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  • Serializing a DataType="time" field using XmlSerializer

    - by CraftyFella
    Hi, I'm getting an odd result when serializing a DateTime field using XmlSerializer. I have the following class: public class RecordExample { [XmlElement("TheTime", DataType = "time")] public DateTime TheTime { get; set; } [XmlElement("TheDate", DataType = "date")] public DateTime TheDate { get; set; } public static bool Serialize(Stream stream, object obj, Type objType, Encoding encoding) { try { using (var writer = XmlWriter.Create(stream, new XmlWriterSettings { Encoding = encoding })) { var xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(objType); if (writer != null) xmlSerializer.Serialize(writer, obj); } return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; } } } When i call the use the XmlSerializer with the following testing code: var obj = new RecordExample {TheDate = DateTime.Now.Date, TheTime = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 12, 00, 00)}; var ms = new MemoryStream(); RecordExample.Serialize(ms, obj, typeof (RecordExample), Encoding.UTF8); txtSource2.Text = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(ms.ToArray()); I get some strange results, here's the xml that is produced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RecordExample xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <TheTime>12:00:00.0000000+00:00</TheTime> <TheDate>2010-03-08</TheDate> </RecordExample> Any idea's how i can get the "TheTime" element to contain a time which looks more like this: <TheTime>12:00:00.0Z</TheTime> ...as that's what i was expecting? Thanks Dave

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  • Understanding Java Wait and Notify methods

    - by Maddy
    Hello all: I have a following program: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class SimpleWaitNotify implements Runnable { final static Object obj = new Object(); static boolean value = true; public synchronized void flag() { System.out.println("Before Wait"); try { obj.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread interrupted"); } System.out.println("After Being Notified"); } public synchronized void unflag() { System.out.println("Before Notify All"); obj.notifyAll(); System.out.println("After Notify All Method Call"); } public void run() { if (value) { flag(); } else { unflag(); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(4); SimpleWaitNotify sWait = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sWait); SimpleWaitNotify.value = false; SimpleWaitNotify sNotify = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sNotify); pool.shutdown(); } } When I wait on obj, I get the following exception Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-1" java.lang.IllegalMonitorStateException: current thread not owner for each of the two threads. But if I use SimpleWaitNotify's monitor then the program execution is suspended. In other words, I think it suspends current execution thread and in turn the executor. Any help towards understanding what's going on would be duly appreciated. This is an area1 where the theory and javadoc seem straightforward, and since there aren't many examples, conceptually left a big gap in me.

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  • Passing parameters to eventListener function

    - by bryan sammon
    I have this function check(e) that I'd like to be able to pass parameters from test() when I add it to the eventListener. Is this possible? Like say to get the mainlink variable to pass through the parameters. Is this even good to do? I put the javascript below, I also have it on jsbin: http://jsbin.com/ujahe3/9/edit function test() { if (!document.getElementById('myid')) { var mainlink = document.getElementById('mainlink'); var newElem = document.createElement('span'); mainlink.appendChild(newElem); var linkElemAttrib = document.createAttribute('id'); linkElemAttrib.value = "myid"; newElem.setAttributeNode(linkElemAttrib); var linkElem = document.createElement('a'); newElem.appendChild(linkElem); var linkElemAttrib = document.createAttribute('href'); linkElemAttrib.value = "jsbin.com"; linkElem.setAttributeNode(linkElemAttrib); var linkElemText = document.createTextNode('new click me'); linkElem.appendChild(linkElemText); if (document.addEventListener) { document.addEventListener('click', check/*(WOULD LIKE TO PASS PARAMETERS HERE)*/, false); }; }; }; function check(e) { if (document.getElementById('myid')) { if (document.getElementById('myid').parentNode === document.getElementById('mainlink')) { var target = (e && e.target) || (event && event.srcElement); var obj = document.getElementById('mainlink'); if (target!= obj) { obj.removeChild(obj.lastChild); }; }; }; };

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  • Help getting MVVM ViewModel to bind to the View

    - by cw
    Okay guys, I'm new to this model and Silverlight in general. I have the following code (changed object names, so syntax/spelling errors ignore). public class ViewModel { ViewModelSource m_vSource; public ViewModel(IViewModelSource source) { m_vSource= source; m_vSource.ItemArrived += new Action<Item>(m_vSource_ItemArrived); } void m_vSource_ItemArrived(Item obj) { Title = obj.Title; Subitems = obj.items; Description = obj.Description; } public void GetFeed(string serviceUrl) { m_vFeedSource.GetFeed(serviceUrl); } public string Title { get; set; } public IEnumerable<Subitems> Subitems { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } } Here is the code I have in my page's codebehind. ViewModel m_vViewModel; public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); m_vViewModel = new ViewModel(new ViewModelSource()); this.Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(MainPage_Loaded); this.DataContext = m_vViewModel; } void MainPage_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { m_vViewModel.GetItems("http://www.myserviceurl.com"); } Finally, here is a sample of what my xaml looks like. <!--TitleGrid is the name of the application and page title--> <Grid x:Name="TitleGrid" Grid.Row="0"> <TextBlock Text="My Super Title" x:Name="textBlockPageTitle" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextPageTitle1Style}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Title}" x:Name="textBlockListTitle" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextPageTitle2Style}"/> </Grid> I know I'm missing something, but I'm just not knowledgable enough which is why I'm asking you guys :) Is there anything I'm doing wrong here? Thanks!

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  • compiler directive defensive programming for adding ints to nsmuatablearray FMDB/EGODB

    - by johndpope
    I would like to throw a warning message when users try to add an int to an nsmutablearray basically any insert statement that includes values that are not nsstring / nsnumber cause run time crashes. It's exactly the same crash you get when you type %@ instead of %d NSLog(int); The crash is ok, but I want to throw a friendly 'FATAL' message to user. so far I have this try catch with isKindOfClass NSObject but ints are slipping through. #define FATAL_MSG "FATAL: object is not an NSObject subclass. Are you using int? use [NSNumber numberWithInt:1] \n" #define VAToArray(firstarg) ({\ NSMutableArray* valistArray = [NSMutableArray array];\ id obj = nil;\ va_list arguments;\ va_start(arguments, sql);\ @try { \ while ((obj = va_arg(arguments, id))) {\ if([obj isKindOfClass:[NSObject class]]) [valistArray addObject:obj];\ else printf(FATAL_MSG); \ }\ } \ @catch(NSException *exception){ \ printf(FATAL_MSG); \ } \ va_end(arguments);\ valistArray;\ }) - (void)test:(NSString*)sql,... { NSLog(@"VAToArray :%@",VAToArray(sql)); } // then call this [self test:@"str",@"test",nil]; when I call this [self test:@"str",2,nil]; throw the error message.

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  • Unit testing that an event is raised in C#, using reflection

    - by Thomas
    I want to test that setting a certain property (or more generally, executing some code) raises a certain event on my object. In that respect my problem is similar to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/248989/unit-testing-that-an-event-is-raised-in-c, but I need a lot of these tests and I hate boilerplate. So I'm looking for a more general solution, using reflection. Ideally, I would like to do something like this: [TestMethod] public void TestWidth() { MyClass myObject = new MyClass(); AssertRaisesEvent(() => { myObject.Width = 42; }, myObject, "WidthChanged"); } For the implementation of the AssertRaisesEvent, I've come this far: private void AssertRaisesEvent(Action action, object obj, string eventName) { EventInfo eventInfo = obj.GetType().GetEvent(eventName); int raisedCount = 0; Action incrementer = () => { ++raisedCount; }; Delegate handler = /* what goes here? */; eventInfo.AddEventHandler(obj, handler); action.Invoke(); eventInfo.RemoveEventHandler(obj, handler); Assert.AreEqual(1, raisedCount); } As you can see, my problem lies in creating a Delegate of the appropriate type for this event. The delegate should do nothing except invoke incrementer. Because of all the syntactic syrup in C#, my notion of how delegates and events really work is a bit hazy. How to do this?

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  • qtruby, QUiLoader and respond_to?

    - by Tim Sylvester
    I'm writing a simple Qt4 application in Ruby (using qtruby) to teach myself both. Mostly it has gone well, but in trying to use Ruby's "duck typing" I've run into a snag; respond_to? doesn't seem to reflect reality. irb(main):001:0> require 'rubygems' => true irb(main):002:0> require 'Qt4' => true irb(main):003:0> require 'qtuitools' => true irb(main):004:0> Qt::Application.new(ARGV) => #<Qt::Application:0xc3c9a08 objectName="ruby"> irb(main):005:0> file = Qt::File.new("dlg.ui") { open(Qt::File::ReadOnly) } => #<Qt::File:0xc2e1748 objectName=""> irb(main):006:0> obj = Qt::UiLoader.new().load(file, nil) => #<Qt::Dialog:0xc2bf650 objectName="dlg", x=0, y=0, width=283, height=244> irb(main):007:0> obj.respond_to?('children') => false irb(main):008:0> obj.respond_to?(:children) => false irb(main):009:0> obj.children => [#<Qt::FormInternal::TranslationWatcher:0xc2a1980 objectName="">, ... As you can see, when I check to ensure that the object I get back from loading the UI file has a children accessor I get false. If call that accessor, however, I get an array rather than a NoMethodError. So, is this a bug or have I incorrectly understood respond_to?? This looks like the problem described here, but I thought I would get an expert opinion before filing a bug against the project.

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  • Why does this extension method throw a NullReferenceException in VB.NET?

    - by Dan
    From previous experience I had been under the impression that it's perfectly legal (though perhaps not advisable) to call extension methods on a null instance. So in C#, this code compiles and runs: // code in static class static bool IsNull(this object obj) { return obj == null; } // code elsewhere object x = null; bool exists = !x.IsNull(); However, I was just putting together a little suite of example code for the other members of my development team (we just upgraded to .NET 3.5 and I've been assigned the task of getting the team up to speed on some of the new features available to us), and I wrote what I thought was the VB.NET equivalent of the above code, only to discover that it actually throws a NullReferenceException. The code I wrote was this: ' code in module ' <Extension()> _ Function IsNull(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean Return obj Is Nothing End Function ' code elsewhere ' Dim exampleObject As Object = Nothing Dim exists As Boolean = Not exampleObject.IsNull() The debugger stops right there, as if I'd called an instance method. Am I doing something wrong (e.g., is there some subtle difference in the way I defined the extension method between C# and VB.NET)? Is it actually not legal to call an extension method on a null instance in VB.NET, though it's legal in C#? (I would have thought this was a .NET thing as opposed to a language-specific thing, but perhaps I was wrong.) Can anybody explain this one to me?

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  • How to safely transfer reference to object across window?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I'm debugging a web application. Javasript in one window create one object and use it as argument to invoke global method in another window. Pseudo code is like below. var obj = new Foo(); anotherWin.bar(obj); In anotherWin, the argument is stored in global variable. var g_obj; function bar(obj) { g_obj = obj; ... } When other function tries to reference g_obj.Id, it throws exception "Cannot evaluate expression". This happens in IE8.0.7600.16385 on Windows 7. In Visual Studio debugger, when this exception happens, the g_obj shows as {...} It looks all its properties are lost. Perhaps the root reason is the object is created in one window but only referenced in another window. The object might be garbage-collected at any time. Is there any way to work around this?

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  • VS 2008 C++ build output?

    - by STingRaySC
    Why when I watch the build output from a VC++ project in VS do I see: 1Compiling... 1a.cpp 1b.cpp 1c.cpp 1d.cpp 1e.cpp [etc...] 1Generating code... 1x.cpp 1y.cpp [etc...] The output looks as though several compilation units are being handled before any code is generated. Is this really going on? I'm trying to improve build times, and by using pre-compiled headers, I've gotten great speedups for each ".cpp" file, but there is a relatively long pause during the "Generating Code..." message. I do not have "Whole Program Optimization" nor "Link Time Code Generation" turned on. If this is the case, then why? Why doesn't VC++ compile each ".cpp" individually (which would include the code generation phase)? If this isn't just an illusion of the output, is there cross-compilation-unit optimization potentially going on here? There don't appear to be any compiler options to control that behavior (I know about WPO and LTCG, as mentioned above). EDIT: The build log just shows the ".obj" files in the output directory, one per line. There is no indication of "Compiling..." vs. "Generating code..." steps. EDIT: I have confirmed that this behavior has nothing to do with the "maximum number of parallel project builds" setting in Tools - Options - Projects and Solutions - Build and Run. Nor is it related to the MSBuild project build output verbosity setting. Indeed if I cancel the build before the "Generating code..." step, the ".obj" files will not exist for the most recent set of "compiled" files. E.g., if I cancel the build during "c.cpp" above, I will see only "a.obj" and "b.obj".

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  • PHP, MySQL prepared statements - can you use results of execute more than once by calling data_seek(

    - by Carvell Fenton
    Hello, I have a case where I want to use the results of a prepared statement more than once in a nested loop. The outer loop processes the results of another query, and the inner loop is the results of the prepared statement query. So the code would be something like this (just "pseudoish" to demonstrate the concept): // not showing the outer query, it is just a basic SELECT, not prepared statement // we'll call it $outer_query $obj_array = array(); // going to save objects in this $ids = array(18,19,20); // just example id numbers $query = "SELECT field1, field2 FROM table1 WHERE id=?"; $stmt = $db->prepare($query); foreach ($ids as $id) { $stmt->bind_param("i", $id); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($var1, $var2); $stmt->store_result(); // I think I need this for data_seek while ($q1 = $outer_query->fetch_object()) { while ($stmt->fetch()) { if ($q1->field1 == $var1) { // looking for a match $obj = new stdClass(); $obj->var1 = $var1; $obj->var2 = $var2; $obj_array[] = $obj; $stmt->data_seek(0); // reset for outer loop break; // found match, so leave inner } } } } The problem I seem to be experiencing is that the values are not getting bound in the variables as I would expect after the first time I use fetch in the inner loop. Specifically, in one example I ran with 3 ids for the foreach, the first id was processed correctly, the second was processed incorrectly (matches were not found in the inner loop even though they existed), and then the third was processed correctly. Is there something wrong with the prepared statment function calls in the sequence I am doing above, or is this an invalid way to use the results of the prepared statement? Thanks.

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  • UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character [...]

    - by user1461135
    I have read the HOWTO on Unicode from the official docs and a full, very detailed article as well. Still I don't get it why it throws me this error. Here is what I attempt: I open an XML file that contains chars out of ASCII range (but inside allowed XML range). I do that with cfg = codecs.open(filename, encoding='utf-8, mode='r') which runs fine. Looking at the string with repr() also shows me a unicode string. Now I go ahead and read that with parseString(cfg.read().encode('utf-8'). Of course, my XML file starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?>. Although I suppose it is not relevant, I also defined utf-8 for my python script, but since I am not writing unicode characters directly in it, this should not apply here. Same for the following line: from __future__ import unicode_literals which also is right at the beginning. Next thing I pass the generated Object to my own class where I read tags into variables like this: xmldata.getElementsByTagName(tagName)[0].firstChild.data and assign it to a variable in my class. Now what perfectly works are those commands (obj is an instance of the class): for element in obj: print element And this command does work as well: print obj.__repr__() I defined __iter__() to just yield every variable while __repr__() uses the typical printf stuff: "%s" % self.varname Both commands print perfectly and can output the unicode character. What does not work is this: print obj And now I am stuck because this throws the dreaded UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xfc' in position 47: So what am I missing? What am I doing wrong? I am looking for a general solution, I always want to handle strings as unicode, just to avoid any possible errors and write a compatible program. Edit: I also defined this: def __str__(self): return self.__repr__() def __unicode__(self): return self.__repr__() From documentation I got that this

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  • Finding cause of memory leaks in large PHP stacks

    - by Mike B
    I have CLI script that runs over several thousand iterations between runs and it appears to have a memory leak. I'm using a tweaked version of Zend Framework with Smarty for view templating and each iteration uses several MB worth of code. The first run immediately uses nearly 8MB of memory (which is fine) but every following run adds about 80kb. My main loop looks like this (very simplified) $users = UsersModel::getUsers(); foreach($users as $user) { $obj = new doSomethingAwesome(); $obj->run($user); $obj = null; unset($obj); } The point is that everything in scope should be unset and the memory freed. My understanding is that PHP runs through its garbage collection process at it's own desire but it does so at the end of functions/methods/scripts. So something must be leaking memory inside doSomethingAwesome() but as I said it is a huge stack of code. Ideally, I would love to find some sort of tool that displayed all my variables no matter the scope at some point during execution. Some sort of symbol-table viewer for php. Does anything like that or any other tools that could help nail down memory leaks in php exist?

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  • Getting an exception when trying to use extension method with SortedDictionary... why?

    - by Polaris878
    I'm trying to place custom objects into a sorted dictionary... I am then trying to use an extension method (Max()) on this sorted dictionary. However, I'm getting the exception: "At least one object must implement IComparable". I don't understand why I'm getting that, as my custom object obviously implements IComparable. Here is my code: public class MyDate : IComparable<MyDate> { int IComparable<MyDate>.CompareTo(MyDate obj) { if (obj != null) { if (this.Value.Ticks < obj.Value.Ticks) { return 1; } else if (this.Value.Ticks == obj.Value.Ticks) { return 0; } else { return -1; } } } public MyDate(DateTime date) { this.Value = date; } public DateTime Value; } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { SortedDictionary<MyDate, int> sd = new SortedDictionary<MyDate,int>(); sd.Add(new MyDate(new DateTime(1)), 1); sd.Add(new MyDate(new DateTime(2)), 2); Console.WriteLine(sd.Max().Value); // Throws exception!! } } What on earth am I doing wrong???

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  • .next is undefined, jquery plugin problem

    - by ndelangen
    I'm trying to create my own plugin. But I'm having trouble getting things right. It appears when I'm trying to traverse inside .each things go wrong. I'm trying to go to the next item every 6 seconds by fading. jQuery(function($){ $.fn.rotator = function(options){ this.each(function() { var container = $(this); var images = container.children(); //Set the opacity of all images to 0 images.css({opacity: 0.0}); //Get the first image and display it (gets set to full opacity) $('div:first',this).css({opacity: 1.0}).addClass('show'); //Call the rotator function to run the slideshow, 6000 = change to next image after 6 seconds var obj = $(this); setInterval(nextimage(obj),6000); }); }; // rotate function function nextimage(obj) { var container = $(obj); var images = container.children(); //Get the current image var current = (images.hasClass('show')? images.hasClass('show') : images.first()); //Get next image, when it reaches the end, rotate it back to the first image var next = ((current.next().length) ? ((current.next().hasClass('show')) ? images.first() :current.next()) : images.first()); //Set the fade in effect for the next image, the show class has higher z-index next.css({opacity: 0.0}) .addClass('show') .animate({opacity: 1.0}, 1000); //Hide the current image current.animate({opacity: 0.0}, 1000) .removeClass('show'); }; }); $(document).ready(function(){ $("#bg").rotator({ }) }); The error I get is: current.next is not a function Line 35 Line 35 = var next = ((current.next().length) ? ((current.next().hasClass('show')) ? images.first() :current.next()) : images.first()); Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong?

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  • Adding array to an object breaks the array

    - by DisgruntledGoat
    I have an array like this (output from print_r): Array ( [price] => 700.00 [room_prices] => Array ( [0] => [1] => [2] => [3] => [4] => ) [bills] => Array ( [0] => Gas ) ) I'm running a custom function to convert it to an object. Only the top-level should be converted, the sub-arrays should stay as arrays. The output comes out like this: stdClass Object ( [price] => 700.00 [room_prices] => Array ( [0] => Array ) [bills] => Array ( [0] => Array ) ) Here is my conversion function. All it does is set the value of each array member to an object: function array_to_object( $arr ) { $obj = new stdClass; if ( count($arr) == 0 ) return $obj; foreach ( $arr as $k=>$v ) $obj->$k = $v; return $obj; } I can't figure this out for the life of me!

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  • Is it a bug???????????????/

    - by Knowing me knowing you
    I'm using VS2010 Ultimate. Having code: //file IntSet.h #include "stdafx.h" #pragma once /*Class representing set of integers*/ template<class T> class IntSet { private: T** myData_; std::size_t mySize_; std::size_t myIndex_; public: #pragma region ctor/dtor explicit IntSet(); virtual ~IntSet(); #pragma endregion #pragma region publicInterface IntSet makeUnion(const IntSet&)const; IntSet makeIntersection(const IntSet&)const; IntSet makeSymmetricDifference(const IntSet&)const; void insert(const T&); #pragma endregion }; //file IntSet_impl.h #include "StdAfx.h" #include "IntSet.h" #pragma region ctor/dtor template<class T> IntSet<T>::IntSet():myData_(nullptr), mySize_(0), myIndex_(0) { } template<class T> IntSet<T>::~IntSet() { } #pragma endregion #pragma region publicInterface template<class T> void IntSet<T>::insert(const T& obj) {/*IF I SET A BREAKPOINT HERE AND AFTER THAT I CHANGE SOMETHING IN THE BODY I'M GETTING MSG SAYING THAT THE BREAKPOINT WILL NOT CURRENTLY BE HIT, AFTER I REBUILD THE BREAKPOINT IS VALID AGAIN*/ /*Check if we are initialized*/ if (mySize_ == 0) { mySize_ = 1; myData_ = new T*[mySize_]; } /*Check if we have place to insert obj in.*/ if (myIndex_ < mySize_) { myData_[myIndex_++] = new T(obj); return; } /*We didn't have enough place...*/ T** tmp = new T*[mySize_];//for copying old to temporary basket std::copy(&myData_[0],&myData_[mySize_],&tmp[0]); delete myData_; auto oldSize = mySize_; mySize_ *= 2; myData_ = new T*[mySize_]; std::copy(&tmp[0],&tmp[oldSize],&myData_[0]); myData_[myIndex_] = new T(obj); ++myIndex_; } #pragma endregion Thanks.

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  • Storing a jpa entity where only the timestamp changes results in updates rather than inserts (desire

    - by David Schlenk
    I have a JPA entity that stores a fk id, a boolean and a timestamp: @Entity public class ChannelInUse implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(nullable = false) private Channel channel; private boolean inUse = false; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date inUseAt = new Date(); ... } I want every new instance of this entity to result in a new row in the table. For whatever reason no matter what I do it always results in the row getting updated with a new timestamp value rather than creating a new row. Even tried to just use a native query to run an insert but channel's ID wasn't populated yet so I gave up on that. I've tried using an embedded id class consisting of channel.getId and inUseAt. My equals and hashcode for are: public boolean equals(Object obj){ if(this == obj) return true; if(!(obj instanceof ChannelInUse)) return false; ChannelInUse ciu = (ChannelInUse) obj; return ( (this.inUseAt == null ? ciu.inUseAt == null : this.inUseAt.equals(ciu.inUseAt)) && (this.inUse == ciu.inUse) && (this.channel == null ? ciu.channel == null : this.channel.equals(ciu.channel)) ); } /** * hashcode generated from at, channel and inUse properties. */ public int hashCode(){ int hash = 1; hash = hash * 31 + (this.inUseAt == null ? 0 : this.inUseAt.hashCode()); hash = hash * 31 + (this.channel == null ? 0 : this.channel.hashCode()); if(inUse) hash = hash * 31 + 1; else hash = hash * 31 + 0; return hash; } } I've tried using hibernate's Entity annotation with mutable=false. I'm probably just not understanding what makes an entity unique or something. Hit the google pretty hard but can't figure this one out.

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  • Java Version of Action Delegate invokeLater

    - by ikurtz
    the issue i mentioned in this post is actually happening because of cross threading GUI issues (i hope). could you help me with Java version of action delegate please? in C# it is done as this inline: this.Invoke(new Action(delegate() {...})); how is this achived in Java? thank you. public class processChatMessage implements Observer { public void update(Observable o, Object obj) { System.out.println("class class class" + obj.getClass()); if (obj instanceof String){ String msg = (String)obj; formatChatHeader(chatHeader.Away, msg); jlStatusBar.setText("Message Received"); // Show chat form setVisibility(); } } } processChatMessage is invoked by a separate thread triggered by receiving new data from a remote node. and i think the error is being produced as it trying to update GUI controls. do you think this is the reason? i ask because im new to Java and C#, but this is what is going on i think.

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  • jquery ajax result with a wrong format

    - by ???
    I am facing a problem which is the result processed by AJAX, this situation is I would like to pass the result (from AJAX) 'f f f f \'' into get_option(''), I don't know why it become like this:- <li \'');="" f="" onclick="get_option('f" class="option normal_size"> <a href="javascript:void(0);">f f f f \'</a> </li> What I want is :- <li onclick="get_option('f f f f\'')" class="option normal_size"> <a href="javascript:void(0);">f f f f \'</a> </li> I guess the problem might be the space, but I don't know how to solve it, can anyone do me a favour? my AJAX coding is:- .ajax({ url:'inc_board_saving.php?board_title_input='+board_title_input_encode+'&cate_selected='+cate_selected_input_encode+'&cate_setting_selected='+cate_setting_selected, type:'GET', data:"nums="+Math.random()*1235, success: function(data){ try{ var content=""; var obj = eval('('+data+')'); for (var i=0;i<obj.length;i++){ content += "<li class='option normal_size' onclick=get_option('"+obj[i].board_name_encode+"');><a href='javascript:void(0);'>"+obj[i].board_name+"</a></li>"; } }catch(e){ return; } } }); Result:- [{"board_id":"66","board_name":"f f f f '","board_name_encode":"f f f f \'"},{"board_id":"65","board_name":"t t t t t","board_name_encode":"t t t t t"},{"board_id":"64","board_name":"yy yyy yy","board_name_encode":"yy yyy yy"}] Thanks all

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  • VS2008 Link Error Using SafeInt3.hpp in 64bit mode.

    - by photo_tom
    I have the below code that links and runs fine in 32bit mode - #include "safeint3.hpp" typedef SafeInt<SIZE_T> SAFE_SIZE_T; SAFE_SIZE_T sizeOfCache; SAFE_SIZE_T _allocateAmt; Where safeint3.hpp is current version that can be found on Codeplex SafeInt. For those who are unaware of it, safeint is a template class that makes working with different integer types and sizes "safe". To quote channel 9 video on software - "it writes the code that you should". Which is my case. I have a class that is managing a large in-memory cache of objects (6gb) and I am very concerned about making sure that I don't have overflow/underflow issues on my pointers/sizes/other integer variables. In this use, it solves many problems. My problem is coming when moving from 32bit dev mode to 64bit production mode. When I build the app in this mode, I'm getting the following linker warnings - 1>cachecontrol.obj : warning LNK4006: "bool __cdecl IntrinsicMultiplyUint64(unsigned __int64 const &,unsigned __int64 const &,unsigned __int64 *)" (?IntrinsicMultiplyUint64@@YA_NAEB_K0PEA_K@Z) already defined in ImageInRamCache.obj; second definition ignored 1>cachecontrol.obj : warning LNK4006: "bool __cdecl IntrinsicMultiplyInt64(__int64 const &,__int64 const &,__int64 *)" (?IntrinsicMultiplyInt64@@YA_NAEB_J0PEA_J@Z) already defined in ImageInRamCache.obj; second definition ignored While I understand I can ignore the error, I would like either (a) prevent the warning from occurring or (b) make it disappear so that my QA department doesn't flag it as a problem. And after spending some time researching it, I cannot find a way to do either.

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  • Why cant we create Object if constructor is in private section?

    - by Abhi
    Dear all I want to know why cant we create object if the constructor is in private section. I know that if i make a method static i can call that method using <classname> :: <methodname(...)>; But why cant we create object is my doubt... I also know if my method is not static then also i can call function by the following... class A { A(); public: void fun1(); void fun2(); void fun3(); }; int main() { A *obj =(A*)malloc(sizeof(A)); //Here we can't use new A() because constructor is in private //but we can use malloc with it, but it will not call the constructor //and hence it is harmful because object may not be in usable state. obj->fun1(); obj->fun2(); obj->fun3(); } So only doubt is why cant we create object when constructor is in private section? Thanks in advance

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  • Javascript object binding problem inside of function prototype definitions

    - by Arion
    Hi all, I am trying to figure out the right place to bind a function prototype to be called later. The full code of the example can be found here: http://www.iprosites.com/jso/ My javascript example is very basic: function Obj(width, height){ this.width = width; this.height = height; } Obj.prototype.test = function(){ var xhr=init(); xhr.open('GET', '?ajax=test', true); xhr.setRequestHeader('Content-Type', 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8'); xhr.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xhr.responseText == '403') { window.location.reload(false); } if (xhr.readyState == 4 && xhr.status == 200) { this.response = parseResponse(xhr.responseText); document.getElementById('resp').innerHTML = this.response.return_value; this.doAnotherAction(); } }; xhr.send(); } Obj.prototype.doAnotherAction = function(){ alert('Another Action Done'); } var myo = new Obj(4, 6); If you try to run myo.test() in Firebug, you will get the "this.doAnotherAction is not a function" response. The 2 support functions init() and parseResponse() can be found in the test.js link if you wish to view them, but should not be too relevant to this problem. I've affirmed that this.doAnotherAction() thinks "this" is the XMLHttpResponse object as expected from an instanceof test. Can anyone help with some insight on direction with binding? Everything I've tried seems not to work! I do use Mootools, although the library is not present in this example. Thanks in advance, Arion

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  • hide inputs value when input is hidden

    - by toingbou
    Hello, im using this function to hide some inputs from a form when a value selected in select tag. this is the function: function showEntry(obj,optionValue){ //hide all entry selections onchange document.getElementById("group1").style.display="none"; document.getElementById("group2").style.display="none"; if(obj.value=="group1") { document.getElementById('group1').style.display="inline"; } else if(obj.value=="group2") { document.getElementById('group2').style.display="inline"; } } and this is the form: <select class="textinput" name="function_title" onchange="showEntry(this,this.value);"> <option value=""> </option> <option value="group1" >group1</option> <option value="group2" >group2</option> </select> <span id="group1" style="display:none;"> <input class="textinput" type="text" id="input1" name="input1" value="100"/> <input class="textinput" type="text" id="input2" name="input2" value="50"/> </span> <span id="group2" style="display:none;"> <input class="textinput" type="text" id="input3" name="input3" value="60"/> <input class="textinput" type="text" id="input4" name="input4" value="45"/> </span> All i want is to hide the hidden inputs value when this group of inputs are hidden. Something like that: <input class="textinput" type="text" id="input3" name="input3" value="if(obj.value!="group2") { print(60); }"/> Is that right?

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  • overload == (and != , of course) operator, can I bypass == to determine whether the object is null

    - by LLS
    Hello, when I try to overload operator == and != in C#, and override Equal as recommended, I found I have no way to distinguish a normal object and null. For example, I defined a class Complex. public static bool operator ==(Complex lhs, Complex rhs) { return lhs.Equals(rhs); } public static bool operator !=(Complex lhs, Complex rhs) { return !lhs.Equals(rhs); } public override bool Equals(object obj) { if (obj is Complex) { return (((Complex)obj).Real == this.Real && ((Complex)obj).Imaginary == this.Imaginary); } else { return false; } } But when I want to use if (temp == null) When temp is really null, some exception happens. And I can't use == to determine whether the lhs is null, which will cause infinite loop. What should I do in this situation. One way I can think of is to us some thing like Class.Equal(object, object) (if it exists) to bypass the == when I do the check. What is the normal way to solve the problem?

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