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  • How to avoid using duplicate savepoint names in nested transactions in nested stored procs?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have a pattern that I almost always follow, where if I need to wrap up an operation in a transaction, I do this: BEGIN TRANSACTION SAVE TRANSACTION TX -- Stuff IF @error <> 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX COMMIT TRANSACTION That's served me well enough in the past, but after years of using this pattern (and copy-pasting the above code), I've suddenly discovered a flaw which comes as a complete shock. Quite often, I'll have a stored procedure calling other stored procedures, all of which use this same pattern. What I've discovered (to my cost) is that because I'm using the same savepoint name everywhere, I can get into a situation where my outer transaction is partially committed - precisely the opposite of the atomicity that I'm trying to achieve. I've put together an example that exhibits the problem. This is a single batch (no nested stored procs), and so it looks a little odd in that you probably wouldn't use the same savepoint name twice in the same batch, but my real-world scenario would be too confusing to post. CREATE TABLE Test (test INTEGER NOT NULL) BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (1) COMMIT TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (2) COMMIT TRAN TX DELETE FROM Test ROLLBACK TRAN TX COMMIT TRAN TX SELECT * FROM Test DROP TABLE Test When I execute this, it lists one record, with value "1". In other words, even though I rolled back my outer transaction, a record was added to the table. What's happening is that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX at the outer level is rolling back as far as the last SAVE TRANSACTION TX at the inner level. Now that I write this all out, I can see the logic behind it: the server is looking back through the log file, treating it as a linear stream of transactions; it doesn't understand the nesting/hierarchy implied by either the nesting of the transactions (or, in my real-world scenario, by the calls to other stored procedures). So, clearly, I need to start using unique savepoint names instead of blindly using "TX" everywhere. But - and this is where I finally get to the point - is there a way to do this in a copy-pastable way so that I can still use the same code everywhere? Can I auto-generate the savepoint name on the fly somehow? Is there a convention or best-practice for doing this sort of thing? It's not exactly hard to come up with a unique name every time you start a transaction (could base it off the SP name, or somesuch), but I do worry that eventually there would be a conflict - and you wouldn't know about it because rather than causing an error it just silently destroys your data... :-(

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  • how to pass parameter to a webservice using ksoap2?

    - by user255681
    hi there, i'm using eclipse to develop over android, i'm trying to connect to a .net webservice... when i'm calling a webmethod with no parameters it works fine... but when i come to pass a parameter to the webmethod things turn upside down... the parameter is passed as null (while debugging the webservice i discovered that) and i get a null from the webmethod in the client side code... i've been searching for a solution for a day now and all that i can interpreter is that people keep talking about encoding styles and such stuff.... i've tried it all but in vain. i'm using ksoap2 version 2.3 with the following code package com.examples.hello; import org.ksoap2.SoapEnvelope; import org.ksoap2.serialization.PropertyInfo; import org.ksoap2.serialization.SoapObject; import org.ksoap2.serialization.SoapSerializationEnvelope; import org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.TextView; public class HelloActivity extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ private static final String SOAP_ACTION = "http://Innovation/HRService/stringBs"; private static final String METHOD_NAME = "stringBs"; private static final String NAMESPACE = "http://Innovation/HRService/"; private static final String URL = "http://196.205.5.170/mdl/hrservice.asmx"; TextView tv; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); tv=(TextView)findViewById(R.id.text1); call(); } public void call() { try { SoapObject request = new SoapObject(NAMESPACE, METHOD_NAME); //PropertyInfo PI = new PropertyInfo(); //request.addProperty("a", "myprop"); SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11); envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request); envelope.dotNet=true; envelope.encodingStyle = SoapSerializationEnvelope.XSD; HttpTransportSE androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(URL); androidHttpTransport.call(SOAP_ACTION, envelope); Object result = (Object)envelope.getResponse(); String results = result.toString(); tv.setText( ""+results); } catch (Exception e) { tv.setText(e.getMessage()); } } }

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  • WSIT, Maven, and wsimport -- Can They Work Together?

    - by rtperson
    Hi all, I'm working on a small-ish multi-module project in Maven. We've separated the UI from the database layer using Web Services, and thanks to the jaxws-maven-plugin, the creation of the WSDL and WS client are more or less handled for us. (The plugin is essentially a wrapper around wsgen and wsimport.) So far so good. The problem comes when I try to layer WSIT security into the picture. NetBeans allows me to generate the security metadata easily, but wsimport seems completely incapable of dealing with anything beyond a Basic-auth level of security. Here's our current, insecure way of calling wsimport during a Maven build: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>jaxws-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.10</version> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>wsimport</goal> </goals> <configuration> <wsdlUrls> <wsdlUrl>${basedir}/../WebService/target/jaxws/wsgen/wsdl/WebService.wsdl</wsdlUrl> </wsdlUrls> <packageName>com.yourcompany.appname.ws.client</packageName> <sourceDestDir>${basedir}/src/main/java</sourceDestDir> <destDir>${basedir}/target/jaxws</destDir> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin> I have tried playing around with xauthFile, xadditionalHeaders, passing javax.xml.ws.security.auth.username and password through args. I have also tried using wsimport from the command line to point to the Tomcat-generated WSDL, which has the additional security info. Nothing, however, seems to change the composition of the wsimport-generated files at all. So I guess my question here is, to get a WSIT-compliant client, am I stuck abandoning Maven and the jaxws plugin altogether? Is there a way to get a WSIT client to auto-generate? Or will I need to generate the client by hand? Let me know if you need any additional info beyond what I've written here. I'm deploying to Tomcat, although that doesn't seem to be an issue, as Maven seems happy to pull Metro into the deployed WAR file. Thanks in advance!

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  • Asynchronous sockets in C#

    - by IVlad
    I'm confused about the correct way of using asynchronous socket methods in C#. I will refer to these two articles to explain things and ask my questions: MSDN article on asynchronous client sockets and devarticles.com article on socket programming. My question is about the BeginReceive() method. The MSDN article uses these two functions to handle receiving data: private static void Receive(Socket client) { try { // Create the state object. StateObject state = new StateObject(); state.workSocket = client; // Begin receiving the data from the remote device. client.BeginReceive( state.buffer, 0, StateObject.BufferSize, 0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } private static void ReceiveCallback( IAsyncResult ar ) { try { // Retrieve the state object and the client socket // from the asynchronous state object. StateObject state = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket client = state.workSocket; // Read data from the remote device. int bytesRead = client.EndReceive(ar); if (bytesRead > 0) { // There might be more data, so store the data received so far. state.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(state.buffer,0,bytesRead)); // Get the rest of the data. client.BeginReceive(state.buffer,0,StateObject.BufferSize,0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } else { // All the data has arrived; put it in response. if (state.sb.Length > 1) { response = state.sb.ToString(); } // Signal that all bytes have been received. receiveDone.Set(); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } While the devarticles.com tutorial passes null for the last parameter of the BeginReceive method, and goes on to explain that the last parameter is useful when we're dealing with multiple sockets. Now my questions are: What is the point of passing a state to the BeginReceive method if we're only working with a single socket? Is it to avoid using a class field? It seems like there's little point in doing it, but maybe I'm missing something. How can the state parameter help when dealing with multiple sockets? If I'm calling client.BeginReceive(...), won't all the data be read from the client socket? The devarticles.com tutorial makes it sound like in this call: m_asynResult = m_socClient.BeginReceive (theSocPkt.dataBuffer,0,theSocPkt.dataBuffer.Length, SocketFlags.None,pfnCallBack,theSocPkt); Data will be read from the theSocPkt.thisSocket socket, instead of from the m_socClient socket. In their example the two are one and the same, but what happens if that is not the case? I just don't really see where that last argument is useful or at least how it helps with multiple sockets. If I have multiple sockets, I still need to call BeginReceive on each of them, right?

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  • AccessViolationException thrown

    - by user255371
    Hi, I’m working on a project that’s written in C# and uses a C++ dll to communicate with a robot. Originally the software was written in C# VS 2003 and was converted to VS 2008 (no change to the code) using .Net 2.0. Now, I started seeing the “Attempted to read or write protected memory…” on some computers. The Access violation error is always thrown when the code calls a particular method from the dll, however, that very same method is called over and over throughout the task and executes fine, just sometimes it throws the error. Also, the robot seems to execute the command fine which tells me that the values passed into the dll exist and thus are accessible. The software with the .Net 1.1 has been used for years and worked fine without ever throwing any memory errors. Now that it has been using .Net 2.0 it throws errors on some computers only. I’m not sure what’s causing the issue. I ruled out inappropriate calling (incorrect marshalling …) of the dll methods as it has been working fine with .Net 1.1 for years and thus should work fine in .Net 2.0 as well. I’ve seen some posts suggesting that it could be the GC, but then again why would it only happen on this one computer and only sometimes. Also, the values passed in are all global variables in the C# code and thus they should exist until the application is shut down and GC has no business moving any of those around or deleting them. Another observation, as I mentioned above, the robot executes the command normally which means that it gets all its necessary values. Not sure what the C++ dll’s method would do at the end where the GC could mess up stuff. It shouldn’t try to delete the global variables passed in and the method is not modifying those variables either (I’m not expecting any return values through the passed in values, the only return value is the method return which again shouldn’t have anything to do with GC.) One important piece of information I should add is that I have no access to the C++ code and thus cannot make any changes there. The fix has to come through the C# code or some settings on the computer or something else that I am in control of. Any help greatly appreciated. Thanks. Code snippet: Original method call in VS 2003 [DllImport("TOOLB32.dll",EntryPoint="TbxMoveWash")] public static extern int TbxMoveWash(int tArmId, string lpszCarrierRackId, int eZSelect, int[] lpTipSet, int tVol, bool bFastW); which I modified after seeing the error to the following (but the error still occurs): [DllImport("TOOLB32.dll",EntryPoint="TbxMoveWash")] public static extern int TbxMoveWash(int tArmId, string lpszCarrierRackId, int eZSelect, [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPArray, SizeConst = 8)] int[] lpTipSet, int tVol, bool bFastW);

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  • Asynchronous readback from opengl front buffer using multiple PBO's

    - by KillianDS
    I am developing an application that needs to read back the whole frame from the front buffer of an openGL application. I can hijack the application's opengl library and insert my code on swapbuffers. At the moment I am successfully using a simple but excruciating slow glReadPixels command without PBO's. Now I read about using multiple PBO's to speed things up. While I think I've found enough resources to actually program that (isn't that hard), I have some operational questions left. I would do something like this: create a series (e.g. 3) of PBO's use glReadPixels in my swapBuffers override to read data from front buffer to a PBO (should be fast and non-blocking, right?) Create a seperate thread to call glMapBufferARB, once per PBO after a glReadPixels, because this will block until the pixels are in client memory. Process the data from step 3. Now my main concern is of course in steps 2 and 3. I read about glReadPixels used on PBO's being non-blocking, will this be an issue if I issue new opengl commands after that very fast? Will those opengl commands block? Or will they continue (my guess), and if so, I guess only swapbuffers can be a problem, will this one stall or will glReadPixels from front buffer be many times faster than swapping (about each 15-30ms) or, worst case scenario, will swapbuffers be executed while glReadPixels is still reading data to the PBO? My current guess is this logic will do something like this: copy FRONT_BUFFER - generic place in VRAM, copy VRAM-RAM. But I have no idea which of those 2 is the real bottleneck and more, what the influence on the normal opengl command stream is. Then in step 3. Is it wise to do this asynchronously in a thread separated from normal opengl logic? At the moment I think not, It seems you have to restore buffer operations to normal after doing this and I can't install synchronization objects in the original code to temporarily block those. So I think my best option is to define a certain swapbuffer delay before reading them out, so e.g. calling glReadPixels on PBO i%3 and glMapBufferARB on PBO (i+2)%3 in the same thread, resulting in a delay of 2 frames. Also, when I call glMapBufferARB to use data in client memory, will this be the bottleneck or will glReadPixels (asynchronously) be the bottleneck? And finally, if you have some better ideas to speed up frame readback from GPU in opengl, please tell me, because this is a painful bottleneck in my current system. I hope my question is clear enough, I know the answer will probably also be somewhere on the internet but I mostly came up with results that used PBO's to keep buffers in video memory and do processing there. I really need to read back the front buffer to RAM and I do not find any clear explanations about performance in that case (which I need, I cannot rely on "it's faster", I need to explain why it's faster). Thank you

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  • iPhone MailComposer class UIViewController dismissModalViewControllerAnimated issues

    - by Scott Pendleton
    I created a class to launch the MailComposer so that my iPhone app would only have one place to go when generating various kinds of e-mail: some with attachments, some not. Some with pre-filled addresses, some not. I didn't want my class implement UIViewController, but it has to so it can be the delegate for the MailComposer. Otherwise, the view controllers that call my class would themselves have to be delegates for the MailComposer, which defeats the purpose. The downside of having my class be a view controller is that it has to load to the screen before it can modally bring up the MailComposer. Unfortunately, view controllers can't be transparent. The effect is, whatever is on screen gets covered by a solid white view controller for a moment before the MailComposer appears. I could maybe live with that, but not this: after the MailComposer goes away, I'm left with my blank view controller occupying the screen. I ought to be able to get rid of it from within itself by calling this: [self.parentViewController dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:NO]; But that dies a horrible death: "Loading 43365 stack frames..." Has my class -- a UIViewController that pre-fills and then launches a MailComposer -- lost track of its parentViewController? It isn't nil, because I've tested for that. As launched from within the current view controller... // My class is called Email. Email *oEmail = [[[Email alloc] init] retain]; // Red, to remind myself that I'd like to someday learn to make it transparent. oEmail.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor redColor]; // Pre-fill whatever fields you want, and specify attachments. oEmail.EmailSubject = @"I am truly stumped"; // This has to go on screen first. [self presentModalViewController:oEmail animated:NO]; // Then this can happen, which brings up the MailComposer. [oEmail f_SendEmail]; // Commenting out the next line didn't help, so I turned it back on. [oEmail release]; Inside the class, you need the mailComposeController:didFinishWithResult:error: method to make the MailComposer go away, and for that to happen, the class has to be the MFMailComposeViewControllerDelegate. Here's what happens in there: // This gets rid of the mail composer. [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; // This never fails to get rid of other modal view controllers when called // from within those controllers, but boy does it not work here. [self.parentViewController dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:NO]; If you can help me, I will be truly thankful!

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  • EJB3 Transaction Propogation

    - by Matt S.
    I have a stateless bean something like: @Stateless public class MyStatelessBean implements MyStatelessLocal, MyStatelessRemote { @PersistenceContext(unitName="myPC") private EntityManager mgr; @TransationAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.SUPPORTED) public void processObjects(List<Object> objs) { // this method just processes the data; no need for a transaction for(Object obj : objs) { this.process(obj); } } @TransationAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.REQUIRES_NEW) public void process(Object obj) { // do some work with obj that must be in the scope of a transaction this.mgr.merge(obj); // ... this.mgr.merge(obj); // ... this.mgr.flush(); } } The typically usage then is the client would call processObjects(...), which doesn't actually interact with the entity manager. It does what it needs to do and calls process(...) individually for each object to process. The duration of process(...) is relatively short, but processObjects(...) could take a very long time to run through everything. Therefore I don't want it to maintain an open transaction. I do need the individual process(...) operations to operate within their own transaction. This should be a new transaction for every call. Lastly I'd like to keep the option open for the client to call process(...) directly. I've tried a number of different transaction types: never, not supported, supported (on processObjects) and required, requires new (on process) but I get TransactionRequiredException every time merge() is called. I've been able to make it work by splitting up the methods into two different beans: @Stateless @TransationAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.NOT_SUPPORTED) public class MyStatelessBean1 implements MyStatelessLocal1, MyStatelessRemote1 { @EJB private MyStatelessBean2 myBean2; public void processObjects(List<Object> objs) { // this method just processes the data; no need for a transaction for(Object obj : objs) { this.myBean2.process(obj); } } } @Stateless public class MyStatelessBean2 implements MyStatelessLocal2, MyStatelessRemote2 { @PersistenceContext(unitName="myPC") private EntityManager mgr; @TransationAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.REQUIRES_NEW) public void process(Object obj) { // do some work with obj that must be in the scope of a transaction this.mgr.merge(obj); // ... this.mgr.merge(obj); // ... this.mgr.flush(); } } but I'm still curious if it's possible to accomplish this in one class. It looks to me like the transaction manager only operates at the bean level, even when individual methods are given more specific annotations. So if I mark one method in a way to prevent the transaction from starting calling other methods within that same instance will also not create a transaction, no matter how they're marked? I'm using JBoss Application Server 4.2.1.GA, but non-specific answers are welcome / preferred.

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  • flickr phpflickr api

    - by sea_1987
    Overview I am trying to get a photo feed on to my site using Flickr's api and the phpflickr library. I can successfully get the photoset on to my site, but it shows all the photos from every photoset, what I was hoping to achieve was to show the primary photo from each photoset, and then if the user clicked on the image it would show the full photoset in a lightbox/shadowbox. My Code <div id="images" class="tabnav"> <ul class="items"> <?php $count = 1; ?> <?php foreach ($photosets['photoset'] as $ph_set): ?> <?php $parentID = $ph_set['parent']; ?> <?php $photoset_id = $ph_set['id']; $photos = $f->photosets_getPhotos($photoset_id); foreach ($photos['photoset']['photo'] as $photo): ?> <li> <a rel="shadowbox['<?=$count;?>']" href="<?= $f->buildPhotoURL($photo, 'medium') ?>" title="<?= $photo['title'] ?>"> <img src="<?= $f->buildPhotoURL($photo, 'rectangle') ?>" alt="<?= $photo['title'] ?>" width="210" height="160" title="<?= $photo['title'] ?>" /> <h3><?=$ph_set['title']?></h3> <p><?=$ph_set['description'];?></p> </a> </li> <?php endforeach; ?> <?php $count++; ?> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul> </div> Another Attempt I have also tried calling the getPhotos function differently, instead of sending it without any parameters I sent it with parameters $photos = $f->photosets_getPhotos($photoset_id, NULL, NULL, 1, NULL); The above code stopped the showing all the photos from each photoset and started showing just the primary image, but it also stopped making the rest of the photos accesible to me. Is there something I can do to make this work? I am totally out iof ideas. Regards and thanks

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  • webservice method is not accessible from jquery ajax

    - by Abhisheks.net
    Hello everyone.. i am using jqery ajax to calling a web service method but is is not doing and genrating error.. the code is here for jquery ajax in asp page var indexNo = 13; //pass the value $(document).ready(function() { $("#a1").click(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "myWebService.asmx/GetNewDownline", data: "{'indexNo':user_id}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { $("#divResult").text(msg.d); } }); }); }); and this is the is web service method using System; using System.Collections; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Services; using System.Web.Services.Protocols; using System.Xml.Linq; using System.Data; using System.Web.Script.Serialization; using TC.MLM.DAL; using TC.MLM.BLL.AS; /// /// Summary description for myWebService /// [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class myWebService : System.Web.Services.WebService { public myWebService() { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public string HelloWorld() { return "Hello World"; } [WebMethod] public string GetNewDownline(string indexNo) { IndexDetails indexDtls = new IndexDetails(); indexDtls.IndexNo = "13"; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ds = TC.MLM.BLL.AS.Index.getIndexDownLineByIndex(indexDtls); indexNoDownline[] newDownline = new indexNoDownline[ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count]; for (int count = 0; count <= ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count - 1; count++) { newDownline[count] = new indexNoDownline(); newDownline[count].adjustedid = ds.Tables[0].Rows[count]["AdjustedID"].ToString(); newDownline[count].name = ds.Tables[0].Rows[count]["name"].ToString(); newDownline[count].structPostion = ds.Tables[0].Rows[count]["Struct_Position"].ToString(); newDownline[count].indexNo = ds.Tables[0].Rows[count]["IndexNo"].ToString(); newDownline[count].promoterId = ds.Tables[0].Rows[count]["PromotorID"].ToString(); newDownline[count].formNo = ds.Tables[0].Rows[count]["FormNo"].ToString(); } JavaScriptSerializer serializer = new JavaScriptSerializer(); JavaScriptSerializer js = new JavaScriptSerializer(); string resultedDownLine = js.Serialize(newDownline); return resultedDownLine; } public class indexNoDownline { public string adjustedid; public string name; public string indexNo; public string structPostion; public string promoterId; public string formNo; } } please help me something.

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  • .NET SerialPort DataReceived event thread interference with main thread

    - by Kiran
    I am writing a serial communication program using the SerialPort class in C# to interact with a strip machine connected via a RS232 cable. When i send the command to the machine it responds with some bytes depending on the command. Like when i send a "\D" command, i am expecting to download the machine program data of 180 bytes as a continous string. As per the machine's manual, it suggests as a best practice to send an unreognized characters like comma (,) character to make sure the machine is initialized before sending the first command in the cycle. My serial communication code is as follows: public class SerialHelper { SerialPort commPort = null; string currentReceived = string.Empty; string receivedStr = string.Empty; private bool CommInitialized() { try { commPort = new SerialPort(); commPort.PortName = "COM1"; if (!commPort.IsOpen) commPort.Open(); commPort.BaudRate = 9600; commPort.Parity = System.IO.Ports.Parity.None; commPort.StopBits = StopBits.One; commPort.DataBits = 8; commPort.RtsEnable = true; commPort.DtrEnable = true; commPort.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(commPort_DataReceived); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { return false; } } void commPort_DataReceived(object sender, SerialDataReceivedEventArgs e) { SerialPort currentPort = (SerialPort)sender; currentReceived = currentPort.ReadExisting(); receivedStr += currentReceived; } internal int CommIO(string outString, int outLen, ref string inBuffer, int inLen) { receivedStr = string.Empty; inBuffer = string.Empty; if (CommInitialized()) { commPort.Write(outString); } System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1500); int i = 0; while ((receivedStr.Length < inLen) && i < 10) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500); i += 1; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(receivedStr)) { inBuffer = receivedStr; } commPort.Close(); return inBuffer.Length; } } I am calling this code from a windows form as follows: len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO(",",1,ref inBuffer, 4) len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO(",",1,ref inBuffer, 4) If(inBuffer == "!?*O") { len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO("\D",2,ref inBuffer, 180) } A valid return value from the serial port looks like this: \D00000010000000000010 550 3250 0000256000 and so on ... I am getting some thing like this: \D00000010D,, 000 550 D,, and so on... I feel that my comm calls are getting interferred with the one when i send commands. But i am trying to make sure the result of the comma command then initiating the actual command. but the received thread is inserting the bytes from the previous communication cycle. Can any one please shed some light into this...? I lost quite some hair just trying to get this work. I am not sure where i am doing wrong

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  • Insert an event on Google Resource Calendar using the latest google-php-client-api

    - by user3781583
    Created a Project Enabled Calendar API Created an OAuth2.0 Service Account Downloaded the keyfile .p12 and saved it locally (not using a server with a public IP address) Shared my Resource Calendar with the Email address created in the Service Account (with Manage Sharing rights) Entered Client ID for the service account and authorized http://www.googleapis.com/auth/calendar Environment lamp setup on localhost. <?php require_once 'google-api-php-client/src/Google/Client.php'; require_once 'google-api-php-client/src/Google/Service/Calendar.php'; session_start(); const CLIENT_ID = 'XXXXXX.apps.googleusercontent.com'; //Service CLIENT ID const SERVICE_ACCOUNT_NAME = '[email protected]'; const KEY_FILE = 'google-api-php-client/src/Google/Reservation Service-XXXXXXX.p12'; $client = new Google_Client(); $client->setApplicationName("Appointment"); if (isset($_SESSION['token'])) { $client->setAccessToken($_SESSION['token']); } $key = file_get_contents(KEY_FILE); $client->setClientId(CLIENT_ID); $client->setAssertionCredentials(new Google_Auth_AssertionCredentials( SERVICE_ACCOUNT_NAME, array('https://www.googleapis.com/auth/calendar'), $key)); //Save token in session if ($client->getAccessToken()) { $_SESSION['token'] = $client->getAccessToken(); } $cal = new Google_Service_Calendar($client); $event = new Google_Service_Calendar_Event(); $event->setSummary('This is a Test event'); $event->setLocation('Test Location'); $start = new Google_Service_Calendar_EventDateTime(); $start->setDateTime('2014-08-20T10:30:00.000-05:00'); $event->setStart($start); $end = new Google_Service_Calendar_EventDateTime(); $end->setDateTime('2014-08-20T12:30:00.000-05:00'); $event->setEnd($end); $cal->events->insert('[email protected]', $event); ?> getting the following error: Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Google_Service_Exception' with message 'Error calling POST https://www.googleapis.com/calendar/v3/calendars/XXXXXXX%40resource.calendar.google.com/events: (403) Forbidden' in /google-api-php-client/src/Google/Http/REST.php:79 Stack trace: #0 /google-api-php-client/src/Google/Http/REST.php(44): Google_Http_REST::decodeHttpResponse(Object(Google_Http_Request)) #1 /google-api-php-client/src/Google/Client.php(503): Google_Http_REST::execute(Object(Google_Client), Object(Google_Http_Request)) #2 /google-api-php-client/src/Google/Servic/Resource.php(195): Google_Client-execute(Object(Google_Http_Request)) #3 /google-api-php-client/src/Google/Service/Calendar.php(1459): Google_Service_Resource-call('insert', Array, 'Google_Service_...') #4 /calendar.php(53): Google_S in /google-api-php-client/src/Google/Http/REST.php on line 79 A few people had the same issue, I am sharing the calendar with the service account. Any help will be appreciated.

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  • MooseX::Types declaration issue, tight test case :)

    - by TJ Thompson
    So after an embarrassing amount of time debugging, I've finally stripped this issue ([http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4621589/perl-moose-typedecorator-error-how-do-i-debug][1]) down to a simple test case. I would humbly request some help understanding why it's failing :) Here is the error message I'm getting: plxc16479 $h2/tmp/tmp18.pl This method [new] requires a single argument. at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/perl/5.12.2/lib64/site_perl/MooseX/Types/TypeDecorator.pm line 91 MooseX::Types::TypeDecorator::new('MooseX::Types::TypeDecorator=HASH(0x655b90)') called at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/projects/lib/Program-Plist-Pl/lib/Program/Plist/Pl.pm line 10 Program::Plist::Pl::BUILD('Program::Plist::Pl=HASH(0x63d478)', 'HASH(0x63d220)') called at generated method (unknown origin) line 29 Program::Plist::Pl::new('Program::Plist::Pl') called at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/tmp/tmp18.pl line 10 Wrapper test script: use strict; use warnings; BEGIN {push(@INC, split(':', $ENV{PERL_TEST_LIBS}))}; use Program::Plist::Pl; my $obj = Program::Plist::Pl->new(); Program::Plist::Pl file: package Program::Plist::Pl; use Moose; use namespace::autoclean; use Program::Types qw(Pattern); # <-- Removing this fixes error use Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern; sub BUILD { my $pattern_obj = Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern->new(); } __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; Program::Types file: package Program::Types; use MooseX::Types -declare => [qw(Pattern)]; class_type Pattern, {class => 'Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern'}; 1; And the Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern file: package Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern; use Moose; use namespace::autoclean; __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; Notes: While I don't need the Pattern type from Program::Types in the above code, I do in other code that is stripped out. The PERL_TEST_LIBS env var I'm pulling INC paths from only contains paths to the project modules. There are no other modules loaded from these paths. It appears the MooseX::Types definition for Pattern is causing problems, but I'm not sure why. Documentation shows the syntax I am using, but it's possible I'm misusing class_type as there isn't much said about it. Intent is to be able to use Pattern for type checking via MooseX::Params::Validate to verify the argument is a 'Program::Plist::Pl::Program' object. I've found that removing the intervening class Program::Plist::Pl from the equation by directly calling Pattern-new from the tmp18.pl wrapper results in no error, even when the Program::Types Pattern type is imported.

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  • RIA Services Repository Save does not work!?

    - by Savvas Sopiadis
    Hello everybody! Doing my first SL4 MVVM RIA based application and i ran into the following situation: updating a record (EF4,NO-POCOS!!) in the SL-client seems to take place, but values in the dbms are unchanged. Debugging with Fiddler the message on save is (amongst others): EntityActions.nil? b9http://schemas.microsoft.com/2003/10/Serialization/Arrays^HasMemberChanges?^Id?^ Operation?Update I assume that this says only: hey! the dbms should do an update on this record, AND nothing more! Is that right?! I 'm using a generic repository like this: public class Repository<T> : IRepository<T> where T : class { IObjectSet<T> _objectSet; IObjectContext _objectContext; public Repository(IObjectContext objectContext) { this._objectContext = objectContext; _objectSet = objectContext.CreateObjectSet<T>(); } public IQueryable<T> AsQueryable() { return _objectSet; } public IEnumerable<T> GetAll() { return _objectSet.ToList(); } public IEnumerable<T> Find(Expression<Func<T, bool>> where) { return _objectSet.Where(where); } public T Single(Expression<Func<T, bool>> where) { return _objectSet.Single(where); } public T First(Expression<Func<T, bool>> where) { return _objectSet.First(where); } public void Delete(T entity) { _objectSet.DeleteObject(entity); } public void Add(T entity) { _objectSet.AddObject(entity); } public void Attach(T entity) { _objectSet.Attach(entity); } public void Save() { _objectContext.SaveChanges(); } } The DomainService Update Method is the following: [Update] public void UpdateCulture(Culture currentCulture) { if (currentCulture.EntityState == System.Data.EntityState.Detached) { this.cultureRepository.Attach(currentCulture); } this.cultureRepository.Save(); } I know that the currentCulture-Entity is detached. What confuses me (amongst other things) is this: is the _objectContext still alive? (which means it "will be"??? aware of the changes made to record, so simply calling Attach() and then Save() should be enough!?!?) What am i missing? Development Environment: VS2010RC - Entity Framework 4 (no POCOs) Thanks in advance

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  • Why are there connections open to my databases?

    - by Everett
    I have a program that stores user projects as databases. Naturally, the program should allow the user to create and delete the databases as they need to. When the program boots up, it looks for all the databases in a specific SQLServer instance that have the structure the program is expecting. These database are then loaded into a listbox so the user can pick one to open as a project to work on. When I try to delete a database from the program, I always get an SQL error saying that the database is currently open and the operation fails. I've determined that the code that checks for the databases to load is causing the problem. I'm not sure why though, because I'm quite sure that all the connections are being properly closed. Here are all the relevant functions. After calling BuildProjectList, running "DROP DATABASE database_name" from ExecuteSQL fails with the message: "Cannot drop database because it is currently in use". I'm using SQLServer 2005. private SqlConnection databaseConnection; private string connectionString; private ArrayList databases; public ArrayList BuildProjectList() { //databases is an ArrayList of all the databases in an instance if (databases.Count <= 0) { return null; } ArrayList databaseNames = new ArrayList(); for (int i = 0; i < databases.Count; i++) { string db = databases[i].ToString(); connectionString = "Server=localhost\\SQLExpress;Trusted_Connection=True;Database=" + db + ";"; //Check if the database has the table required for the project string sql = "select * from TableExpectedToExist"; if (ExecuteSQL(sql)) { databaseNames.Add(db); } } return databaseNames; } private bool ExecuteSQL(string sql) { bool success = false; openConnection(); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(sql, databaseConnection); try { cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); success = true; } catch (SqlException ae) { MessageBox.Show(ae.Message.ToString()); } closeConnection(); return success; } public void openConnection() { databaseConnection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); try { databaseConnection.Open(); } catch(Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.ToString(), "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } } public void closeConnection() { if (databaseConnection != null) { try { databaseConnection.Close(); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.ToString(), "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } } }

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  • How to configure maximum number of transport channels in WCF using basicHttpBinding?

    - by Hemant
    Consider following code which is essentially a WCF host: [ServiceContract (Namespace = "http://www.mightycalc.com")] interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] int Add (int aNum1, int aNum2); } [ServiceBehavior (InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerCall)] class Calculator: ICalculator { public int Add (int aNum1, int aNum2) { Thread.Sleep (2000); //Simulate a lengthy operation return aNum1 + aNum2; } } class Program { static void Main (string[] args) { try { using (var serviceHost = new ServiceHost (typeof (Calculator))) { var httpBinding = new BasicHttpBinding (BasicHttpSecurityMode.None); serviceHost.AddServiceEndpoint (typeof (ICalculator), httpBinding, "http://172.16.9.191:2221/calc"); serviceHost.Open (); Console.WriteLine ("Service is running. ENJOY!!!"); Console.WriteLine ("Type 'stop' and hit enter to stop the service."); Console.ReadLine (); if (serviceHost.State == CommunicationState.Opened) serviceHost.Close (); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine (e); Console.ReadLine (); } } } Also the WCF client program is: class Program { static int COUNT = 0; static Timer timer = null; static void Main (string[] args) { var threads = new Thread[10]; for (int i = 0; i < threads.Length; i++) { threads[i] = new Thread (Calculate); threads[i].Start (null); } timer = new Timer (o => Console.WriteLine ("Count: {0}", COUNT), null, 1000, 1000); Console.ReadLine (); timer.Dispose (); } static void Calculate (object state) { var c = new CalculatorClient ("BasicHttpBinding_ICalculator"); c.Open (); while (true) { try { var sum = c.Add (2, 3); Interlocked.Increment (ref COUNT); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine ("Error on thread {0}: {1}", Thread.CurrentThread.Name, ex.GetType ()); break; } } c.Close (); } } Basically, I am creating 10 proxy clients and then repeatedly calling Add service method. Now if I run both applications and observe opened TCP connections using netstat, I find that: If both client and server are running on same machine, number of tcp connections are equal to number of proxy objects. It means all requests are being served in parallel. Which is good. If I run server on a separate machine, I observed that maximum 2 TCP connections are opened regardless of the number of proxy objects I create. Only 2 requests run in parallel. It hurts the processing speed badly. If I switch to net.tcp binding, everything works fine (a separate TCP connection for each proxy object even if they are running on different machines). I am very confused and unable to make the basicHttpBinding use more TCP connections. I know it is a long question, but please help!

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  • How to eager load sibling data using LINQ to SQL?

    - by Scott
    The goal is to issue the fewest queries to SQL Server using LINQ to SQL without using anonymous types. The return type for the method will need to be IList<Child1>. The relationships are as follows: Parent Child1 Child2 Grandchild1 Parent Child1 is a one-to-many relationship Child1 Grandchild1 is a one-to-n relationship (where n is zero to infinity) Parent Child2 is a one-to-n relationship (where n is zero to infinity) I am able to eager load the Parent, Child1 and Grandchild1 data resulting in one query to SQL Server. This query with load options eager loads all of the data, except the sibling data (Child2): DataLoadOptions loadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); loadOptions.LoadWith<Child1>(o => o.GrandChild1List); loadOptions.LoadWith<Child1>(o => o.Parent); dataContext.LoadOptions = loadOptions; IQueryable<Child1> children = from child in dataContext.Child1 select child; I need to load the sibling data as well. One approach I have tried is splitting the query into two LINQ to SQL queries and merging the result sets together (not pretty), however upon accessing the sibling data it is lazy loaded anyway. Adding the sibling load option will issue a query to SQL Server for each Grandchild1 and Child2 record (which is exactly what I am trying to avoid): DataLoadOptions loadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); loadOptions.LoadWith<Child1>(o => o.GrandChild1List); loadOptions.LoadWith<Child1>(o => o.Parent); loadOptions.LoadWith<Parent>(o => o.Child2List); dataContext.LoadOptions = loadOptions; IQueryable<Child1> children = from child in dataContext.Child1 select child; exec sp_executesql N'SELECT * FROM [dbo].[Child2] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[ForeignKeyToParent] = @p0',N'@p0 int',@p0=1 exec sp_executesql N'SELECT * FROM [dbo].[Child2] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[ForeignKeyToParent] = @p0',N'@p0 int',@p0=2 exec sp_executesql N'SELECT * FROM [dbo].[Child2] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[ForeignKeyToParent] = @p0',N'@p0 int',@p0=3 exec sp_executesql N'SELECT * FROM [dbo].[Child2] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[ForeignKeyToParent] = @p0',N'@p0 int',@p0=4 I've also written LINQ to SQL queries to join in all of the data in hopes that it would eager load the data, however when the LINQ to SQL EntitySet of Child2 or Grandchild1 are accessed it lazy loads the data. The reason for returning the IList<Child1> is to hydrate business objects. My thoughts are I am either: Approaching this problem the wrong way. Have the option of calling a stored procedure? My organization should not be using LINQ to SQL as an ORM? Any help is greatly appreciated. Thank you, -Scott

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  • Clone a DataBound Checked List Box

    - by Buddhi Dananjaya
    Hi I have a DataBound CheckedListBox, I "check" few items on list box(source), then I need to clone it to new Checked List Box(target). It need to have all the data, with checked state. I have tried with following function. It is properly flowing through this function. But finally I can see items on target CheckedListBox but none of the items in target is checked. private void CloneCheckedListBox(CheckedListBox source, CheckedListBox target) { foreach (int checkedItemIndex in source.CheckedIndices) { target.SetItemChecked(checkedItemIndex, true); } } Edit: I have a User control which I have placed on a TabPage, on that User Control there is a "CheckedListBox", I do need to create a new TabPage with the user entered value on selected(current) TabPage(on User Control) So, what I have done is, create a new Tab Page, get a Copy of the User Control calling it's "Clone()" method. In "Clone()" method need to have CheckedListBox cloning feature. Here is my Cloning Code, which is on User Control... public SearchMain Clone() { SearchMain smClone = new SearchMain(); smClone.txtManufacturers.Text = this.txtManufacturers.Text; smClone.udPriceFrom.Value = this.udPriceFrom.Value; smClone.udPriceTo.Value = this.udPriceTo.Value; smClone.chkOld.Checked = this.chkOld.Checked; smClone.chkPrx.Checked = this.chkPrx.Checked; smClone.chkDisc.Checked = this.chkDisc.Checked; smClone.chkStock.Checked = this.chkStock.Checked; smClone.chkFirstDes.Checked = this.chkFirstDes.Checked; smClone.chkFirstPN.Checked = this.chkFirstPN.Checked; smClone.txtSuppPN.Text = this.txtSuppPN.Text; smClone.txtManuPN.Text = this.txtManuPN.Text; smClone.txtManufacturers.Text = this.txtManufacturers.Text; smClone.meDesAND.Text = this.meDesAND.Text; smClone.meDesOR.Text = this.meDesOR.Text; smClone.meDesNOT.Text = this.meDesNOT.Text; smClone.lbManufacSelected.Items.AddRange(this.lbManufacSelected.Items); smClone.lbSearchWithIn.Items.AddRange(this.lbSearchWithIn.Items); **CloneCheckedListBox(this.clbLang, smClone.clbLang);** // CloneCheckedListBox(this.clbTypes, smClone.clbTypes); return smClone; }

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  • Android App to call a number on button click

    - by FosterZ
    hey guys this is my 1st android app(learning), so i want to call a number given in the textbox but i'm getting error as "The application 'xyz'(process com.adroid) has stoped unexpectedly".. following the code i have done so far... where m doing wrong ?? EditText txtPhn; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); Button callButton = (Button)findViewById(R.id.btnCall); txtPhn = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.txtPhnNumber); callButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { try { Intent callIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_CALL); callIntent.setData(Uri.parse("tel:"+txtPhn.getText().toString())); startActivity(callIntent); } catch (ActivityNotFoundException activityException) { Log.e("Calling a Phone Number", "Call failed", activityException); } } }); } EDITED LogCat 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): java.lang.SecurityException: Permission Denial: starting Intent { act=android.intent.action.CALL dat=tel:xxx-xxx-xxxx flg=0x10000000 cmp=com.android.phone/.OutgoingCallBroadcaster } from ProcessRecord{40738d70 370:org.krish.android/10034} (pid=370, uid=10034) requires android.permission.CALL_PHONE 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at android.os.Parcel.readException(Parcel.java:1322) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at android.os.Parcel.readException(Parcel.java:1276) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at android.app.ActivityManagerProxy.startActivity(ActivityManagerNative.java:1351) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at android.app.Instrumentation.execStartActivity(Instrumentation.java:1374) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at android.app.Activity.startActivityForResult(Activity.java:2827) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at android.app.Activity.startActivity(Activity.java:2933) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at org.krish.android.caller$1.onClick(caller.java:29) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at android.view.View.performClick(View.java:2485) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at android.view.View$PerformClick.run(View.java:9080) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at android.os.Handler.handleCallback(Handler.java:587) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:92) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:3683) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:507) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:839) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:597) 03-09 11:23:25.874: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(370): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method)

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  • C# XPath Not Finding Anything

    - by ehdv
    I'm trying to use XPath to select the items which have a facet with Location values, but currently my attempts even to just select all items fail: The system happily reports that it found 0 items, then returns (instead the nodes should be processed by a foreach loop). I'd appreciate help either making my original query or just getting XPath to work at all. XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <Collection Name="My Collection" SchemaVersion="1.0" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/collection/metadata/2009" xmlns:p="http://schemas.microsoft.com/livelabs/pivot/collection/2009" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <FacetCategories> <FacetCategory Name="Current Address" Type="Location"/> <FacetCategory Name="Previous Addresses" Type="Location" /> </FacetCategories> <Items> <Item Id="1" Name="John Doe"> <Facets> <Facet Name="Current Address"> <Location Value="101 America Rd, A Dorm Rm 000, Chapel Hill, NC 27514" /> </Facet> <Facet Name="Previous Addresses"> <Location Value="123 Anywhere Ln, Darien, CT 06820" /> <Location Value="000 Foobar Rd, Cary, NC 27519" /> </Facet> </Facets> </Item> </Items> </Collection> C# public void countItems(string fileName) { XmlDocument document = new XmlDocument(); document.Load(fileName); XmlNode root = document.DocumentElement; XmlNodeList xnl = root.SelectNodes("//Item"); Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Found {0} items" , xnl.Count)); } There's more to the method than this, but since this is all that gets run I'm assuming the problem lies here. Calling root.ChildNodes accurately returns FacetCategories and Items, so I am completely at a loss. Thanks for your help!

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  • Using FluentNHibernate + SQLite with .Net4?

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. When calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration I get an exception thrown: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." It has an InnerException again: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Which again has an InnerException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Now - to me it sounds like it doesn't find System.Data.SQLite.dll, but I can't understand this. Everywhere this is referenced I have "Copy Local", and I have verified that it is in every build folder for projects using SQLite. I have also copied it manually to every Debug folder of the solution - without luck. Notes: This exact same code worked just fine before I upgraded to .Net4. I did see some x64 x86 mismatch problems earlier, but I have switched to use x86 as the target platform and for all referenced dlls. I have verified that all files in the Debug-folder are x86. I have tried the precompiled Fluent dlls, I have tried compiling myself, and I have compiled my own version of Fluent using .Net4. I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. After @devio's answer I tried adding a reference to the SQLite dll. This didn't change anything, but I hope I made it right though.. This is what I added to the root node of the app.config file: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <qualifyAssembly partialName="System.Data.SQLite" fullName="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.60.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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  • Java Threading Concept Understanding

    - by Nirmal
    Hello All... Recently I have gone through with one simple threading program, which leads me some issues for the related concepts... My sample program code looks like : class NewThread implements Runnable { Thread t; NewThread() { t = new Thread(this, "Demo Thread"); System.out.println("Child thread: " + t); t.start(); // Start the thread } public void run() { try { for (int i = 5; i > 0; i--) { System.out.println("Child Thread: " + i); Thread.sleep(500); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Child interrupted."); } System.out.println("Exiting child thread."); } } class ThreadDemo { public static void main(String args[]) { new NewThread(); // create a new thread try { for (int i = 5; i > 0; i--) { System.out.println("Main Thread: " + i); Thread.sleep(1000); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Main thread interrupted."); } System.out.println("Main thread exiting."); } } Now this program giving me the output as follows : Child thread: Thread[Demo Thread,5,main] Main Thread: 5 Child Thread: 5 Child Thread: 4 Main Thread: 4 Child Thread: 3 Child Thread: 2 Main Thread: 3 Child Thread: 1 Exiting child thread. Main Thread: 2 Main Thread: 1 Main thread exiting. So, that's very much clear to me. But as soon as I am replacing the object creation code (calling of a NewThread class constructor) to as follows : NewThread nt = new NewThread(); // create a new thread the output becomes a bit varied like as follows : Child thread: Thread[Demo Thread,5,main] Main Thread: 5 Child Thread: 5 Child Thread: 4 Child Thread: 3 Main Thread: 4 Child Thread: 2 Child Thread: 1 Main Thread: 3 Exiting child thread. Main Thread: 2 Main Thread: 1 Main thread exiting. And some times it's giving me same output in both the cases. So, i am not getting the exact change in both the scenario. I would like to know that you the variation in the output is coming here ? Thanks in advance...

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  • iPhone JSON Object

    - by Cosizzle
    Hello, I'm trying to create a application that will retrieve JSON data from an HTTP request, send it to a the application main controller as a JSON object then from there do further processing with it. Where I'm stick is actually creating a class that will serve as a JSON class in which will take a URL, grab the data, and return that object. Alone, im able to make this class work, however I can not get the class to store the object for my main controller to retrieve it. Because im fairly new to Objective-C itself, my thoughts are that im messing up within my init call: -initWithURL:(NSString *) value { responseData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; NSString *theURL = value; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:theURL]]; [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:request delegate:self]; return self; } The processing of the JSON object takes place here: - (void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { [connection release]; NSString *responseString = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:responseData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; [responseData release]; NSError *jsonError; SBJSON *json = [[SBJSON new] autorelease]; NSDictionary *parsedJSON = [json objectWithString:responseString error:&jsonError]; // NSArray object. listings = [parsedJSON objectForKey:@"posts"]; NSEnumerator *enumerator = [listings objectEnumerator]; NSDictionary* item; // to prove that it does work. while (item = (NSDictionary*)[enumerator nextObject]) { NSLog(@"posts:id = %@", [item objectForKey:@"id"]); NSLog(@"posts:address = %@", [item objectForKey:@"address"]); NSLog(@"posts:lat = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lat"]); NSLog(@"posts:lng = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lng"]); } [responseString release]; } Now when calling the object within the main controller I have this bit of code in the viewDidLoad method call: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; JSON_model *jsonObj = [[JSON_model alloc] initWithURL:@"http://localhost/json/faith_json.php?user=1&format=json"]; NSEnumerator *enumerator = [[jsonObj listings] objectEnumerator]; NSDictionary* item; // while (item = (NSDictionary*)[enumerator nextObject]) { NSLog(@"posts:id = %@", [item objectForKey:@"id"]); NSLog(@"posts:address = %@", [item objectForKey:@"address"]); NSLog(@"posts:lat = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lat"]); NSLog(@"posts:lng = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lng"]); } }

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  • GOTO still considered harmful?

    - by Kyle Cronin
    Everyone is aware of Dijkstra's Letters to the editor: go to statement considered harmful (also here .html transcript and here .pdf) and there has been a formidable push since that time to eschew the goto statement whenever possible. While it's possible to use goto to produce unmaintainable, sprawling code, it nevertheless remains in modern programming languages. Even the advanced continuation control structure in Scheme can be described as a sophisticated goto. What circumstances warrant the use of goto? When is it best to avoid? As a followup question: C provides a pair of functions, setjmp and longjmp, that provide the ability to goto not just within the current stack frame but within any of the calling frames. Should these be considered as dangerous as goto? More dangerous? Dijkstra himself regretted that title, of which he was not responsible for. At the end of EWD1308 (also here .pdf) he wrote: Finally a short story for the record. In 1968, the Communications of the ACM published a text of mine under the title "The goto statement considered harmful", which in later years would be most frequently referenced, regrettably, however, often by authors who had seen no more of it than its title, which became a cornerstone of my fame by becoming a template: we would see all sorts of articles under the title "X considered harmful" for almost any X, including one titled "Dijkstra considered harmful". But what had happened? I had submitted a paper under the title "A case against the goto statement", which, in order to speed up its publication, the editor had changed into a "letter to the Editor", and in the process he had given it a new title of his own invention! The editor was Niklaus Wirth. A well thought out classic paper about this topic, to be matched to that of Dijkstra, is Structured Programming with go to Statements (also here .pdf), by Donald E. Knuth. Reading both helps to reestablish context and a non-dogmatic understanding of the subject. In this paper, Dijkstra's opinion on this case is reported and is even more strong: Donald E. Knuth: I believe that by presenting such a view I am not in fact disagreeing sharply with Dijkstra's ideas, since he recently wrote the following: "Please don't fall into the trap of believing that I am terribly dogmatical about [the go to statement]. I have the uncomfortable feeling that others are making a religion out of it, as if the conceptual problems of programming could be solved by a single trick, by a simple form of coding discipline!"

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  • Custom NSView in NSMenuItem not receiving mouse events

    - by Dennis
    I have an NSMenu popping out of an NSStatusItem using popUpStatusItemMenu. These NSMenuItems show a bunch of different links, and each one is connected with setAction: to the openLink: method of a target. This arrangement has been working fine for a long time. The user chooses a link from the menu and the openLink: method then deals with it. Unfortunately, I recently decided to experiment with using NSMenuItem's setView: method to provide a nicer/slicker interface. Basically, I just stopped setting the title, created the NSMenuItem, and then used setView: to display a custom view. This works perfectly, the menu items look great and my custom view is displayed. However, when the user chooses a menu item and releases the mouse, the action no longer works (i.e., openLink: isn't called). If I just simply comment out the setView: call, then the actions work again (of course, the menu items are blank, but the action is executed properly). My first question, then, is why setting a view breaks the NSMenuItem's action. No problem, I thought, I'll fix it by detecting the mouseUp event in my custom view and calling my action method from there. I added this method to my custom view: - (void)mouseUp:(NSEvent *)theEvent { NSLog(@"in mouseUp"); } No dice! This method is never called. I can set tracking rects and receive mouseEntered: events, though. I put a few tests in my mouseEntered routine, as follows: if ([[self window] ignoresMouseEvents]) { NSLog(@"ignoring mouse events"); } else { NSLog(@"not ignoring mouse events"); } if ([[self window] canBecomeKeyWindow]) { dNSLog((@"canBecomeKeyWindow")); } else { NSLog(@"not canBecomeKeyWindow"); } if ([[self window] isKeyWindow]) { dNSLog((@"isKeyWindow")); } else { NSLog(@"not isKeyWindow"); } And got the following responses: not ignoring mouse events canBecomeKeyWindow not isKeyWindow Is this the problem? "not isKeyWindow"? Presumably this isn't good because Apple's docs say "If the user clicks a view that isn’t in the key window, by default the window is brought forward and made key, but the mouse event is not dispatched." But there must be a way do detect these events. HOW? Adding: [[self window] makeKeyWindow]; has no effect, despite the fact that canBecomeKeyWindow is YES.

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