Search Results

Search found 7418 results on 297 pages for 'argument passing'.

Page 248/297 | < Previous Page | 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255  | Next Page >

  • Javascript WebGL error

    - by Chris
    Hi I can load 400 textured cylinders using o3d webl, as soon as I push the test upto 600 cylinders I get the following.. uncaught exception: [Exception... "Could not convert JavaScript argument arg 0 [nsIDOMWebGLRenderingContext.getShaderInfoLog" nsresult: "0x80570009 (NS_ERROR_XPC_BAD_CONVERT-JS)" location: "JS frame :: file:///d:/o3d-webgl/effect.js :: :: line 181" data: no) This is the error from minefield, does anyone know what this means? This is the function: o3d.Effect.prototype.bindAttributesAndLinkIfReady = function() { if (this.vertexShaderLoaded_ && this.fragmentShaderLoaded_) { var semanticMap = o3d.Effect.semanticMap_; for (var name in semanticMap) { this.gl.bindAttribLocation( this.program_, semanticMap[name].gl_index, name); } this.gl.linkProgram(this.program_); if (!this.gl.getProgramParameter(this.program_, this.gl.LINK_STATUS)) { var log = this.gl.getShaderInfoLog(this.program_); this.gl.client.error_callback( 'Program link failed with error log:\n' + log); } this.getUniforms_(); this.getAttributes_(); } }; It falls over on ... var log = this.gl.getShaderInfoLog(this.program_);

    Read the article

  • How to perform two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and they don't provide any answers that helped me solve this problem. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

    Read the article

  • RFC regarding WAM

    - by Noctis Skytower
    Request For Comment regarding Whitespace's Assembly Mnemonics What follows in a first generation attempt at creating mnemonics for a whitespace assembly language. STACK ===== push number copy copy number swap away away number MATH ==== add sub mul div mod HEAP ==== set get FLOW ==== part label call label goto label zero label less label back exit I/O === ochr oint ichr iint In the interest of making improvements to this small and simple instruction set, this is a second attempt. hold N Push the number onto the stack copy Duplicate the top item on the stack copy N Copy the nth item on the stack (given by the argument) onto the top of the stack swap Swap the top two items on the stack drop Discard the top item on the stack drop N Slide n items off the stack, keeping the top item add Addition sub Subtraction mul Multiplication div Integer Division mod Modulo save Store load Retrieve L: Mark a location in the program call L Call a subroutine goto L Jump unconditionally to a label if=0 L Jump to a label if the top of the stack is zero if<0 L Jump to a label if the top of the stack is negative return End a subroutine and transfer control back to the caller exit End the program print chr Output the character at the top of the stack print int Output the number at the top of the stack input chr Read a character and place it in the location given by the top of the stack input int Read a number and place it in the location given by the top of the stack What do you think of the following revised list for Whitespace's assembly instructions? I'm still thinking outside of the box somewhat and trying to come up with a better mnemonic set than last time. When the previous interpreter was written, it was completed over two contiguous, rushed evenings. This rewrite deserves significantly more time now that it is the summer. Of course, the next version of Whitespace (0.4) may have its instructions revised even more, but this is just a redesign of what originally was done in a very short amount of time. Hopefully, the instructions make more sense once someone new to programmings thinks about them.

    Read the article

  • Problem with javascript onclick function string

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all, i have been trying for a few minutes on this problem and i can not seem to figure out how to correct it. I tend to have the hardest time doing stuff like this when it involves more than one varable within the function. Here is the code: var tempString = "thePrompt('Are you sure you wish to delete this?', 'theDel('" + IDnum + "', '" + theTitle + "', \'" + temperDay + "\', \'" + temperMonth + "\', \'" + temperYear + "\', \'" + DDiff + "\')"; html += "<div id='theTable" + IDnum + "' class='fc-event fc-event-hori fc-corner-left fc-corner-right' style='position:absolute; margin-top: 15px; z-index:8;left:"+left+"px'><div id='apDEL' style='position:relative;width:0px;height:0px;z-index:1000; top:-13px; left:2px; float:left;'><img src='img/xCal.png' width='15' height='15' alt='' border='0' onclick=\"" + tempString + "\" /></div>" + (ETC ETC...) The error i keep getting is this: Error: missing ) after argument list Line: 1, Column: 68 Source Code: thePrompt('Are you sure you wish to delete this posting?', 'theDel('105', '50 points for visiting us today!!!!', '13', '3', '2010', '2') And its pointing to the '105'. As always, any help would be wonderful! :o) David

    Read the article

  • Using HttpClient with SSL and certificates

    - by ChrisCM
    While I've been familiar with HTTPS and the concept of SSL, I have recently begun some development and found I am a little confused. The requirement was that I write a small Java application that runs on a machine attached to a scanner. When a document is scanned this is picked up and the file (usually PDF) sent over the internet to our application server that will then process it. I've written the application using Apache Commons libraries and HTTPClient. The second requirement was to connect over SSL, requiring a certificate. Following guidance on the HTTPclient page I am using AuthSSLProtocolSocketFactory from the contributions page. The constructor can take a keystore, keystore password, truststore and truststore password. As an initial test our DBA enabled SSL on one of our development webservers and provided me with a .p12 file which when I imported into IE allows me to connect successfully. I am a bit confused between keystores and truststores and what steps I need to take using the keytool. I tried importing the p12 into a keystore file but get the error: keytool error: java.lang.Exception: Input not an X.509 certificate I followed a suggestion of importing the p12 into Internet Explorer and exporting as a .cer which I can then successfully import into a keystore. When I supply this as a keystore argument of the AuthSSLProtocolSocketFactory I get a meaningless errror, but if I try it as a truststore it seems like it reads it fine but ultimately I get Caused by: javax.net.ssl.SSLHandshakeException: Received fatal alert: bad_certificate I am unsure if I have missed some steps, I am misunderstanding SSL and mutual authentication altogether or this is mis-configuration on the server side. Can anyone provide suggestions or point me towards resources that might help me figure this out please?

    Read the article

  • Perl OO frameworks and program design - Moose and Conway's inside-out objects (Class::Std)

    - by Emmel
    This is more of a use-case type of question... but also generic enough to be more broadly applicable: In short, I'm working on a module that's more or less a command-line wrapper; OO naturally. Without going into too many details (unless someone wants them), there isn't a crazy amount of complexity to the system, but it did feel natural to have three or four objects in this framework. Finally, it's an open source thing I'll put out there, rather than a module with a few developers in the same firm working on it. First I implemented the OO using Class::Std, because Perl Best Practices (Conway, 2005) made a good argument for why to use inside-out objects. Full control over what attributes get accessed and so on, proper encapsulation, etc. Also his design is surprisingly simple and clever. I liked it, but then noticed that no one really uses this; in fact it seems Conway himself doesn't really recommend this anymore? So I moved to everyone's favorite, Moose. It's easy to use, although way way overkill feature-wise for what I want to do. The big, major downside is: it's got a slew of module dependencies that force users of my module to download them all. A minor downside is it's got way more functionality than I really need. What are recommendations? Inconvenience fellow developers by forcing them to use a possibly-obsolete module, or force every user of the module to download Moose and all its dependencies? Is there a third option for a proper Perl OO framework that's popular but neither of these two?

    Read the article

  • using python 'with' statement with iterators?

    - by Stephen
    Hi, I'm using Python 2.5. I'm trying to use this 'with' statement. from __future__ import with_statement a = [] with open('exampletxt.txt','r') as f: while True: a.append(f.next().strip().split()) print a The contents of 'exampletxt.txt' are simple: a b In this case, I get the error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "/tmp/python-7036sVf.py", line 5, in <module> a.append(f.next().strip().split()) StopIteration And if I replace f.next() with f.read(), it seems to be caught in an infinite loop. I wonder if I have to write a decorator class that accepts the iterator object as an argument, and define an __exit__ method for it? I know it's more pythonic to use a for-loop for iterators, but I wanted to implement a while loop within a generator that's called by a for-loop... something like def g(f): while True: x = f.next() if test1(x): a = x elif test2(x): b = f.next() yield [a,x,b] a = [] with open(filename) as f: for x in g(f): a.append(x)

    Read the article

  • vimscript: calling dictionary functions with call()

    - by intuited
    I'm hoping to call a "static" dictionary function using call(). By "static" I mean that the keyword 'dict' is not used in the function's definition. I use this nomenclature in the hopes that the effect of this keyword is to declare a static member function as is possible in java/C++/etc, ie to put the function name in the class namespace but allow it to be called without referencing an object. However this doesn't seem to work. For example: " Setup: let testdict = { } funct! testdict.funct() echo "called" endfunct " Tests: " Following each line is an indented comment " containing its output in message land, ie what was echoed. call testdict.funct() " called echo testdict.funct " 667 echo string(testdict.funct) " function('667') echo function('667') " E475: Invalid argument: 667 echo function('testdict.funct') " testdict.funct call call(testdict.funct, [ ]) " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 " Same deal if there's an intermediate variable involved. let TestdictDotFunct = testdict.funct echo TestdictDotFunct " 667 echo string(TestdictDotFunct) " function('667') call TestdictDotFunct() " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 From the help topic E725: It is also possible to add a function without the "dict" attribute as a Funcref to a Dictionary, but the "self" variable is not available then. So logic would seem to indicate that if "self" is not available, then it should be possible to call the function referenced by the Funcref without a Dictionary. However this doesn't seem to be the case. Am I missing something? Vim version info: $ aptitude show vim-gnome Package: vim-gnome State: installed Automatically installed: no Version: 2:7.2.245-2ubuntu2

    Read the article

  • how to use anonymous generic delegate in C# 2.0

    - by matti
    Hi. I have a class called NTree: class NTree<T> { public NTree(T data) { this.data = data; children = new List<NTree<T>>(); _stopTraverse = false; } ... public void Traverse(NTree<T> node, TreeVisitor<T> visitor) { try { _stopTraverse = false; Traverse(node, visitor); } finally { _stopTraverse = false; } } private void TraverseInternal(NTree<T> node, TreeVisitor<T> visitor) { if (_stopTraverse) return; if (!visitor(node.data)) { _stopTraverse = true; } foreach (NTree<T> kid in node.children) Traverse(kid, visitor); } When I try to use Traverse with anonymous delegate I get: Argument '2': cannot convert from 'anonymous method' to 'NisConverter.TreeVisitor' The code: tTable srcTable = new tTable(); DataRow[] rows; rootTree.Traverse(rootTree, delegate(TableRows tr) { if (tr.TableName == srcTable.mappingname) { rows = tr.Rows; return false; } }); This however produces no errors: static bool TableFinder<TableRows>(TableRows tr) { return true; } ... rootTree.Traverse(rootTree, TableFinder); I have tried to put "arrowhead-parenthisis" and everything to anonymous delegate but it just does not work. Please help me! Thanks & BR -Matti

    Read the article

  • FireFox Toolbar Prefwindow unload/acceptdialog Event to Update the toolbar

    - by Mark
    Hi all, I'm trying to develop a firefox toolbar ;) so my structure is In the options.xul is an PrefWindow which i'm opening over an <toolbarbutton oncommand="esbTb_OpenPreferences()"/> function esbTb_OpenPreferences() { window.openDialog("chrome://Toolbar/content/options.xul", "einstellungen", "chrome,titlebar,toolbar,centerscreen,modal", this);} so in my preferences i can set some checkboxes which indicates what links are presented in my toolbar. So when the preferences window is Closed or the "Ok" button is hitted I want to raise an event or an function which updates via DOM my toolbar. So this is the function which is called when the toolbar is loaded. It sets the links visibility of the toolbar. function esbTB_LoadMenue() { var MenuItemNews = document.getElementById("esbTb_rss_reader"); var MenuItemEservice = document.getElementById("esbTb_estv"); if (!(prefManager.getBoolPref("extensions.esbtoolbar.ShowNews"))) { MenuItemNews.style.display = 'none'; } if (!(prefManager.getBoolPref("extensions.esbtoolbar.ShowEservice"))) { MenuItemEservice.style.display = 'none'; } } So I tried some thinks like adding an eventlistener to the dialog which doesn't work... in the way I tried... And i also tried to hand over the window object from the root window( the toolbar) as an argument of the opendialog function changed the function to this. function esbTB_LoadMenue(RootWindow) { var MenuItemNews = RootWindow.getElementById("esbTb_rss_reader"); var MenuItemEservice = RootWindow.getElementById("esbTb_estv");} And then tried to Access the elements over the handover object, but this also not changed my toolbar at runtime. So what i'm trying to do is to change the visibile links in my toolbar during the runtime and I don't get it how I should do that... thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • sed/awk or other: one-liner to increment a number by 1 keeping spacing characters

    - by WizardOfOdds
    EDIT: I don't know in advance at which "column" my digits are going to be and I'd like to have a one-liner. Apparently sed doesn't do arithmetic, so maybe a one-liner solution based on awk? I've got a string: (notice the spacing) eh oh 37 and I want it to become: eh oh 36 (so I want to keep the spacing) Using awk I don't find how to do it, so far I have: echo "eh oh 37" | awk '$3>=0&&$3<=99 {$3--} {print}' But this gives: eh oh 36 (the spacing characters where lost, because the field separator is ' ') Is there a way to ask awk something like "print the output using the exact same field separators as the input had"? Then I tried yet something else, using awk's sub(..,..) method: ' sub(/[0-9][0-9]/, ...) {print}' but no cigar yet: I don't know how to reference the regexp and do arithmetic on it in the second argument (which I left with '...' for now). Then I tried with sed, but got stuck after this: echo "eh oh 37" | sed -e 's/\([0-9][0-9]\)/.../' Can I do arithmetic from sed using a reference to the matching digits and have the output not modify the number of spacing characters? Note that it's related to my question concerning Emacs and how to apply this to some (big) Emacs region (using a replace region with Emacs's shell-command-on-region) but it's not an identical question: this one is specifically about how to "keep spaces" when working with awk/sed/etc.

    Read the article

  • Pros and cons of making database IDs consistent and "readable"

    - by gmale
    Question Is it a good rule of thumb for database IDs to be "meaningless?" Conversely, are there significant benefits from having IDs structured in a way where they can be recognized at a glance? What are the pros and cons? Background I just had a debate with my coworkers about the consistency of the IDs in our database. We have a data-driven application that leverages spring so that we rarely ever have to change code. That means, if there's a problem, a data change is usually the solution. My argument was that by making IDs consistent and readable, we save ourselves significant time and headaches, long term. Once the IDs are set, they don't have to change often and if done right, future changes won't be difficult. My coworkers position was that IDs should never matter. Encoding information into the ID violates DB design policies and keeping them orderly requires extra work that, "we don't have time for." I can't find anything online to support either position. So I'm turning to all the gurus here at SA! Example Imagine this simplified list of database records representing food in a grocery store, the first set represents data that has meaning encoded in the IDs, while the second does not: ID's with meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 101 Apple 102 Banana 103 Orange 201 Lettuce 202 Onion 203 Carrot Location 41 Aisle four top shelf 42 Aisle four bottom shelf 51 Aisle five top shelf 52 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 10141 Apple on aisle four top shelf 10241 Banana on aisle four top shelf //just by reading the ids, it's easy to recongnize that these are both Fruit on Aisle 4 ID's without meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 1 Apple 2 Banana 3 Orange 4 Lettuce 5 Onion 6 Carrot Location 1 Aisle four top shelf 2 Aisle four bottom shelf 3 Aisle five top shelf 4 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 1 Apple on aisle four top shelf 2 Banana on aisle four top shelf //given the IDs, it's harder to see that these are both fruit on aisle 4 Summary What are the pros and cons of keeping IDs readable and consistent? Which approach do you generally prefer and why? Is there an accepted industry best-practice?

    Read the article

  • Python: Class factory using user input as class names

    - by Sano98
    Hi everyone, I want to add class atttributes to a superclass dynamically. Furthermore, I want to create classes that inherit from this superclass dynamically, and the name of those subclasses should depend on user input. There is a superclass "Unit", to which I can add attributes at runtime. This already works. def add_attr (cls, name, value): setattr(cls, name, value) class Unit(object): pass class Archer(Unit): pass myArcher = Archer() add_attr(Unit, 'strength', 5) print "Strenght ofmyarcher: " + str(myArcher.strength) Archer.strength = 2 print "Strenght ofmyarcher: " + str(myArcher.strength) This leads to the desired output: Strenght ofmyarcher: 5 Strenght ofmyarcher: 2 But now I don't want to predefine the subclass Archer, but I'd rather let the user decide how to call this subclass. I've tried something like this: class Meta(type, subclassname): def __new__(cls, subclassname, bases, dct): return type.__new__(cls, subclassname, Unit, dct) factory = Meta() factory.__new__("Soldier") but no luck. I guess I haven't really understood what new does here. What I want as a result here is class Soldier(Unit): pass being created by the factory. And if I call the factory with the argument "Knight", I'd like a class Knight, subclass of Unit, to be created. Any ideas? Many thanks in advance! Bye -Sano

    Read the article

  • AES Encryption Java Invalid Key length

    - by wuntee
    I am trying to create an AES encryption method, but for some reason I keep getting a 'java.security.InvalidKeyException: Key length not 128/192/256 bits'. Here is the code: public static SecretKey getSecretKey(char[] password, byte[] salt) throws NoSuchAlgorithmException, InvalidKeySpecException{ SecretKeyFactory factory = SecretKeyFactory.getInstance("PBEWithMD5AndDES"); // NOTE: last argument is the key length, and it is 256 KeySpec spec = new PBEKeySpec(password, salt, 1024, 256); SecretKey tmp = factory.generateSecret(spec); SecretKey secret = new SecretKeySpec(tmp.getEncoded(), "AES"); return(secret); } public static byte[] encrypt(char[] password, byte[] salt, String text) throws NoSuchAlgorithmException, InvalidKeySpecException, NoSuchPaddingException, InvalidKeyException, InvalidParameterSpecException, IllegalBlockSizeException, BadPaddingException, UnsupportedEncodingException{ SecretKey secret = getSecretKey(password, salt); Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("AES"); // NOTE: This is where the Exception is being thrown cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, secret); byte[] ciphertext = cipher.doFinal(text.getBytes("UTF-8")); return(ciphertext); } Can anyone see what I am doing wrong? I am thinking it may have something to do with the SecretKeyFactory algorithm, but that is the only one I can find that is supported on the end system I am developing against. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to set focus to a brand new TextBox which was created as a result of a databinding in WPF?

    - by Mike
    Hi everyone, I have a WPF ItemsControl that is bound to an ObservableCollection. The XAML: <ItemsControl Name="mItemsControl"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox Text="{Binding Mode=OneWay}"></TextBox> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> The codebehind: private ObservableCollection<string> mCollection = new ObservableCollection<string>(); public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); this.mCollection.Add("Test1"); this.mCollection.Add("Test2"); this.mItemsControl.ItemsSource = this.mCollection; } private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.mCollection.Add("new item!"); } When I click a button, it adds a new string to the databound ObservableCollection which triggers a new TextBox to appear. I want to give this new textbox focus. I've tried this technique from a related StackOverflow question but it always sets focus to the textbox before the newly created one. private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.mCollection.Add("new item!"); // MoveFocus takes a TraversalRequest as its argument. TraversalRequest request = new TraversalRequest(FocusNavigationDirection.Previous); // Gets the element with keyboard focus. UIElement elementWithFocus = Keyboard.FocusedElement as UIElement; // Change keyboard focus. if (elementWithFocus != null) { elementWithFocus.MoveFocus(request); } } My need seems simple enough, but it's almost like the new textbox doesn't really exist until a slight delay after something is added to the ObservableCollection. Any ideas of what would work? Thanks! -Mike

    Read the article

  • How do I pass a callback function to sqlite3_exec on iOS 5.1?

    - by John Doh
    I am new to both xcode/iOS/Objective-C and sqlite. I am trying to teach myself the basics - and I would like to use the sqlite3 wrapper "sqlite3_exec" for a select query. For some reason, I can't find a simple example anywhere of someone doing this. Basically, the method has a parameter (the third one) for a callback function: int sqlite3_exec( sqlite3*, /* An open database */ const char *sql, /* SQL to be evaluated */ int (*callback)(void*,int,char**,char**), /* Callback function */ void *, /* 1st argument to callback */ char **errmsg /* Error msg written here */ ); That's fine. I'm no stranger to callbacks. However, I just can't seem to get the syntax down right. I took over one of the view controllers in my iPad (iOS 5.1) xcode (4.3) project, and made the changes shown below: #import "SecondViewController.h" #import "sqlite3.h" #import "AppState.h" @interface SecondViewController () @end @implementation SecondViewController - (int)myCallback:(void *)a_parm argc:(int)argc argv:(char **)argv column:(char **)column { return 0; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. //grab questionnaire names char *sql = "select * from QST2Main order by [Name]"; char *err = nil; sqlite3 *db = [[AppState sharedManager] getgCn]; sqlite3_exec(db, sql, myCallback, nil, &err); } Essentially, I want to run a query when this view first loads, to store some data for later use. But, XCode doesn't like the "myCallback" usage at the bottom there. It says: Undeclared Use of Identifier 'myCallback.' That method is declared in the header file, and I've even tried making it static. Nothing seems to make this error go away. I know I must be doing something fundamentally wrong here, but for the life of me I can't figure out what - I can't even find other code samples in this area that could help me figure out what I'm missing. Many thanks!

    Read the article

  • boost::binding that which is already bound

    - by PaulH
    I have a Visual Studio 2008 C++ application that does something like this: template< typename Fcn > inline void Bar( Fcn fcn ) // line 84 { fcn(); }; template< typename Fcn > inline void Foo( Fcn fcn ) { // this works fine Bar( fcn ); // this fails to compile boost::bind( Bar, fcn )(); }; void main() { SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX status = { 0 }; Foo( boost::bind( ::GetSystemPowerStatusEx, &status, true ) ); // line 160 } *The call to GetSystemPowerStatusEx() is just for demonstration. Insert your favorite call there and the behavior is the same. When I go to compile this, I get 84 errors. I won't post them all unless asked, but they start with this: 1>.\MyApp.cpp(99) : error C2896: 'boost::_bi::bind_t<_bi::dm_result<MT::* ,A1>::type,boost::_mfi::dm<M,T>,_bi::list_av_1<A1>::type> boost::bind(M T::* ,A1)' : cannot use function template 'void Bar(Fcn)' as a function argument 1> .\MyApp.cpp(84) : see declaration of 'Bar' 1> .\MyApp.cpp(160) : see reference to function template instantiation 'void Foo<boost::_bi::bind_t<R,F,L>>(Fcn)' being compiled 1> with 1> [ 1> R=BOOL, 1> F=BOOL (__cdecl *)(PSYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX,BOOL), 1> L=boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<_SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX *>,boost::_bi::value<bool>>, 1> Fcn=boost::_bi::bind_t<BOOL,BOOL (__cdecl *)(PSYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX,BOOL),boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<_SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX *>,boost::_bi::value<bool>>> 1> ] If anybody can point out what I may be doing wrong, I would appreciate it. Thanks, PaulH

    Read the article

  • Makefile for DOS/Windows and Cygwin

    - by Thomas Matthews
    I need to have a makefile work under DOS (Windows) and Cygwin. I having problems with the makefile detecting the OS correctly and setting appropriate variables. The objective is to set variables for the following commands, then invoke the commands in rules using the variables: Delete file: rm in Cygwin, del in DOS. Remove directory: rmdir (different parameters in Cygwin and DOS) Copy file: cp in Cygwin, copy in DOS. Testing for file existance: test in Cygwin, IF EXIST in DOS. Listing contents of a file: cat in Cygwin, type in DOS. Here is my attempt, which always uses the else clause: OS_KIND = $(OSTYPE) #OSTYPE is an environment variable set by Cygwin. ifeq ($(OS_KIND), cygwin) ENV_OS = Cygwin RM = rm -f RMDIR = rmdir -r CP = cp REN = mv IF_EXIST = test -a IF_NOT_EXIST = ! test -a LIST_FILE = cat else ENV_OS = Win_Cmd RM = del -f -Q RMDIR = rmdir /S /Q IF_EXIST = if exist IF_NOT_EXIST = if not exist LIST_FILE = type endif I'm using the forward slash character, '/', as a directory separator. This is a problem with the DOS command, as it is interpreting it as program argument rather than a separator. Anybody know how to resolve this issue? Edit: I am using make with Mingw in both Windows Console (DOS) and Cygwin.

    Read the article

  • Why user control with code behind file doesn't want to compile under MVC2?

    - by kyrisu
    I have user control in my MVC2 app placed in the Content folder (it's not supposed to be a view, just reusable part of the app). UserControl1.ascx looks like: <@ Control AutoEventWireup="true" Language="C#" CodeFile="~/Content/UserControl1.ascx.cs" Inherits="MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1" %> <div runat="server" id="mydiv"> <asp:LinkButton id="lb_text" runat="server"></asp:LinkButton> </div> UserControl1.ascx.cs looks like: using System; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; namespace MVCDrill.Content { public class UserControl1 : UserControl { public string Text { get { return this.lb_text.Text; } set { this.lb_text.Text = value; } } } } I'm pretty sure this kind of stuff compiled under webforms but I'm getting compilation error: 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' does not contain a definition for 'lb_text' and no extension method 'lb_text' accepting a first argument of type 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Am I missing something? How to change it (what is the alternative) in MVC2 ? p.s. Intellisense sees lb_text with no problem. I've tried with different controls with the same outcome.

    Read the article

  • TableView Cells unresponsive

    - by John Donovan
    I have a TableView and I wish to be able to press several cells one after the other and have messages appear. At the moment the cells are often unresponsive. I found some coed for a similar problem someone was kind enough to post, however, although he claimed it worked 100% it doesn't work for me. The app won't even build. Here's the code: -(UIView*) hitTest:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent*)event { // check to see if the hit is in this table view if ([self pointInside:point withEvent:event]) { UITableViewCell* newCell = nil; // hit is in this table view, find out // which cell it is in (if any) for (UITableViewCell* aCell in self.visibleCells) { if ([aCell pointInside:[self convertPoint:point toView:aCell] withEvent:nil]) { newCell = aCell; break; } } // if it touched a different cell, tell the previous cell to resign // this gives it a chance to hide the keyboard or date picker or whatever if (newCell != activeCell) { [activeCell resignFirstResponder]; self.activeCell = newCell; // may be nil } } // return the super's hitTest result return [super hitTest:point withEvent:event]; } With this code I get this warning: that my viewController may not respond to pointsInside:withEvent (it's a TableViewController). I also get some faults: request for member 'visibleCells' in something not a structure or a union. incompatible type for argument 1 of pointInsideWithEvent, expression does not have a valid object type and similar. I must admit I'm not so good at reading other people's code but I was wondering whether the problems here are obvious and if so if anyone could give me a pointer it would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Why does Java's invokevirtual need to resolve the called method's compile-time class?

    - by Chris
    Consider this simple Java class: class MyClass { public void bar(MyClass c) { c.foo(); } } I want to discuss what happens on the line c.foo(). At the bytecode level, the meat of c.foo() will be the invokevirtual opcode, and, according to the documentation for invokevirtual, more or less the following will happen: Look up the foo method defined in compile-time class MyClass. (This involves first resolving MyClass.) Do some checks, including: Verify that c is not an initialization method, and verify that calling MyClass.foo wouldn't violate any protected modifiers. Figure out which method to actually call. In particular, look up c's runtime type. If that type has foo(), call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. Etc.. If no suitable method can be found, then error. Step #3 alone seems adequate for figuring out which method to call and verifying that said method has the correct argument/return types. So my question is why step #1 gets performed in the first place. Possible answers seem to be: You don't have enough information to perform step #3 until step #1 is complete. (This seems implausible at first glance, so please explain.) The linking or access modifier checks done in #1 and #2 are essential to prevent certain bad things from happening, and those checks must be performed based on the compile-time type, rather than the run-time type hierarchy. (Please explain.)

    Read the article

  • Instantiating class with custom allocator in shared memory

    - by recipriversexclusion
    I'm pulling my hair due to the following problem: I am following the example given in boost.interprocess documentation to instantiate a fixed-size ring buffer buffer class that I wrote in shared memory. The skeleton constructor for my class is: template<typename ItemType, class Allocator > SharedMemoryBuffer<ItemType, Allocator>::SharedMemoryBuffer( unsigned long capacity ){ m_capacity = capacity; // Create the buffer nodes. m_start_ptr = this->allocator->allocate(); // allocate first buffer node BufferNode* ptr = m_start_ptr; for( int i = 0 ; i < this->capacity()-1; i++ ) { BufferNode* p = this->allocator->allocate(); // allocate a buffer node } } My first question: Does this sort of allocation guarantee that the buffer nodes are allocated in contiguous memory locations, i.e. when I try to access the n'th node from address m_start_ptr + n*sizeof(BufferNode) in my Read() method would it work? If not, what's a better way to keep the nodes, creating a linked list? My test harness is the following: // Define an STL compatible allocator of ints that allocates from the managed_shared_memory. // This allocator will allow placing containers in the segment typedef allocator<int, managed_shared_memory::segment_manager> ShmemAllocator; //Alias a vector that uses the previous STL-like allocator so that allocates //its values from the segment typedef SharedMemoryBuffer<int, ShmemAllocator> MyBuf; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { shared_memory_object::remove("MySharedMemory"); //Create a new segment with given name and size managed_shared_memory segment(create_only, "MySharedMemory", 65536); //Initialize shared memory STL-compatible allocator const ShmemAllocator alloc_inst (segment.get_segment_manager()); //Construct a buffer named "MyBuffer" in shared memory with argument alloc_inst MyBuf *pBuf = segment.construct<MyBuf>("MyBuffer")(100, alloc_inst); } This gives me all kinds of compilation errors related to templates for the last statement. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • How do you unit test a method containing a LINQ expression?

    - by Phil.Wheeler
    I'm struggling to get my head around how to accommodate a mocked method that only accepts a Linq expression as its argument. Specifically, the repository I'm using has a First() method that looks like this: public T First(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) { return All().Where(expression).FirstOrDefault(); } The difficulty I'm encountering is with my MSpec tests, where I'm (probably incorrectly) trying to mock that call: public abstract class with_userprofile_repository { protected static Mock<IRepository<UserProfile>> repository; Establish context = () => { repository = new Mock<IRepository<UserProfile>>(); repository.Setup<UserProfile>(x => x.First(up => up.OpenID == @"http://testuser.myopenid.com")).Returns(GetDummyUser()); }; protected static UserProfile GetDummyUser() { UserProfile p = new UserProfile(); p.OpenID = @"http://testuser.myopenid.com"; p.FirstName = "Joe"; p.LastLogin = DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(-7); p.LastName = "Bloggs"; p.Email = "[email protected]"; return p; } } I run into trouble because it's not enjoying the Linq expression: System.NotSupportedException: Expression up = (up.OpenID = "http://testuser.myopenid.com") is not supported. So how does one test these sorts of scenarios?

    Read the article

  • Dilemma of Sending a Byte Array from JavaScript to COM.

    - by Voulnet
    Hello there, I'm having a bit of a problem because neither Javascript nor ActiveX (written in C++) are behaving like good little children. All I'm asking them to do is for Javascript to send a byte array and for the ActiveX to receive the byte array correctly in order to do more computation. This is how I declared my byte array in JS, and I verified it inside JS: var arr = new Array(0x00, 0xA4, 0x04, 0x00, 0x10,0xA0, 0x00, 00, 00, 0x18, 0x30, 0x03, 0x01, 00, 00, 00, 00, 00, 00, 00, 00); Javascript sends this array as an argument to an ActiveX method. Here is the tricky part; I want the ActiveX method to receive the byte array as a SAFEARRAY or VARIANT, but I can't get it to work for the life of me. I tried debugging and seeing the contents received inside the ActiveX as both SAFEARRAY or VARIANT, but to no avail. Here is the IDL segment: [id(7), helpstring("NEW Sends APDU to Card and Reads the Response")] HRESULT NewSendAPDU( [in] VARIANT pAPDU, [out, retval]VARIANT* pAPDUResponse); Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • MVC View Model Intellisense / Compile error

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255  | Next Page >