Search Results

Search found 7583 results on 304 pages for 'roger guess'.

Page 247/304 | < Previous Page | 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254  | Next Page >

  • How to call a function from another class file

    - by Guy Parker
    I am very familiar with writing VB based applications but am new to Xcode (and Objective C). I have gone through numerous tutorials on the web and understand the basics and how to interact with Interface Builder etc. However, I am really struggling with some basic concepts of the C language and would be grateful for any help you can offer. Heres my problem… I have a simple iphone app which has a view controller (FirstViewController) and a subview (SecondViewController) with associated header and class files. In the FirstViewController.m have a function defined @implementation FirstViewController (void) writeToServer:(const uint8_t ) buf { [oStream write:buf maxLength:strlen((char)buf)]; } It doesn't really matter what the function is. I want to use this function in my SecondViewController, so in SecondViewController.m I import FirstViewController.h import "SecondViewController.h" import "FirstViewController.h" @implementation SecondViewController -(IBAction) SetButton: (id) sender { NSString *s = [@"Fill:" stringByAppendingString: FillLevelValue.text]; NSString *strToSend = [s stringByAppendingString: @":"]; const uint8_t *str = (uint8_t *) [strToSend cStringUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; FillLevelValue.text = strToSend; [FirstViewController writeToServer:str]; } This last line is where my problem is. XCode tells me that FirstViewController may not respond to writeToServer. And when I try to run the application it crashes when this function is called. I guess I don't fully understand how to share functions and more importantly, the relationship between classes. In an ideal world I would create a global class to place my functions in and call them as required. Any advice gratefully received.

    Read the article

  • SQLAlchemy Expression Language problem

    - by Torkel
    I'm trying to convert this to something sqlalchemy expression language compatible, I don't know if it's possible out of box and are hoping someone more experienced can help me along. The backend is PostgreSQL and if I can't make it as an expression I'll create a string instead. SELECT DISTINCT date_trunc('month', x.x) as date, COALESCE(b.res1, 0) AS res1, COALESCE(b.res2, 0) AS res2 FROM generate_series( date_trunc('year', now() - interval '1 years'), date_trunc('year', now() + interval '1 years'), interval '1 months' ) AS x LEFT OUTER JOIN( SELECT date_trunc('month', access_datetime) AS when, count(NULLIF(resource_id != 1, TRUE)) AS res1, count(NULLIF(resource_id != 2, TRUE)) AS res2 FROM tracking_entries GROUP BY date_trunc('month', access_datetime) ) AS b ON (date_trunc('month', x.x) = b.when) First of all I got a class TrackingEntry mapped to tracking_entries, the select statement within the outer joined can be converted to something like (pseudocode):: from sqlalchemy.sql import func, select from datetime import datetime, timedelta stmt = select([ func.date_trunc('month', TrackingEntry.resource_id).label('when'), func.count(func.nullif(TrackingEntry.resource_id != 1, True)).label('res1'), func.count(func.nullif(TrackingEntry.resource_id != 2, True)).label('res2') ], group_by=[func.date_trunc('month', TrackingEntry.access_datetime), ]) Considering the outer select statement I have no idea how to build it, my guess is something like: outer = select([ func.distinct(func.date_trunc('month', ?)).label('date'), func.coalesce(?.res1, 0).label('res1'), func.coalesce(?.res2, 0).label('res2') ], from_obj=[ func.generate_series( datetime.now(), datetime.now() + timedelta(days=365), timedelta(days=1) ).label(x) ]) Then I suppose I have to link those statements together without using foreign keys: outer.outerjoin(stmt???).??(func.date_trunc('month', ?.?), ?.when) Anyone got any suggestions or even better a solution?

    Read the article

  • Printing to different printers using mozilla.

    - by Nick-ACNB
    I am currently creating a web application that will be deployed in an intranet environment. I chose firefox to be the browser that will run it. However, in the application I am building, I need to be able to print to different printers quickly since they use different paper size depending on what client is coming. To avoid many time-wasting mistakes that could occur, for instance someone choosing the wrong printer and wasting paper. Also, the time used to find the right printer for the job and then pressing print is considered too long in the current context. Is there any solution to this problem? I understand the potential security flaw behind this, but please be aware that this is solely an intranet project and that I can reduce the browser's security to the lowest since they don't access internet. I know there could be something doable behind IE (ActiveX or VBScript) but I am using firefox. Also, I guess there could also be something rather tricky that when you press print on the browser, it saves what needs to be printed to a DB and then there is an exe app that runs and fetch that DB every set ammount of time and print to the right printer. Any suggestion would be greatly appreciated. I doubt I am the only one to ever face this issue! :) Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio breaks, and steps, but sometimes steps out

    - by James Wilkins
    Something very odd is going on. It's been going on for some time, but I've just ignored it up to now. I have both a Silverlight and WCF service in my solution, which shares .CS file between them (one project has a link to the file, which exists in the other project). While debugging the Silverlight app, pressing the F10 key steps through code as normal, and when I get to a method call which exists in the shared file (between the projects), and Press F11, it simply skips the method instead of stepping into it (and yes, the "Just My Code" option is not checked). If I put a breakpoint in the method I'm trying to get into, it works fine (as in the debugger will break on the line), but as soon as I step (F10) it exits the method (and with F11 [step into] also). Ok, on first thought, you might think it's to do with the link, but no, it isn't. I tried removing the link and using a copy instead, but the same thing happens. And no, it's not the debug symbols, I looked into that already. The method I'm trying to step through is static, and is in a non-static partial class, in a file shared by both projects. My guess: The same types and static methods exist in the WCF and Silverlight ... would the debugger get confused?

    Read the article

  • Can Content script set value of a text box within HTML frame? using Google Chrome extensions..

    - by devdreamers
    Hi all, I was working on a very simple extension, where on clicking extension icon, a webpage is opened in a new tab, the webpage has HTML frames, within which lies a textbox. I want to set a value for the same. The webpage which opens has: <HTML> <FRAMESET rows="15%, *" border="0"> <FRAME src="./files/abc.htm" id="abc_frame" name="abc_frame" onload="abcLoad()" scrolling="NO"> </FRAMESET> </HTML> and abc.htm has: <div align="center" valign="bottom" style="font-size: 1em;"> <form onSubmit="javascript:navigate(this);return false;"> <label for="loc">Loc</label>: <input type="text" size="50" id="loc" value="http://google.com"/> <input name="go" type="submit" value="Go" id="loc_go" onclick='navigate(this); return false;'/> </form> </div> how can I replace current textbox value with, say http://yahoo.com ? I guess, Content Script in Chrome extensions is required, but not sure, how/what should be it's code/content. Please guide/help. Thanks a lot. Appreciate it.

    Read the article

  • Hashing the state of a complex object in .NET

    - by Jan
    Some background information: I am working on a C#/WPF application, which basically is about creating, editing, saving and loading some data model. The data model contains of a hierarchy of various objects. There is a "root" object of class A, which has a list of objects of class B, which each has a list of objects of class C, etc. Around 30 classes involved in total. Now my problem is that I want to prompt the user with the usual "you have unsaved changes, save?" dialog, if he tries to exit the program. But how do I know if the data in current loaded model is actually changed? There is of course ways to solve this, like e.g. reloading the model from file and compare against the one in memory value by value or make every UI control set a flag indicating the model has been changed. Now instead, I want to create a hash value based on the model state on load and generate a new value when the user tries to exit, and compare those two. Now the question: So inspired of that, I was wondering if there exist some way to generate a hash value from the (value)state of some arbitrary complex object? Preferably in a generic way, e.g. no need to apply attributes to each involved class/field. One idea could be to use some of .NET's serialization functionality (assuming it will work out-of-the-box in this case) and apply a hash function to the content of the resulting file. However, I guess there exist some more suitable approach. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Keeping dates in order when using date_select and discarding year in Rails?

    - by MikeH
    My app has users who have seasonal products. When a user selects a product, we allow him to also select the product's season. We accomplish this by letting him select a start date and an end date for each product. We're using date_select to generate two sets of drop-downs: one for the start date and one for the end date. Including years doesn't make sense for our model. So we're using the option: discard_year => true To explain our problem, consider that our products are apples. Vendor X carries apples every year from September to January. Years are irrelevant here, and that's why we're using discard_year => true. However, while the specific years are irrelevant, the relative point in time from the start date to the end date is relevant. This is where our problem arises. When you use discard_year => true, Rails does set a year in the database, it just doesn't appear in the views. Rails sets all the years to 0001 in our app. Going back to our apple example, this means that the database now thinks the user has selected September 0001 to January 0001. This is a problem for us for a number of reasons. To solve this, the logic that I need to implement is the following: - If season_start month/date is before season_end month/date, then standard Rails approach is fine. - But, if season_start month/date is AFTER season_end month/date, then I need to dynamically update the database field such that the year for season_end is equal to the year for season_start + 1. My best guess is that I would create a custom method that runs as an after_save or after_update in my products model. But I'm not really sure how to do this. Ideas? Anybody ever had this issue? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Shared Memory and Process Sempahores (IPC)

    - by fsdfa
    This is an extract from Advanced Liniux Programming: Semaphores continue to exist even after all processes using them have terminated. The last process to use a semaphore set must explicitly remove it to ensure that the operating system does not run out of semaphores.To do so, invoke semctl with the semaphore identifier, the number of semaphores in the set, IPC_RMID as the third argument, and any union semun value as the fourth argument (which is ignored).The effective user ID of the calling process must match that of the semaphore’s allocator (or the caller must be root). Unlike shared memory segments, removing a semaphore set causes Linux to deallocate immediately. If a process allocate a shared memory, and many process use it and never set to delete it (with shmctl), if all them terminate, then the shared page continues being available. (We can see this with ipcs). If some process did the shmctl, then when the last process deattached, then the system will deallocate the shared memory. So far so good (I guess, if not, correct me). What I dont understand from that quote I did, is that first it say: "Semaphores continue to exist even after all processes using them have terminated." and then: "Unlike shared memory segments, removing a semaphore set causes Linux to deallocate immediately."

    Read the article

  • SQL 2 INNER JOINS with 3 tables

    - by Jelmer Holtes
    I've a question about a SQL query.. I'm building a prototype webshop in ASP.NET Visual Studio. Now I'm looking for a solution to view my products. I've build a database in MS Access, it consists of multiple tables. The tables which are important for my question are: Product Productfoto Foto Below you'll see the relations between the tables For me it is important to get three datatypes: Product title, price and image. The product title, and the price are in the Product table. The images are in the Foto table. Because a product can have more than one picture, there is a N - M relation between them. So I've to split it up, I did it in the Productfoto table. So the connection between them is: product.artikelnummer -> productfoto.artikelnummer productfoto.foto_id -> foto.foto_id Then I can read the filename (in the database: foto.bestandnaam) I've created the first inner join, and tested it in Access, this works: SELECT titel, prijs, foto_id FROM Product INNER JOIN Productfoto ON product.artikelnummer = productfoto.artikelnummer But I need another INNER JOIN, how could I create that? I guess something like this (this one will give me an error) SELECT titel, prijs, bestandnaam FROM Product (( INNER JOIN Productfoto ON product.artikelnummer = productfoto.artikkelnummer ) INNER JOIN foto ON productfoto.foto_id = foto.foto_id) Can anyone help me?

    Read the article

  • can javascript process binary data?

    - by Johnny
    admit me describe my questions in situation-oriented way: assume IE is still the dominate web browser(the firefox have document for binary processing): the XMLHttpRequest.responseText or XMLHttpRequest.responseXML in ie desire txt or xml/xhtml/html,but what about the server response the xmlHttprequest whith MIME TYPE application/octet ? would the response string all little than 256 ?(every char of that string < 256), thanks very much for a straight answer, i have no webserver env,so i don't know how to test it out. because use txt or xml have a issue of character set encode, and i don't know how to process #[[[CDDATA node of one encoded xml(ex : utf-8,ascii,gb18030) with javascript, when i getNodeText, does the docObj return me byte or decoded char ? if it was decoded char which according to the header indicated charSet in the httpresponse , it would be all wrong. to avoid mess up with charSet ,i would like the server to response octet data and force strings data to be encoded as utf-8 but another charSet in the binary format. if the response is octal, so i guess the browser would not try to decode the response"txt" does this weird? or miss understanding the fundamental things? EDIT: I believe the question is asking this: Can Javascript safely process strings that aren't encoded in Unicode? What are the problems with trying to do so? EDIT: no no no , i means if http-header: content-type is "application/octet" , would the ie try to decoded it as (16bits Unicode | ie local setting charset ) when i get XMLHttpRequestobj.responseText use javascript ? or it(ie) just wrap every single byte of the response body as a javascript string, then every char in that string little than or equal 256 (char<=256), am i talking Mars language? sadly, if i were Marsizen,i would come as tourist without fuzzy questions. however i am in a country which share at least one property with Mars : RED

    Read the article

  • Sql Server Compact Edition version error.

    - by Tim
    I am working on .NET ClickOnce project that uses Sql Server 2005 Compact Edition to synchronize remote data through the use of a Merge replication. This application has been live for nearly a year now, and while we encounter occasional synchronization errors, things run quite smoothly for the most part. Yesterday a user reported an error that I have never seen before and have yet to find any information for online. Many users synchronize every night, and I haven't received error reports from anyone else, so this issue must be isolated to this particular user / client machine. Here are the full details of the error: -Error Code : 80004005 -Message : The message contains an unexpected replication operation code. The version of SQL Server Compact Edition Client Agent and SQL Server Compact Edition Server Agent should match. [ replication operation code = 31 ] -Minor Error : 28526 -Source : Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition -Numeric Parameters : 31 One interesting thing that I've found is that his data does get synchronized to the server, so this error must occur after the upload completes. I have yet to determine whether or not changes at the server are still being downloaded to his subscription. Thinking that maybe there was some kind of version conflict going on, I had a remote desktop session with this user last night and uninstalled both the application and the SQL Server Compact Edition prerequisite, then reinstalled both from our ClickOnce publication site. I also removed his existing local database file so that upon synchronization, an entirely new subscription would be issued to him. Still his errors continue. I suppose the error may be somewhat general, and the text in the error message stating that the versions should match may not necessarily reflect the problem at hand. This site contains the only official reference to this error that I've been able to find, and it offers no more detail than the error message itself. Has anyone else encountered this error? Or at least know more about SQL Compact to have a better guess as to what is going on here? Any help / suggestions will be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • wmd editor, why does it keep showing html instead of just going straight to markup

    - by Ke
    hi, im wondering how wmd is supposed to work, when i type in the textarea the text doesnt have html, but once the text is stored in db it turns to html. wmd also shows all this html when reloading the content? is it supposed to work like this? Do I have to sanitize the text before its put into the db? if so how? I thought wmd doesnt deal with html? except in code blocks. Also there are p tags being added Using the beneath html it gets added directly. I guess this could cause xss attacks? - (1) <a onmouseover="alert(1)" href="#">read this!</a> - (2) <p <script>alert(1)</script>hello - (3) </td <script>alert(1)</script>hello I wonder how is wmd supposed to work? I thought it was supposed to enter everything in its own mark up, store its on mark up and retrieve it etc. instead of storing plain html Chees Ke

    Read the article

  • how to clear XFixes regions

    - by ~buratinas
    Hi, I'm writing some low level code for X11 platform. To achieve best data copying performance I use XFixes/XDamage extensions. How can I clear the contents of XFixes region after one refresh cycle? Or do they clean themselves after I use XFixesSetPictureClipRegion? My code is something like that: Display xdpy; XShamPixmap pixmap_; XFixesRegion region_; damage_event_callback(damage_geometry_t geometry, XDamage damage,...) { unsigned curr_region = XFixesCreateRegion(xdpy, 0, 0); XDamageSubtract(xdpy, damage, None, curr_region); XFixesTranslateRegion( xdpy, curr_region, geometry.left(), geometry.top() ); XFixesUnionRegion (xdpy, region_, region_, curr_region); } process_damage_events(...) { XFixesSetPictureClipRegion( xdpy, pixmap_, 0, 0, region_); XCopyArea (xdpy, window_->id(), pixmap_, XDefaultGC(xdpy, XDefaultScreen(xdpy)), 0,0,width(),height(),0,0); /*Should clear region_ here */ ... } Currently I clear the region by deleting and recreating, but I guess it's not the best way to do that.

    Read the article

  • Accessing a share point site using the object model.

    - by Prashanth
    Hi I am trying to access a share point site using the SP object model from a console application. I am trying to do something like this.. SPSite site = new SPSite(sitePath) //Operations go here This works fine when the share point site and the console app are on the same machine. However when the console app and the site are on different machines, I get an error "The Web application at "http://server/url" could not be found. Verify that you have typed the URL correctly. If the URL should be serving existing content, the system administrator may need to add a new request URL mapping to the intended application" Here are the things that I have already done: 1) I have tried accessing the site via both IP address as well as machine name, assuming that it could be a DNS resolution issue. 2) Initially I impersonated using a farm admin account, still i could not access. Then I added myself as the farm admin, still no joy. 4) The site is accessible via IE. So it is not a permission issue I guess. 5) I have tried almost all the solutions suggested by various links obtained by googling the error message. I am trying this on share point 2010. A similar issue occurs on 2007 also. Sometimes its kind of frustrating to do SharePoint development , since I get the feeling of stumbling from one error to the next, with no clue as to what could be wrong and the error messages not being helpful in the least :(

    Read the article

  • How to best launch C++ application from web page

    - by JB
    I guess there are two parts to this question, one technical and one best practice for security and doing things "right". I'm working on a little game using C++ / directx but I would like to be able to launch it from a web page by someone clicking on a link on that page. Ideally I would like the first time they clicked for it to launch an installer downloads and installs the game on their machine, and then the next time to launch an application which updates the game from a web site if it's old and then launches it. I have no problems with the expected security popups and questions the first time it runs. I want people to be certain what they are installing and understand what they are doing. But it would be nice if once it is installed they could run it with the minimum of fuss. My question then is what technologies I could use to do this? I'm thinking that it would need a browser plugin and an activex control so that first time you'd install that, and subsequently the control/plugin would be able to launch the game. I'm not sure that under newer browser secuity models that a plugin would have the permissions to be able to run an installer though or silently invoke applications on the client machine even if they are already installed. Is there a more sensible way to achive what I want to achieve? And I'm worried about the security aspects too. I want this to be convenient for users but I of course want to do it "right". I know this can be done as I've seen several mmorpg type games that launch in this way from the browser now but it's not entirely clear to me how they've done it.

    Read the article

  • Why does my Jabber bot only work if I'm debugging my Perl script?

    - by TheGNUGuy
    I am trying to make a jabber bot from scratch and my script is acting funny. I was originally developing the bot on a remote CentOS box, but I have switched to a local Win7 machine. Right now I'm using ActiveState Perl and I'm using Eclipse with the Perl plugin to run a debug the script. The funny behavior I'm experiencing occurs when I run or debug the script. If I run the script using the debugger it works fine, meaning I can send messages to the bot and it can send messages to me. However when I just execute the script normally the bot sends the successful connection message then it disconnects from my jabber server and the script ends. I'm a novice when it comes to Perl and I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. My guess is it has something to do with the subroutines and sending the presence of the bot. (I know for sure that it has something to do with sending the bot's presence because if the presence code is removed, the script behaves as expected except the bot doesn't appear to be online.) If anyone can help me with this that would be great. I originally had everything in 1 file but separated them into several trying to figure out my problem here are the pastebin links to my source code. jabberBot.pl: http://pastebin.com/cVifv0mm chatRoutine.pm: http://pastebin.com/JXmMT7av trimSpaces.pm: http://pastebin.com/SkeuWtu1 Thanks again for any help!

    Read the article

  • Loading an FLV in Facebox with jQuery for IE7 and IE8

    - by Trip
    It goes almost without saying, this works perfectly in Chrome, Firefox, and Safari. IE (any version) being the problem. Objective: I am trying to load JWplayer which loads an FLV from S3 in a Facebox popup. jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $('a[rel*=facebox]').facebox() }) HTML (haml): %li#videoGirl = link_to 'What is HQchannel?', '#player', :rel => 'facebox' .grid_8.omega.alpha#player{:style => 'display: none;'} :javascript var so = new SWFObject('/flash/playerTrans.swf','mpl','640px','360px','0'); so.addParam('allowscriptaccess','always'); so.addParam('allowfullscreen','true'); so.addParam('wmode','transparent'); so.addVariable('file', 'http://hometownquarterlyvideos.s3.amazonaws.com/whatishqchannel.flv&autostart=true&controlbar=none&repeat=always&image=/flash/video_girl/whatishqchannel.jpg&icons=false&screencolor=none&backcolor=FFFFFF&screenalpha=0&overstretch'); so.addVariable('overstretch', 'true') so.write('player'); Problem: Despite the video being set to display: none;. It begins playing anyway. When clicking on the activation div, IE7 pops up a wrong sized blank div with a nav (params are set to not show nav and scrubber), and no buttons on the nav and srubber work. IE8 shows the right size but same behavior with nav and scrubber not working, and blank screen. My guess: I'm thinking that the problem is with the javascript not being called at the right times. It seems it's loading the facebox without the jwplayer. At least I assume. Hence the reason why the nav is there. I thinking that it did not read the javascript for that.

    Read the article

  • What should be taught in a "Fundamentals of programming" course at university?

    - by Dervin Thunk
    I have started a new question (see here), because I think the topic is of importance in a more general form. The question is now: If you were a professor at a Computer Science Dept. in some university, what would make it into your course? This is a programming course, second term, first year computer science/computer engineering. Remember you have a limited amount of time, and students are of different levels of competence, and some may be scientists, but some will also go on to be programmers in companies of different kinds. You have to cater to all. Bonus: What language? (Although see this question for my current thoughts about this...) Maybe you want to attach a course outline from some university? See here for an even more general question about this. Answer: I can't really summarize this post... I guess it was too subjective. However, it looks like we have to cover the history of computing up to a certain extent, computer architecture (memory, registers, whatever), C, and finally some basic algos and data structures in a problem solving fashion. This will be the bare bones of the course. Thanks all. I will accept the most voted up answer to close the thread, as it should be done.

    Read the article

  • Programming time schedule for porting a program.

    - by Lothar
    I'm working on a large program which has an abstracted GUI API. It is very GUI based, many dialogs and a few nasty features which rely heavily on the message flow of the GUI (correct sequences of focus/mouse/active handling etc.) - not easy to port I now want to port it from the currently used FOX Toolkit to native Cocoa/MFC. I give myself a timeframe until the end of the year but my main work will be to continue development work with the existing toolkit, but there is no planned release for end customers before both tasks are done. My question is how should i spend my time? Stop working on the main program and do a 90% port (about 3 month) of the GUI first Splitting everything into smaller sessions of one month each. Assigning Monday/Tuesday to the GUI project and the rest of the week for the app. Finishing the App first, then port. I think there are three arguments which i need to balance. Motivation, i want to see something going on on both projects Brain Input Overflow, both tasks require a lot of detail information in my brain and sometimes enough is just enough. I guess the porting is intervowen so porting would also require a lot of code changes in the existing code and the new code that will be written in the meantime.

    Read the article

  • Can't see *all* databases in a remote SQL Server instance

    - by George
    Yesterday I posted a related question on StackOverflow. This problem involved not being able to see a SQL Server 2008 instance on another PC. I am not sure why adding the port number enabled me to see a SQL Server that I could not otherwise see, since the port number that I specified was, after all, the default port. Now I notice that I have another problem. While I can connect to the remote SQL 2008 Server instance, I cannot see all the databases in the instance. I am trying to connect to the 2008 instance from another PC using SQL Server 2008 Mgt Studio. I am connecting from a Windows 7 Ultimate PC to a Windows XP Pro PC. I suspect that my problem has something to do with not all database in the remote instance having the same version. For example, I "upgraded" a a SL 2005 database to 2008 by doing a backup frm 2005 and importing it into 2008. When I realized that this was not one of the database that I could see from my other PC, I noticed that the compatability level of the imported was still 2005, so I changed it to 2008. Still I could not see the database. I am sure that this is relevant: I just noticed that on my remote server, the sql node instance node, named "sql2008" says "version 10" when I am on the remote serfver, but when I connect to the sql2008 remote instance fron my local PC, the connection is shown locally as being a "SQL Servr version 8.0" instance. I suspect that locally, I am only being shown databases that are somehow in the remote 2008 instance but have not been upgraded. I guess I don't know what constitutes an upgraded database and I don not know who to connect to see all the databases, even if this requires multiple connections from the source PC.

    Read the article

  • MYSQL - SELECT ALL FROM TABLE if...

    - by hornetbzz
    Hello I have a (nice) mysql table built like this : Fields Datas id (pk) 1 2 3 4 5 6 master_id 1000 1000 1000 2000 2000 2000 ... master_name home home home shop shop shop ... type_data value common client value common client ... param_a foo_a 1 0 bar_a 0 1 ... param_b foo_b 1 0 bar_b 1 0 ... param_c foo_c 0 1 bar_c 0 1 ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... All these datas are embed in a single table. Each datas are dispatched on 3 "columns" set (1 for the values, 1 for identifying if these are common values and one for identifying client values). It's not the best I got but many other scripts depends on this structure. I'd need sthg like this: SELECT parameters name (eg param_a, param_b..) and their values (eg foo_a, foo_b..) WHEN master_id=? AND type_data=(common or client) (eg for values=1 on the 2nd column) . in order to get the parameters hash like param_a => foo_a param_b => foo_b param_c => foo_c ... I could not succeed in self joining on the same table till now but I guess it should be feasible. (I'd like to avoid to do several queries) Thx in advance

    Read the article

  • "rsAccessDenied" error for SSRS 2008

    - by JackLocke
    Hi All, I have been trying to access SSRS Web Service URL hxxp://myServer:80/ReportServer (from Reporting Service Configuration Manager), but my IE always shows "rsAccessDenied" message saying that my account doesn't have privilage required to view. Here are my system specs. Its my laptop with Windows 7 x64, and SQL Server 2008 with SP1 and I am using Mixed Mode Authentication with My account as SysAdmin privilages and this is what I have been trying / tried ... (ofcourse with restarting the service everytime I make any change in configuration), I changed service account from Reporting Service Configuration Manager to make it use My account but nothing happend. I tried running my IE as admin, by RUN AS ADMIN but still same message. Then I read somewhere I have to delete/recreate my encryption keys as well, so I tried again with that, then it was asking me to enter ID/PWD to access server here I am totally blank because it was not accepting my account credentials !!!. Weird thing is I can see my existing reports if I follow this URL hxxp://myServer:80/Reports , for which My guess is solely used to view reports. I have read post here about kind of same problem, but it seems that OP just left forum after asking question... Also, MSDN does have these helps hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms156034.aspx hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630430.aspx but both of this didn't workout for me. I will really appriciate it if any one can help me out. Jack p.s. I was not allowed to post more than 1 URL because of my "reputation" so I had to change the string a bit. Please replace hxxp wih http in URLs.

    Read the article

  • Windows mobile 6.0 network settings

    - by Gauls
    Hi I am using Windows mobile 6.0 classic PDA's , I want to use wireless to access my service on the server(Win 2008), what should be my settings in the PDA network management? here's what my settings which works for some PDA's and for some it works for some time and stops? and for some PDA's similar settings does not work at all?? "Programs that connect to the internet..." = ISP "Programs that connect to a private network..." = My Work Network BTW what is this My work network ??? i don't understand as my PDA's use wireless (with proxy) i wud guess ISP to both should work right? but when i change second option to ISP as well the PDA that can connect to internet and server thru PDA IE but not through .netCF application will not get connected at all, but will work fine (apart from .netCF application accessing the server) if i change the second option back to My work network, so basically PDA is not using the first option of ISP at all ?? All i want to know is 1.) correct settings for WM 6.0 classic wirelessly accesing server 2008 with proxy 2) explain what is my work network ? Thanks gauls

    Read the article

  • Pre-populate iPhone Safari SQLite DB

    - by Matt Rogish
    I'm working with a PhoneGap app that uses Safari local storage (SQlite DB) via Javascript: http://developer.apple.com/safari/library/documentation/iPhone/Conceptual/SafariJSDatabaseGuide/UsingtheJavascriptDatabase/UsingtheJavascriptDatabase.html On first load, the app creates the database, tables, and populates the data via a series of INSERT statements. If the user closes the app while this processing is happening, then my app database is left in an inconsistent state. What I prefer to do is deploy the SQLite DB as part of my iTunes App packaging so nothing must be populated at app cold start. However, I'm not sure if that is possible -- all of the google hits for this topic that I can find are referring to the core-data provided SQLite which is not what we're using... If it's not possible, could I wrap the entire thing in a transaction and keep re-trying it when the app is restarted? Failing that, I guess I can create a simple table with one boolean column "is_app_db_loaded?" and set it to true after I've processed all my inserts. But that's really gross... Ideas? Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • Installer downloads wrong version of sql server compact edition

    - by MartinStettner
    I have a Visual Studio setup project which defines SQL Server 3.5 as prerequisite. I also set it up to download the required files from the source (i.e. Microsoft). My project uses Sql Server 3.5 SP1. If I create the installer on my development machine, everything works fine. When the installer is built on the build machine, it downloads the "old" 3.5 version (without SP1) which makes my application crash. (If I install SP1 on the test system manually, the application just works find...) I installed both Visual Studio 2008 SP1 and Sql Server 3.5 SP1 on the build machine. This seems to be some issue with the prerequisite packages but they look the same on the development and the build machines. Any idea what goes wrong here? EDIT Ok, I rechecked it and the package descriptions are'nt the sames. Oddly enough, the .msi file is the right one on the build machine but the old one on the development machine, so I guess if I tried to build an installer which includes the prerequisites, I'd get the wrong result on the dev machine and the right one on the build machine. Extended question: How are the prerequesite packages (under C:\Program Files\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v6.0A\Bootstrapper\Packages\SQL Server Compact Edition) meant to be updated to SP1? Is the SQL Server CE SP1 installer responsible for this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254  | Next Page >