.onBeforeSendHeaders Chrome extension checks for cookies from chrome.cookies.get Chrome changes the Set-Cookies header to be sent And the request goes through. I wrote this part of code that shoud be this: function getCookies (callback) { chrome.cookies.get({url:"https://testing-fb.local", name: "connect.sid"}, function(a){ return callback(a) }) } chrome.webRequest.onBeforeSendHeaders.addListener( function(details) { getCookies(function(a){ // Here something happens }) }, {urls: ["https://testing-fb.local/*"]}, ['blocking']); Here is my manifest.json: { "name": "test-fb", "version": "1.0", "manifest_version": 1, "description": "testing", "permissions": [ "cookies", "webRequest", "tabs", "http://*/*", "https://*/*" ], "background": { "scripts": ["background.js"] }, "content_scripts": [ { "matches": ["http://*.facebook.com/*", "https://*.facebook.com/*"], "exclude_matches" : [ "*://*.facebook.com/ajax/*", "*://*.channel.facebook.tld/*", "*://*.facebook.tld/pagelet/generic.php/pagelet/home/morestories.php*", "*://*.facebook.tld/ai.php*" ], "js": ["jquery-1.8.3.min.js", "allthefunctions.js"] } ] } In allthefunction.js I have the $.ajax calls, and in background.js is where I put the code above which however looks not to run.. In summary, I have not clear: What I should write in Here something happens If this strategy is going to work Where should I put this code?

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  • MVC2 AJAX - determining UpdateTargetId based on the returned data

    - by DanielJW
    The scenario: I'm creating a login form for an MVC2 application. How i'm doing it: The form submits to an MVC2 action which validates the username/password. If it fails validation the action returns the form (a partial view) for the user to try again. If it passes validation the action returns the page the user was visiting before they logged in (a view). What i want to happen: 1 - when the form is submitted and the user validates successfully, The returned result should replace the current page (like what happens if you don't set an UpdateTargetId). 2 - When the form is submitted and the user fails validation, the returned result should replace the form (like what happens if you set the UpdateTargetID to the form's containing element). The problem: I can make both of those things work, but not at the same time. I can either have it always replace the current page, or always just replace the contents of the UpdateTargetId element. But I need it to be able to do either depending on whether the user successfully validated or not. What I need The ideal solution would be to be able to examine the result of the ajax request and determine whether to use the UpdateTargetId (replacing just the form) or not (replacing the whole page). I expect it would involve some work with jquery (assuming it's possible) but i'm not really that great with jquery yet to figure out how to do it myself. If it can't be done this way I'm also open to other methods/solutions for making it work in a similar fashion. Thanks in advance ..

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  • How to insert rows in a many-to-many relationship

    - by GSound
    Hello, I am having an issue trying to save into an intermediate table. I am new on Rails and I have spent a couple of hours on this but can't make it work, maybe I am doing wrong the whole thing. Any help will be appreciated. =) The app is a simple book store, where a logged-in user picks books and then create an order. This error is displayed: NameError in OrderController#create uninitialized constant Order::Orderlist These are my models: class Book < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :orderlists has_many :orders, :through => :orderlists end class Order < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_many :orderlists has_many :books, :through => :orderlists end class OrderList < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :book belongs_to :order end This is my Order controller: class OrderController < ApplicationController def add if session[:user] book = Book.find(:first, :conditions => ["id = #{params[:id]}"]) if book session[:list].push(book) end redirect_to :controller => "book" else redirect_to :controller => "user" end end def create if session[:user] @order = Order.new if @order.save session[:list].each do |b| @order.orderlists.create(:book => b) # <-- here is my prob I cant make it work end end end redirect_to :controller => "book" end end Thnx in advance! Manuel

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  • Best method to cache objects in PHP?

    - by Martin Bean
    Hi, I'm currently developing a large site that handles user registrations. A social networking website for argument's sake. However, I've noticed a lag in page loads and deciphered that it is the creation of objects on pages that's slowing things down. For example, I have a Member object, that when instantiated with an ID passed as a construct parameter, it queries the database for that members' row in the members database table. Not bad, but this is created each time a page is loaded; and called more than once when say, calling an array of that particular members' friends, as a new Member object is created for each friend. So on a single page I can have upwards of seven of the same object, but containing different properties. What I'm wanting to do is to find a way to reduce the database load, and to allow persist objects between page loads. For example, the logged in user's object to be created on login (which I can do) but then stored somewhere for retrieval so I don't have to keep re-creating the object between page loads. What is the best solution for this? I've had a look at Memcache, but with it being a third-party module I can't have the web host install it on this occasion. What are my alternatives, and/or best practices in my case? Thanks in advance.

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  • Is there a way to sync (two way) tables betwen a mysql server and a local MS Access?

    - by Kailen
    Help me figure out a solution to a (not so unique) problem. My research group has gps devices attached to migratory animals. Every once in a while, a research tech will be within range of an animal and will get the chance to download all the logged points. Each individual spits out a single dbf and new locations are just appended to the end (so the file is just cumulative). These data need to be shared among a research group. Everyone else (besides me) wants to use access, so they can make small edits and prefer that interface. They do not like using MySQL. The solution I came up with is: a) The person who downloads the file goes to a web page, enters animal ID into a form, chooses .dbf file and uploads to a mysql database on the server (I still have to write php code to read the dbf and write sql insert statements from it). b) Everyone syncs from their local access database to the server. (This is natively possible from access but very clunky). Is there a tool (preferably open source), that can compare a access table to mysql table and sync the two (both ways)? Alternatively, does anyone have a more elegant solution? The ultimate goal is to allow everyone to have access to the most current data on their computers using their preferred database app.

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  • Why does LogonUser place user profiles in c:\users of the server?

    - by Lalit_M
    We have developed a ASP.NET web application and has implemented a custom authentication solution using active directory as the credentials store. Our front end application uses a normal login form to capture the user name and password and leverages the Win32 LogonUser method to authenticate the user’s credentials. When we are calling the LogonUser method, we are using the LOGON32_LOGON_NETWORK as the logon type. The issue we have found is that user profile folders are being created under the C:\Users folder of the web server. The folder seems to be created when a new user who has never logged on before is logging in for the first time. As the number of new users logging into the application grows, disk space is shrinking due to the large number of new user folders getting created. Has anyone seen this behavior with the Win32 LogonUser method? Does anyone know how to disable this behavior? I have tried LOGON32_LOGON_BATCH but it was giving an error 1385 in authentication user. I need either of the solution 1) Is there any way to stop the folder generation. 2) What parameter I need to pass this to work? Thanks

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  • Log4j Logging to the Wrong Directory

    - by John
    I have a relatively complex log4j.xml configuration file with many appenders. Some machines the application runs on need a separate log directory, which is actually a mapped network drive. To get around this, we embed a system property as part of the filename in order to specify the directory. Here is an example: The "${user.dir}" part is set as a system property on each system, and is normally set to the root directory of the application. On some systems, this location is not the root of the application. The problem is that there is always one appender where this is not set, and the file appears not to write to the mapped drive. The rest of the appenders do write to the correct location per the system property. As a unit test, I set up our QA lab to hard-code the values for the appender above, and it worked: however, a different appender will then append to the wrong file. The mis-logged file is always the same for a given configuration: it is not a random file each time. My best educated guess is that there is a HashMap somewhere containing these appenders, and for some reason, the first one retrieved from the map does not have the property set. Our application does have custom system properties loading: the main() method loads a properties file and calls into System.setProperties(). My first instinct was to check the static initialization order, and to ensure the controller class with the main method does not call into log4j (directly or indirectly) before setting the properties just in case this was interfering with log4j's own initialization. Even removing all vestiges of log4j from the initialization logic, this error condition still occurs.

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  • WIN32 API question - Looking for answer asap

    - by Lalit_M
    We have developed a ASP.NET web application and has implemented a custom authentication solution using active directory as the credentials store. Our front end application uses a normal login form to capture the user name and password and leverages the Win32 LogonUser method to authenticate the user’s credentials. When we are calling the LogonUser method, we are using the LOGON32_LOGON_NETWORK as the logon type. The issue we have found is that user profile folders are being created under the C:\Users folder of the web server. The folder seems to be created when a new user who has never logged on before is logging in for the first time. As the number of new users logging into the application grows, disk space is shrinking due to the large number of new user folders getting created. Has anyone seen this behavior with the Win32 LogonUser method? Does anyone know how to disable this behavior? I have tried LOGON32_LOGON_BATCH but it was giving an error 1385 in authentication user. I need either of the solution 1) Is there any way to stop the folder generation. 2) What parameter I need to pass this to work? Thanks

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  • CakePHP: Missing database table

    - by Justin
    I have a CakePHP application that is running fine locally. I uploaded it to a production server and the first page that uses a database connection gives the "Missing Database Table" error. When I look at the controller dump, it's complaining about the first table. I've tried a variety of things to fix this problem, with no luck: I've confirmed that at the command line I can login with the given MySQL credentials in database.php I've confirmed this table exists I've tried using the MySQL root credentials (temporarily) to see if the problem lies with permissions of the user. The same error appeared. My debug level is currently set to 3 I've deleted the entire contents of /app/tmp/cache I've set 777 permissions on /app/tmp* I've confirmed that I can run DESCRIBE commands at the commant line MySQL when logged in with the MySQL credentials used by by the application I've verified that the CakePHP log file only contains the error I'm setting in the browser window. I've tried all the suggestions I could find in similar postings on SO I've Googled around and didn't find any other ideas I think I've eliminating the obvious problems and my research isn't turning anything up. I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas?

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