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• Driver denied access to PCI card

  - by Corin

  We wrote a Windows device driver to access our custom PCI card. The driver uses CreateFile to get a handle to the card. We recently had trouble at one installation were the card appeared to stop working. We tried replacing the card (the replacement appeared not work either). The computer vendor replaced the motherboard and both cards still failed to work. We put the cards in a different computer and both worked fine. We now have the computer at our office for examination. The Windows Device Manager lists our card in Other Devices as usual and says it's working fine. However, our driver initialization fails when it attempts to connect to the card. We created a test version of our driver with some extra debugging and determined that CreateFile is failing. It returns INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE as it is supposed to on failure. GetLastError indicates the error is Access is Denied. Since we're logged into the system as a local administrator, what can deny access to the device?

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• Application runs fine when executed directly, fails as scheduled task (security issues)

  - by Carl

  I have an application that loads some files from a network share (the input folder), extracts certain data from them and saves new files (zips them with SharpZLib) on a different network share (output folder). This application runs fine when you open it directly, but when it is set to a scheduled task, it fails in numerous places. This application is scheduled on a Win 2003 server. Let me say right off the bat, the scheduled task is set to use the same login account that I am currently logged in with, so it's not because it's using the LocalSystem account. Something else is going on here. Originally, the application was assigning a drive letter to the input folder using WNetGetConnectionA(). I don't remember why this was done, someone else on our team did that and she's gone now. I think there was some issue with using the WinZip command line with a UNC path. I switched from the WinZip command line utility to using SharpZLib because there were other issues with using the WinZip command line. Anyway, the application failed when trying to assign a drive letter with the error "connection already established." That wasn't true and even after trying WNetCancelConnection(), it still didn't work. Then I decided to just map the drive manually on the server. Then when the app calls Directory.Exists(inputFolderPath) it returns false, even though it does exist. So, for whatever reason, I cannot read this directory from within the application. I can manually navigate to this folder in Windows Explorer and open files. The app log file shows that the user executing it on the schedule is the user I expect, not LocalSystem. Any ideas?

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• iframe created dynamically with javascript not reloading parent URL

  - by Lauren

  I can't seem to reload the parent page from within an iframe even though the domain for my iframe and the parent page appear to be the same. The IFRAME was created dynamically, rather than in the HTML page source, so could that be the problem? The iframe I'm working with is here http://www.avaline.com/ R3000_3 once you log in. You may use user:[email protected] pass: test03 Once logged in, hit the "order sample" button, and then hit "here" where it says "Your Third Party Shipper Numbers (To enter one, click here.)". I tried using javascript statements window.top.location.reload(),window.parent.location.reload(),window.parent.location.href=window.parent.location.href but none of those worked in FF 3.6 so I didn't move on to the other browsers although I am shooting for a cross-browser solution. I put the one-line javascript statements inside setTimeout("statement",2000) so people could read the content of the iframe before the redirect happens, but that shouldn't affect the execution of the statements... I wish I could test and debug the statements with the Firebug console from within the Iframe.

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• problem with joomla, php and json

  - by sebastian

  hi, i have a problem with a joomla component. i'm, unsing php and json for some dynamic drop down boxes. here is the code:` jQuery( function () { //jQuery.ajaxSetup({error : function (a,b) {console.dir(a); console.dir(b);}}); jQuery("#util, #loc").change( function() { var locatie = jQuery("#loc").val(); var utilitate = jQuery("#util").val(); if ( (locatie!= '---') && (utilitate!='---') ) jQuery.getJSON( "index.php?option=com_calculator&opt=json_contor&format=raw", { locatie: locatie, utilitate: utilitate }, function (data) { var html = ""; if ( data.success == 'ok' ) for (var i in data.val) html += "<option name=den_contor value ='"+ i+"' >" + data.val[i]+ " </option>"; jQuery("#den_contor").html( html ) } ) }) }); the query works, but only on one PC. we have exactly the same xampp server, exactly the same files. on one pc it works, and on a online server and on my pc it doesn't. EDIT: i have three drop down boxes, the first is populated directly from the database, the second has 4 predefined values. and the third is populated depending on combination of the first two. i have a test site online. http://contor.redxart.com must be logged in to use Calculator in the menu. you can make an new account :) "Adaugare Index" is the part that isn't working any ideas? thanks, sebastian

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• How to use observer_field in RoR?

  - by Sindri Guðmundsson

  Hi, I have a single select_tag with categories gathered from array in controller. When the user selects a category I want the application to redirect to the selected category. I have the following code in my view which. (I've tried both using :method = :get and :post, only change is in development.log) <%=select_tag "cat_selected", options_for_select(@cats_for_mt)%><br> <%=observe_field 'cat_selected', :url => {:action => :viewflokkur}, :with => 'cat', :method => :get %> When I select one of the options the following gets logged to development.log. Processing CategoriesController#viewflokkur (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-06-12 12:33:26) [GET] Parameters: {"cat"=>"Taugasjúkraþjálfun", "authenticity_token"=> "B2u5ULNr7IJ/ta0+hiAMBjmjEtTtc/yMAQQvSxFn2d0="} Rendering template within layouts/main Rendering categories/viewflokkur Completed in 20ms (View: 18, DB: 0) | 200 OK [http://localhost/categories/viewflokkur?cat=Taugasj%C3%BAkra%C3%BEj%C3%A1lfun&authenticity_token=B2u5ULNr7IJ%2Fta0%2BhiAMBjmjEtTtc%2FyMAQQvSxFn2d0%3D] According to this I should now be in "viewflokkur", but nothing changes in the browser window. Is there anything else I need to do, maybe in the controller? BR, Sindri

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• Table index design

  - by Swoosh

  I would like to add index(s) to my table. I am looking for general ideas how to add more indexes to a table. Other than the PK clustered. I would like to know what to look for when I am doing this. So, my example: This table (let's call it TASK table) is going to be the biggest table of the whole application. Expecting millions records. IMPORTANT: massive bulk-insert is adding data in this table table has 27 columns: (so far, and counting :D ) int x 9 columns = id-s varchar x 10 columns bit x 2 columns datetime x 5 columns INT COLUMNS all of these are INT ID-s but from tables that are usually smaller than Task table (10-50 records max), example: Status table (with values like "open", "closed") or Priority table (with values like "important", "not so important", "normal") there is also a column like "parent-ID" (self - ID) join: all the "small" tables have PK, the usual way ... clustered STRING COLUMNS there is a (Company) column (string!) that is something like "5 characters long all the time" and every user will be restricted using this one. If in Task there are 15 different "Companies" the logged in user would only see one. So there's always a filter on this one. Might be a good idea to add an index to this column? DATE COLUMNS I think they don't index these ... right? Or can / should be?

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• Images in IFRAME no longer showing after I log out of Flickr?

  - by contact-kram

  I have a iframe window which displays user's flickr images. I use the flickr.photos.search api to download the user's image from flickr. This works great when the user is logged into flickr. But when I explicitly log off the user from flickr and the yahoo network and then attempt to download the flickr images, I get redirected to www.yahoo.com in a full browser window (not in my iframe). If I remember correctly, I did not have this issue when I was not using iframes and I was being redirected to the yahoo login screen. Any suggestions? To elaborate, this URI - http://www.flickr.com/services/api/auth.howto.web.html, lists the below step - Create an auth handler When users follow your login url, they are directed to a page on flickr.com which asks them if they want to authorize your application. This page displays your application title and description along with the logo, if you uploaded one. When the user accepts the request, they are sent back to the Callback URL you defined in step 2. The URL will have a frob parameter added to it. For example, if your Callback URL was http://test.com/auth.php then the user might be redirected to http://test.com/auth.php?frob=185-837403740 (The frob value in this example is '185-837403740'). This does not happen when I am in my iframe window but it does happen in my full browser window.

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• How to add a gwt widget to a gwt Composite already visible at runtime using MVP?

  - by mary4pfc

  Hi! I'm building an application whose menus depend on user roles. Once user is logged in and, therefore, her roles are known, I want to create the Hyperlinks related to the user and add them to the menu. I'm using MVP. Here's my code for the presenter: public class AdminMenuAreaPresenter extends WidgetPresenter<AdminMenuAreaPresenter.Display> { public interface Display extends WidgetDisplay{ public void addLink(String link); } private DispatchAsync dispatcher; private SessionManager sessionManager; @Inject public AdminMenuAreaPresenter(AdminMenuAreaPresenter.Display display, EventBus bus, DispatchAsync dispatcher, SessionManager sessionManager){ super(display, bus); this.dispatcher = dispatcher; this.sessionManager = sessionManager; this.bind(); } @Override protected void onBind() { super.onBind(); registerHandler(eventBus.addHandler(LoginEvent.TYPE, new LoginEventHandler() { @Override public void onLogin(LoginEvent event) { display.addLink("register user"); } })); } @Override protected void onUnbind() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override protected void onRevealDisplay() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } And here's the View: public class AdminMenuAreaView extends Composite implements AdminMenuAreaPresenter.Display{ private VerticalPanel vPanel; private Hyperlink registerUserLink; public AdminMenuAreaView(){ vPanel = new VerticalPanel(); initWidget(vPanel); } @Override public Widget asWidget() { return this; } public void addLink(String s){ registerUserLink = new Hyperlink(s, "this is new target"); this.vPanel.add(registerUserLink); registerUserLink.setVisible(true); } public HasClickHandlers getRegisterUserLink(){ return registerUserLink; } What am I doing wrong? Flow program goes throgh the addLink() method, but nothing is added to the view either dom document. Thank you.

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• Create Session Variable from different datasources?

  - by Szafranamn

  Currently I am developing a dynamic website using Dreamweaver cs5 with ColdFusion 9 and using Access to create my databases along with QuickBooks and QODBC to create database. I have established a login session variable stemming from the login page. This session variable is being drawn from one Datasource "Access" Table "Logininfo" Field "FullName" but I wanted to create another session variable either at this point or further into the member's page to use in a query sequence. This session variable would stem from another Datasoucre "QBs" Table "Invoice" Field "CustomerRefFullName" which is generated through Quickbooks and QODBC. I am not sure if this is possible but if it is how do I do it. I want to do this so I can query the Invoice database to upload the customer's Invoices unique to them onto their page. So it would have to be related to their login credentials. If there is another better route to take I would greatly appreciate the advice. Below is the login code if there is additional information needed let me know. This is my current thinking/plan to do what I wish to intend hence the need to create the session variable: I have another Datasource "QBs" with a Table "Invoice" when I create another webpage for the customer to see their invoice I need to create a recordset that accesses that Table. In order to do so I think the best way would some home convert the session.FullName (which came from Access Datasource, Logininfor Table) into a session.CustomerRefFullName (which would have to come from (Datasource: QBs Table: Invoice Field: CustomerRefFullName) that way I could set the query WHERE CustomerRefFullName and have each logged in user see their specific Invoices. So is there a way to turn the session variable off one datasource/table into a different sessionvariable off a new datasource/table even if it is unique just to that page??? <cfif IsDefined("FORM.username")> SELECT FullName, Username,Password,AccessLevels FROM Logininfo WHERE Username= AND Password=

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• Should frontend and backend be handled by different controllers?

  - by DR

  In my previous learning projects I always used a single controller, but now I wonder if that is good practice or even always possible. In all RESTful Rails tutorials the controllers have a show, an edit and an index view. If an authorized user is logged on, the edit view becomes available and the index view shows additional data manipulation controls, like a delete button or a link to the edit view. Now I have a Rails application which falls exactly into this pattern, but the index view is not reusable: The normal user sees a flashy index page with lots of pictures, complex layout, no Javascript requirement, ... The Admin user index has a completly different minimalistic design, jQuery table and lots of additional data, ... Now I'm not sure how to handle this case. I can think of the following: Single controller, single view: The view is split into two large blocks/partials using an if statement. Single controller, two views: index and index_admin. Two different controllers: BookController and BookAdminController None of these solutions seems perfect, but for now I'm inclined to use the 3rd option. What's the preferred way to do this?

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• Domain Authentication from .NET Client over VPN

  - by Holy Christ

  I am writing a ClickOnce WPF app that will sometimes be used over VPN. The app uses resources available only to domain authenticated users. Some of the things include accessing SSRS Reports, accessing LDAP to lookup user information, hitting web services, etc. When a user logs in from a machine that is not authenticated on the domain, I need to somehow get his credentials, authenticate him on the domain, and store his credentials. What is the recommended approach for authenticating domain users over VPN? How can I securely store the credentials? I've found several articles but, not much posted recently and a lot of the solutions seem kinda hacky, or aren't very secure (ie - storing strings clear text in memory). It would be cool if I could use the ActiveDicrtoryMembershipProvider, but that seems to be geared for use in web apps. EDIT: The above is kind of a workaround. The user must enter their domain credentials to authenticate on the VPN. It would be ideal to access the credentials the user has already entered to login to the VPN instead of the WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent() (which returns the user logged into the computer). Any ideas on how that could work? We use Juniper Networks to connect to the VPN. Thanks!

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• FormsAuthentication authCookie is null only for some users

  - by mbalkema

  I am experiencing a strange problem with asp.net forms authentication. This problem only occurs for 3 users out of 30+ users that have successfully logged in. I am using very basic auth code that I have used many times and have never seen this problem. After the users successfully authenticates and the auth cookie is created, cookie added, and response.redirect to FormsAuthentication.GetRedirect(userid, false) is called. The Application_AuthenticateRequest method in Global.asax is hit. // Extract the forms authentication cookie string cookieName = FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName; HttpCookie authCookie = Context.Request.Cookies[cookieName]; if (null == authCookie) { // There is no authentication cookie. return; } So immediately after a "good" cookie is saved and the redirect occurs the cookie is null. I have run the code through the debugger and the cookie is only null on these 3 users. But the cookie looks the same as the cookie for the many users that login successfully. Any ideas? This is standard code that should just work.

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• protect form hijacking hack

  - by Karem

  Yes hello today I discovered a hack for my site. When you write a msg on a users wall (in my communitysite) it runs a ajax call, to insert the msg to the db and will then on success slide down and show it. Works fine with no problem. So I was rethinking alittle, I am using POST methods for this and if it was GET method you could easily do ?msg=haxmsg&usr=12345679. But what could you do to come around the POST method? I made a new html document, made a form and on action i set "site.com/insertwall.php" (the file that normally are being used in ajax), i made some input fields with names exactly like i am doing with the ajaxcall (msg, uID (userid), BuID (by userid) ) and made a submit button. I know I have a page_protect() function on which requires you to login and if you arent you will be header to index.php. So i logged in (started session on my site.com) and then I pressed on this submit button. And then wops I saw on my site that it has made a new message. I was like wow, was it so easy to hijack POST method i thought maybe it was little more secure or something. I would like to know what could I do to prevent this hijacking? As i wouldnt even want to know what real hackers could do with this "hole". The page_protect secures that the sessions are from the same http user agent and so, and this works fine (tried to run the form without logging in, and it just headers me to startpage) but yea wouldnt take long time to figure out to log in first and then run it. Any advices are appreciated alot. I would like to keep my ajax calls most secure as possible and all of them are running on the POST method. What could I do to the insertwall.php, to check that it comes from the server or something.. Thank you

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• Client-Side Dynamic Removal of <script> Tags in <head>

  - by merv

  Is it possible to remove script tags in the <head> of an HTML document client-side and prior to execution of those tags? On the server-side I am able to insert a <script> above all other <script> tags in the <head>, except one, and I would like to be able to remove all subsequent scripts. I do not have the ability to remove <script> tags from the server side. What I've tried: (function (c,h) { var i, s = h.getElementsByTagName('script'); c.log("Num scripts: " + s.length); i = s.length - 1; while(i > 1) { h.removeChild(s[i]); i -= 1; } })(console, document.head); However, the logged number of scripts comes out to only 1, since (as @ryan pointed out) the code is being executed prior to the DOM being ready. Although wrapping the code above in a document.ready event callback does enable proper calculation of the number of <script> tags in the <head>, waiting until the DOM is ready fails to prevent the scripts from loading. Is there a reliable means of manipulating the HTML prior to the DOM being ready? Background If you want more context, this is part of an attempt to consolidate scripts where no option for server-side aggregation is available. Many of the JS libraries being loaded are from a CMS with limited configuration options. The content is mostly static, so there is very little concern about manually aggregating the JavaScript and serving it from a different location. Any suggestions for alternative applicable aggregation techniques would also be welcome.

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• HOw can I have a Alert message in a div inside the form

  - by Paromita Poddar

  I have this script and it sends out an alert message. All I want is to put the alert message in a div inside the form. here is the script can you please help asap ` var registered=false function ExamineRegistration() { var email =document.regform.email.value; var emailcheck= email.indexOf("@") var emailcheck2= email.indexOf(".") var password = document.regform.pass.value; var passcheck = password.charAt(0) var message_out = "Errors: " if(email=="" || password==""){ message_out = message_out+"All boxes should be filled in, " } if(emailcheck==-1 || emailcheck2==-1) { message_out = message_out+"email must contain @ and ., " } if(password!=password) { message_out=message_out+"password must match" } if(message_out == "Errors: ") { message_out = "You have successfully been logged in!" registered=true } alert(message_out); } --> This function helps the user first to register and than to enter the site. function Checkreg() { if (registered ==true) { location.replace("http://www.google.com") } else alert("Please Login to proceed") } </script> ` I have a form. I just want the alert message to appear inside the form at the top. I just dont know how to display the alert message inside the form instead of a pop up.

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• How to stop input in Perl?

  - by user1472747

  First time poster and part time perl noobie. I'm making a reflex game. Here's the output - __________________________________________________________________________ Reflex game initiated. Press ENTER to begin the game, and then press ENTER after the asterisks are printed to measure your reflexes!. ************************* Your result: 0.285606 seconds. logout [Process completed] __________________________________________________________________________ There's one small problem though - There's 0-10 seconds (based on a random variable) after you press enter to start the game and before the stars are printed. During that time, if the player presses ENTER, it's logged as their reflex time. So I need a way to stop my code from reading their ENTER button before the stars are printed. The code - #!/usr/bin/perl use Time::HiRes qw(sleep); use Time::HiRes qw(gettimeofday); #random delay variable $random_number = rand(); print "Reflex game initiated. Press ENTER to begin the game, and then press ENTER after the asterisks are printed to measure your reflexes!.\n"; #begin button $begin = <>; #waits x milliseconds sleep(10*$random_number); #pre-game $start = [ Time::HiRes::gettimeofday() ]; print "\n****************************\n"; #user presses enter $stop = <>; #post game $elapsed = Time::HiRes::tv_interval($start); #delay time print print "Your result: ".$elapsed." seconds.\n";

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• RPC command to initiate a software install

  - by ericmayo

  I was recently working with a product from Symantech called Norton EndPoint protection. It consists of a server console application and a deployment application and I would like to incorporate their deployment method into a future version of one of my products. The deployment application allows you to select computer workstations running Win2K, WinXP, or Win7. The selection of workstations is provided from either AD (Active Directory) or NT Domain (WINs/DNS NetBIOS lookup). From the list, one can click and choose which workstations to deploy the end point software which is Symantech's virus & spyware protection suite. Then, after selecting which workstations should receive the package, the software copies the setup.exe program to each workstation (presumable over the administrative share \pcname\c$) and then commands the workstation to execute setup.exe resulting in the workstation installing the software. I really like how their product works but not sure what they are doing to accomplish all the steps. I've not done any deep investigations into this such as sniffing the network, etc... and wanted to check here to see if anyone is familiar with what I'm talking about and if you know how it's accomplished or have ideas how it could be accomplished. My thinking is that they are using the admin share to copy the software to the selected workstations and then issuing an RPC call to command the workstation to do the install. What's interesting is that the workstations do this without any of the logged in users knowing what's going on until the very end where a reboot is necessary. At which point, the user gets a pop-up asking to reboot now or later, etc... My hunch is that the setup.exe program is popping this message. To the point: I'm looking to find out the mechanism by which one Windows based machine can tell another to do some action or run some program. My programming language is C/C++ Any thoughts/suggestions appreciated.

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• iPhone or Android apps that use SMS based authentication?

  - by JSW

  What are some iPhone or Android applications that use SMS as their primary means of user authentication? I'm interested to see such apps in action. SMS-auth seems like a natural approach that is well-situated to mobile contexts. The basic workflow is: to sign up, a user provides a phone number; the app calls a backend webservice which generates a signed URL and sends it to the phone number via an SMS gateway; the user receives the SMS, clicks the link, and is thus verified and logged in. This results in a very strong user identity that is difficult to spoof yet fairly easy. It can be paired with a username or additional account attributes as needed for the product requirements. Despite the advantages, this does not seem to be in much use - hence my question. My initial assumption is that this is because products and users are wary of asking for / providing phone numbers, which users consider sensitive information. That said, I hope this becomes an increasingly more commonplace approach.

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• Inefficient 'ANY' LINQ clause

  - by Focus

  I have a query that pulls back a user's "feed" which is essentially all of their activity. If the user is logged in the query will be filtered so that the feed not only includes all of the specified user's data, but also any of their friends. The database structure includes an Actions table that holds the user that created the action and a UserFriends table which holds any pairing of friends using a FrienderId and FriendeeId column which map to UserIds. I have set up my LINQ query and it works fine to pull back the data I want, however, I noticed that the query gets turned into X number of CASE clauses in profiler where X is the number of total Actions in the database. This will obviously be horrible when the database has a user base larger than just me and 3 test users. Here's the SQL query I'm trying to achieve: select * from [Action] a where a.UserId = 'GUID' OR a.UserId in (SELECT FriendeeId from UserFriends uf where uf.FrienderId = 'GUID') OR a.UserId in (SELECT FrienderId from UserFriends uf where uf.FriendeeId = 'GUID') This is what I currently have as my LINQ query. feed = feed.Where(o => o.User.UserKey == user.UserKey || db.Users.Any(u => u.UserFriends.Any(ufr => ufr.Friender.UserKey == user.UserKey && ufr.isApproved) || db.Users.Any(u2 => u2.UserFriends.Any(ufr => ufr.Friendee.UserKey == user.UserKey && ufr.isApproved) ))); This query creates this: http://pastebin.com/UQhT90wh That shows up X times in the profile trace, once for each Action in the table. What am I doing wrong? Is there any way to clean this up?

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• How can I test a form that requires the entry of two random characters from a security phrase?

  - by lawm

  I need to test a two-stage login system which first asks for your email address and password and then presents the user with two select lists containing [a-zA-Z0-9]. The labels beside the drop down's are of the form 'Select character X from your security phrase', where X is a random character index from a known security phrase. I'd rather not stub the code for an acceptance test, so is it possible to write a matcher in cucumber which will, given that we know the whole phrase, select the required character in each of the two lists? Here is the scenario I have so far and the steps involved: Scenario: valid login email, password and secret phrase takes me to the dashboard Given I am not logged in When I log in as "[email protected]" Then I should be on the dashboard page And I should see "Your Dashboard" When /^I log in as "([^\"]*)"$/ do |login| visit path_to('Login page') fill_in "Email", :with => login fill_in "Password", :with => "Password123" click_button "Log in" response.should contain("Please verify some characters from your security phrase") select "a", :from => "Select character X of your security phrase" select "b", :from => "Select character Y of your security phrase" click_button "Submit" end For example, if the security phrase is 'Secret123', X = 3 and Y = 8, the above would have to produce the equivalent of: select "c", :from => "Select character 3 of your security phrase" select "2", :from => "Select character 8 of your security phrase" The numbers X and Y in the actual page are inside span#svc_1 and span#svc_2 respectively. Thanks,

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• SpringFramework3.0: How to create interceptors that only apply to requests that map to certain contr

  - by Fusion2004

  In it's simplest form, I want an interceptor that checks session data to see if a user is logged in, and if not redirects them to the login page. Obviously, I wouldn't want this interceptor to be used on say the welcome page or the login page itself. I've seen a design that uses a listing of every url to one of two interceptors, one doing nothing and the other being the actual interceptor you want implemented, but this design seems very clunky and limits the ease of extensibility of the application. It makes sense to me that there should be an annotation-based way of using interceptors, but this doesn't seem to exist. My friend has the idea of actually modifying the handler class so that during each request it checks the Controller it is mapping the request to for a new annotation we would create (ex @Interceptor("loginInterceptor") ). A major point of my thinking is the extensibility, because I'd like to later implement similar interceptors for role-based authentication and/or administration authentication. Does it sound like my friend's approach would work for this? Or what is a proper way of going about doing this?

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• odd behavior with C# ftp client class

  - by geoff

  I found an ftp client class in c# over a year ago and have been using it in a process that uploads files on a nightly basis. A few days ago we started having a problem where it would time out. I'm not well versed in this so I'm not sure why it's doing this. When the program starts uploading a file it checks to see if it's logged in and if not, it calls the login method. In that method is this block of code. if (this.resultCode != 230) { this.sendCommand("PASS " + password); if (!(this.resultCode == 230 || this.resultCode == 202)) { this.cleanup(); throw new FtpException(this.result.Substring(4)); } } On the line that says this.sendCommand("PASS"... it goes into this code. private void sendCommand(String command) { if (this.verboseDebugging) Debug.WriteLine(command, "FtpClient"); Byte[] cmdBytes = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes((command + "\r\n").ToCharArray()); clientSocket.Send(cmdBytes, cmdBytes.Length, 0); this.readResponse(); } If I let the program run, it times out. However if I step through it into the sendCommand method it executes fine. Does anyone know why it would work fine when I step through it? Nothing on our end has changed and I've been told nothing on the client's end has changed so I'm stumped. Thanks.

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• Logback: Logging with two loggers

  - by gammay

  I would like to use slf4j+logback for two purposes in my application - log and audit. For logging, I log the normal way: static final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(Main.class); logger.debug("-> main()"); For Audit, I create a special named logger and log to it: static final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger("AUDIT_LOGGER"); Object[] params = { new Integer(1) /* TenantID */, new Integer(10) /* UserID */, msg}; logger.info("{}|{}|{}", params); logback configuration: <logger name="AUDIT_LOGGER" level="info"> <appender name="STDOUT" class="ch.qos.logback.core.ConsoleAppender"> <encoder> <pattern>%d{HH:mm:ss.SSS}|%msg%n </pattern> </encoder> </appender> </logger> <root level="all"> <appender name="STDOUT" class="ch.qos.logback.core.ConsoleAppender"> <encoder> <pattern>%d{HH:mm:ss.SSS} [%thread] %-5level %logger{36} - %msg%n </pattern> </encoder> </appender> </root> Problem: Messages logged through audit logger appear twice - once under the AUDIT_LOGGER and once under the root logger. 14:41:57.975 [main] DEBUG com.gammay.example.Main - - main() 14:41:57.978|1|10|welcome to main 14:41:57.978 [main] INFO AUDIT_LOGGER - 1|10|welcome to main How can I make sure audit messages appear only once under the audit logger?

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• WindowsFormsApplicationBase SplashScreen makes login form ignore keypresses until I click on it - how to debug?

  - by Tom Bushell

  My WinForms app has a simple modal login form, invoked at startup via ShowDialog(). When I run from inside Visual Studio, everything works fine. I can just type in my User ID, hit the Enter key, and get logged in. But when I run a release build directly, everything looks normal (the login form is active, there's a blinking cursor in the User ID MaskedEditBox), but all keypresses are ignored until I click somewhere on the login form. Very annoying if you are used to doing everything from the keyboard. I've tried to trace through the event handlers, and to set the focus directly with code, to no avail. Any suggestions how to debug this (outside of Visual Studio), or failing that - a possible workaround? Edit Here's the calling code, in my Main Form: private void OfeMainForm_Shown(object sender, EventArgs e) { OperatorLogon(); } private void OperatorLogon() { // Modal dialogs should be in a "using" block for proper disposal using (var logonForm = new C21CfrLogOnForm()) { var dr = logonForm.ShowDialog(this); if (dr == DialogResult.OK) SaveOperatorId(logonForm.OperatorId); else Application.Exit(); } } Edit 2 Didn't think this was relevant, but I'm using Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase for it's splash screen and SingleInstanceController support. I just commented out the splash screen code, and the problem has disappeared. So that's opened up a whole new line of inquiry... Edit 3 Changed title to reflect better understanding of the problem

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• inconsistent setTexture behavior in cocos2d on iPhone after using CCAnimate/CCAnimation

  - by chillid

  Hi, I have a character that goes through multiple states. The state changes are reflected by means of a sprite image (texture) change. The state change is triggered by a user tapping on the sprite. This works consistently and quite well. I then added an animation during State0. Now, when the user taps - setTexture gets executed to change the texture to reflect State1, however some of the times (unpredictable) it does not change the texture. The code flows as below: // 1. // Create the animation sequence CGRect frame1Rect = CGRectMake(0,32,32,32); CGRect frame2Rect = CGRectMake(32,32,32,32); CCTexture2D* texWithAnimation = [[CCTextureCache sharedTextureCache] addImage:@"Frames0_1_thinkNthickoutline32x32.png"]; id anim = [[[CCAnimation alloc] initWithName:@"Sports" delay:1/25.0] autorelease]; [anim addFrame:[CCSpriteFrame frameWithTexture:texWithAnimation rect:frame1Rect offset:ccp(0,0)]]; [anim addFrame:[CCSpriteFrame frameWithTexture:texWithAnimation rect:frame2Rect offset:ccp(0,0)]]; // Make the animation sequence repeat forever id myAction = [CCAnimate actionWithAnimation: anim restoreOriginalFrame:NO]; // 2. // Run the animation: sports = [[CCRepeatForever alloc] init]; [sports initWithAction:myAction]; [self.sprite runAction:sports]; // 3. stop action on state change and change texture: NSLog(@"Stopping action"); [sprite stopAction:sports]; NSLog(@"Changing texture for kCJSports"); [self setTexture: [[CCTextureCache sharedTextureCache] addImage:@"SportsOpen.png"]]; [self setTextureRect:CGRectMake(0,0,32,64)]; NSLog(@"Changed texture for kCJSports"); Note that all the NSLog lines get logged - and the texture RECT changes - but the image/texture changes only some of the times - fails for around 10-30% of times. Locking/threading/timing issue somewhere? My app (game) is single threaded and I only use the addImage and not the Async version. Any help much appreciated.

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