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  • Update panel problem

    - by ram
    Here is my code: <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" UpdateMode="Conditional" ChildrenAsTriggers="false" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Click1" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> <br /> <br /> Last refresh <%=DateTime.Now.ToString() %> <br /> <br /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel2" UpdateMode="Conditional" ChildrenAsTriggers="true" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Button ID="Button2" runat="server" Text="Click2" OnClick="Button2_Click" /> <br /> <br /> Last refresh <%=DateTime.Now.ToString() %> <br /> <br /> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Button2" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Button1" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </form> </body> Im using two update panels here, when i click "Button2" then "UpdatePanel2" was refreshed, if i click "Button1" then both update panel were refreshed, but my need is if i click "Button1" then "UpdatePanel1" have to be refreshed. Thanks.

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  • How do I left join tables in unidirectional many-to-one in Hibernate?

    - by jbarz
    I'm piggy-backing off of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2368195/how-to-join-tables-in-unidirectional-many-to-one-condition. If you have two classes: class A { @Id public Long id; } class B { @Id public Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "parent_id", referencedColumnName = "id") public A parent; } B - A is a many to one relationship. I understand that I could add a Collection of Bs to A however I do not want that association. So my actual question is, Is there an HQL or Criteria way of creating the SQL query: select * from A left join B on (b.parent_id = a.id) This will retrieve all A records with a Cartesian product of each B record that references A and will include A records that have no B referencing them. If you use: from A a, B b where b.a = a then it is an inner join and you do not receive the A records that do not have a B referencing them. I have not found a good way of doing this without two queries so anything less than that would be great. Thanks.

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  • RavenDB Ids and ASP.NET MVC3 Routes

    - by goober
    Hey all, Just building a quick, simple site with MVC 3 RC2 and RavenDB to test some things out. I've been able to make a bunch of projects, but I'm curious as to how Html.ActionLink() handles a raven DB ID. My example: I have a Document called "reasons" (a reason for something, just text mostly), which has reason text and a list of links. I can add, remove, and do everything else fine via my repository. Below is the part of my razor view that lists each reason in a bulleted list, with an Edit link as the first text: @foreach(var Reason in ViewBag.ReasonsList) { <li>@Html.ActionLink("Edit", "Reasons", "Edit", new { id = Reason.Id }, null) @Reason.ReasonText</li> <ul> @foreach (var reasonlink in Reason.ReasonLinks) { <li><a href="@reasonlink.URL">@reasonlink.URL</a></li> } </ul> } The Problem This works fine, except for the edit link. While the values and code here appear to work directly (i.e the link is firing directly), RavenDB saves my document's ID as "reasons/1". So, when the URL happens and it passes the ID, the resulting route is "http://localhost:4976/Reasons/Edit/reasons/2". So, the ID is appended correctly, but MVC is interpreting it as its own route. Any suggestions on how I might be able to get around this? Do I need to create a special route to handle it or is there something else I can do?

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  • Is it bad practice to have state in a static class?

    - by Matthew
    I would like to do something like this: public class Foo { // Probably really a Guid, but I'm using a string here for simplicity's sake. string Id { get; set; } int Data { get; set; } public Foo (int data) { ... } ... } public static class FooManager { Dictionary<string, Foo> foos = new Dictionary<string, Foo> (); public static Foo Get (string id) { return foos [id]; } public static Foo Add (int data) { Foo foo = new Foo (data); foos.Add (foo.Id, foo); return foo; } public static bool Remove (string id) { return foos.Remove (id); } ... // Other members, perhaps events for when Foos are added or removed, etc. } This would allow me to manage the global collection of Foos from anywhere. However, I've been told that static classes should always be stateless--you shouldn't use them to store global data. Global data in general seems to be frowned upon. If I shouldn't use a static class, what is the right way to approach this problem? Note: I did find a similar question, but the answer given doesn't really apply in my case.

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  • Get email address from OpenID provider (Janrain openid library)

    - by Moak
    When signing in to stackoverflow with google I get this message Stackoverflow.com is asking for some information from your Google Account [email protected] • Email address: [email protected] However on my site I can log in with openid but I can't ask for the email address. I get this message You are signing in to example.com with your Google Account [email protected] Also I'm finding it hard to know at what step I need to ask for it, here's some code where I think that step should be built into. /** * Authenticates the given OpenId identity. * Defined by Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface. * * @throws Zend_Auth_Adapter_Exception If answering the authentication query is impossible * @return Zend_Auth_Result */ public function authenticate() { $id = $this->_id; $consumer = new Auth_OpenID_Consumer($this->_storage); if (!empty($id)) { $authRequest = $consumer->begin($id); if (is_null($authRequest)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", 'Unknown error')); } if (Auth_OpenID::isFailure($authRequest)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", "Could not redirect to server: " . $authRequest->message)); } $redirectUrl = $authRequest->redirectUrl($this->_root, $this->_returnTo); if (Auth_OpenID::isFailure($redirectUrl)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", $redirectUrl->message)); } Zend_OpenId::redirect($redirectUrl); } else { $response = $consumer->complete(Zend_OpenId::selfUrl()); switch($response->status) { case Auth_OpenID_CANCEL: case Auth_OpenID_FAILURE: return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, null, array("Authentication failed. " . @$response->message)); break; case Auth_OpenID_SUCCESS: return $this->_constructSuccessfulResult($response); break; } } } It seems like such an obvious thing but I'm having a hard time googling and combing through the code just to find this. Thanks!

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  • C# set custom UserControl variables when its in a Repeater

    - by tnriverfish
    <%@ Register Src="~/Controls/PressFileDownload.ascx" TagName="pfd" TagPrefix="uc1" %> <asp:Repeater id="Repeater1" runat="Server" OnItemDataBound="RPTLayer_OnItemDataBound"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="LBLHeader" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Label> <asp:Image ID="IMGThumb" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Image> <asp:Label ID="LBLBody" Runat="server" class="layerBody"></asp:Label> <uc1:pfd ID="pfd1" runat="server" ShowContainerName="false" ParentContentTypeId="55" /> <asp:Literal ID="litLayerLinks" runat="server"></asp:Literal> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label lbl; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal lit; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Image img; System.Web.UI.WebControls.HyperLink hl; System.Web.UI.UserControl uc; I need to set the ParentItemID variable for the uc1:pdf listed inside the repeater. I thought I should be able to find uc by looking in the e.Item and then setting it somehow. I think this is the part where I'm missing something. uc = (UserControl)e.Item.FindControl("pfd1"); if (uc != null) { uc.Attributes["ParentItemID"] = i.ItemID.ToString(); } Any thoughts would be appreciated.

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  • Strange XCode debugger behavior with UITableView datasource

    - by Tarfa
    Hey guys. I've got a perplexing issue. In my subclassed UITableViewController my datasource methods lose their tableview reference depending on lines of code I put inside the method. For example, in this code block: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { // Return the number of sections. return 3; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // Return the number of rows in the section. return 5; } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { id i = tableView; static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Configure the cell... return cell; } the "id i = tableView;" causes the tableview to become nil (0x0) -- and it causes it to be nil before I ever start stepping into the method. If I insert an assignment statement above the "id i = tableview;" statement: CGFloat x = 5.0; id i = tableView; then tableview retains its pointer (i.e. is not nil) if I place the breakpoint after the "id i = tableView;" line. In other words, the breakpoint must be set after the "id i = tableView"; assignment in order for tableView to retain its pointer. If the breakpoint is set before the assignment is made and I just hang at that breakpoint for a bit then after a couple of seconds the console logs this error message: Assertion failed: (cls), function getName, file /SourceCache/objc4_Sim/objc4-427.5/runtime/objc-runtime-new.mm, line 3990. Although the code works when I don't step through the method, I need my debugger to work! It makes programming kind of challenging when your debugging tools become your enemy. Anyone know what the cause and solution are? Thanks.

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  • Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

    - by user309029
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: &lt div id="container" &gt &lt iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" &gt &lt /iframe &gt &lt /div &gt Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

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  • Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

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  • How do I show TextView's in LinearLayout that layed on other Layout?

    - by gelassen
    Good day. I have three layouts: first is the root, second and third lie in first. I try add TextView object in third layout and objects had been added in third layout (I saw it in debage mode) but this objects didn't showed on screen. May be someone know where is the problem? <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:orientation="vertical"> <LinearLayout android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="horizontal"> <Button android:id="@+id/addJokeButton" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/app_name" /> <EditText android:id="@+id/newJokeEditText" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> </LinearLayout> <LinearLayout android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:orientation="vertical"> </LinearLayout> </LinearLayout> protected void initLayout() { setContentView(R.layout.advanced); LinearLayout linearLayout = (LinearLayout) getLayoutInflater().inflate( R.layout.advanced, null); m_vwJokeEditText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.newJokeEditText); m_vwJokeButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.addJokeButton); m_vwJokeLayout = (LinearLayout) linearLayout.getChildAt(1); } protected void addJoke(Joke joke) { m_arrJokeList.add(joke); LayoutParams lparams = new LayoutParams(LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT, LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT); TextView textView = new TextView(this); setColor(textView); textView.setLayoutParams(lparams); textView.setText(joke.getJoke()); m_vwJokeLayout.addView(textView); }

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  • onclick event in dropdown

    - by raam
    <html> <head> </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function ram(){ document.write("Hello World!") alert("ok"); } </script> </head> <body> <select id="country"> <option value="India" id="101" onfocus="ram()">India</option> <option value="Autralia" id="102" onClick="ram();">Autralia</option> <option value="England" id="103" onfocus="ram();">England</option> <option value="Ameriaca" id="104" onfocus="ram();">Ameriaca</option> <option value="Pakistan" selected="selected" id="105" onfocus="ram();" >Pakistan</option> </select> </body> </html> In this above code the event will not fire for dropdown. I try by using focus and click event. I can I do this and I want 1 more thing if I select dropdown value as India, I want to create a dropdown with state (elements are TN, DL, etc) updation.

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  • Good Starting Points for Optimizing Database Calls in Ruby on Rails?

    - by viatropos
    I have a menu in Rails which grabs a nested tree of Post models, each which have a Slug model associated via a polymorphic association (using the friendly_id gem for slugs and awesome_nested_set for the tree). The database output in development looks like this (here's the full gist): SQL (0.4ms) SELECT COUNT(*) AS count_id FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts".parent_id = 39) CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT "posts".* FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts"."id" = 13) LIMIT 1 CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT "slugs".* FROM "slugs" WHERE ("slugs".sluggable_id = 13 AND "slugs".sluggable_type = 'Post') ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 1 Slug Load (0.4ms) SELECT "slugs".* FROM "slugs" WHERE ("slugs".sluggable_id = 40 AND "slugs".sluggable_type = 'Post') ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 1 SQL (0.3ms) SELECT COUNT(*) AS count_id FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts".parent_id = 40) CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT "posts".* FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts"."id" = 13) LIMIT 1 CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT "slugs".* FROM "slugs" WHERE ("slugs".sluggable_id = 13 AND "slugs".sluggable_type = 'Post') ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 1 Slug Load (0.4ms) SELECT "slugs".* FROM "slugs" WHERE ("slugs".sluggable_id = 41 AND "slugs".sluggable_type = 'Post') ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 1 ... Rendered shared/_menu.html.haml (907.6ms) What are some quick things I should always do to optimize this from the start (easy things)? Some things I'm thinking now are: Can Rails 3 eager load the whole Post tree + associated Slugs in one DB call? Can I do that easily with named scopes or custom SQL? What is best practice in this situation? Not really thinking about memcached in this situation as that can be applied to much more than just this.

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  • Eager loading OneToMany in Hibernate with JPA2

    - by pihentagy
    I have a simple @OneToMany between Person and Pet entities: @OneToMany(mappedBy="owner", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.EAGER) public Set<Pet> getPets() { return pets; } I would like to load all Persons with associated Pets. So I came up with this (inside a test class): @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration public class AppTest { @Test @Rollback(false) @Transactional(readOnly = false) public void testApp() { CriteriaBuilder qb = em.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<Person> c = qb.createQuery(Person.class); Root<Person> p1 = c.from(Person.class); SetJoin<Person, Pet> join = p1.join(Person_.pets); TypedQuery<Person> q = em.createQuery(c); List<Person> persons = q.getResultList(); for (Person p : persons) { System.out.println(p.getName()); for (Pet pet : p.getPets()) { System.out.println("\t" + pet.getNick()); } } However, turning the SQL logging on shows, that it executes 3 queries (having 2 Persons in the DB). Hibernate: select person0_.id as id0_, person0_.name as name0_, person0_.sex as sex0_ from Person person0_ inner join Pet pets1_ on person0_.id=pets1_.owner_id Hibernate: select pets0_.owner_id as owner3_0_1_, pets0_.id as id1_, pets0_.id as id1_0_, pets0_.nick as nick1_0_, pets0_.owner_id as owner3_1_0_ from Pet pets0_ where pets0_.owner_id=? Hibernate: select pets0_.owner_id as owner3_0_1_, pets0_.id as id1_, pets0_.id as id1_0_, pets0_.nick as nick1_0_, pets0_.owner_id as owner3_1_0_ from Pet pets0_ where pets0_.owner_id=? Any tips? Thanks Gergo

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  • PDO prepare silently fails

    - by Wabbitseason
    I'm experimenting with PHP's session_set_save_handler and I'd like to use a PDO connection to store session data. I have this function as a callback for write actions: function _write($id, $data) { logger('_WRITE ' . $id . ' ' . $data); try { $access = time(); $sql = 'REPLACE INTO sessions SET id=:id, access=:access, data=:data'; logger('This is the last line in this function that appears in the log.'); $stmt = $GLOBALS['db']->prepare($sql); logger('This never gets logged! :('); $stmt->bindParam(':id', $id, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':access', $access, PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindParam(':data', $data, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->closeCursor(); return true; } catch (PDOException $e) { logger('This is never executed.'); logger($e->getTraceAsString()); } } The first two log messages always show up, but the third one right after $stmt = $GLOBALS['db']->prepare($sql) never makes it to the log file and there's no trace of an exception either. The sessions db table remains empty. The log message from the _close callback is always present. Here's how I connect to the database: $db = new PDO('mysql:host=' . DBHOST . ';dbname=' . DBNAME, DBUSER, DBPASS); $db->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); I have PHP 5.2.10. I tried to simply run $GLOBALS['db']->exec($sql) with a "manually prepared" $sql content, but it still failed silently. The query itself is all right I was able to execute it via the db console.

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  • Sort a List<T> using query expressions - LINQ C#

    - by Dan Yack
    I have a problem using Linq to order a structure like this : public class Person { public int ID { get; set; } public List<PersonAttribute> Attributes { get; set; } } public class PersonAttribute { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Value { get; set; } } A person might go like this: PersonAttribute Age = new PersonAttribute { ID = 8, Name = "Age", Value = "32" }; PersonAttribute FirstName = new PersonAttribute { ID = 9, Name = "FirstName", Value = "Rebecca" }; PersonAttribute LastName = new PersonAttribute { ID = 10, Name = "LastName", Value = "Johnson" }; PersonAttribute Gender = new PersonAttribute { ID = 11, Name = "Gender", Value = "Female" }; I would like to use LINQ projection to sort a list of persons ascending by the person attribute of my choice, for example, sort on Age, or sort on FirstName. I am trying something like string mySortAttribute = "Age" PersonList.OrderBy(p => p.PersonAttribute.Find(s => s.Name == mySortAttribute).Value); But the syntax is failing me. Any clues? Thanks in advance!

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  • Switching from form_for to remote_form_for problems with submit changes in Rails

    - by Matthias Günther
    Hi there, another day with Rails and today I want to use Ajax. linkt_remote_link for changing a text was pretty easy so I thought it would also be easy to switch my form_for loop just to an ajax request form with remote_form_for, but the problem with the remote_form_for is that it doesn't save my changes? Here the code that worked: <% form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> Here the code which don't save me the changes and submit them: <% remote_form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post" onsubmit="$.ajax({data:$.param($(this).serializeArray()), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/adminbill/update/58'}); return false;"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> I don't know if I have to consider something special when using remote_form_for (see remote_form_for)

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  • Advanced Linq query using into

    - by dilbert789
    I have this query that someone else wrote, it's over my head so I'm looking for some direction. What is happening currently is that it's taking numbers where there is a goal and no history entered, or history and no goal, this screws up the calculations as both goal and history for the same item are required on each. The three tables involved are: KPIType Goal KPIHistory What I need: Need all rows from KPIType. Need all goals where there is a matching KPIHistory row (Goal.KPItypeID == KPIHistory.KPItypeID ) into results 1 Need all kpiHistory’s where there is a matching Goal row (Goal.KPItypeID == KPIHistory.KPItypeID ) into results 2 Current query: var query = from t in dcs.KPIType.Where(k => k.ID <= 23) join g in dcs.Goal.Where(g => g.Dealership.ID == dealershipID && g.YearMonth >= beginDate && g.YearMonth <= endDate ) on t.ID equals g.KPITypeID into results1 join h in dcs.KPIHistory.Where(h => h.Dealership.ID == dealershipID && h.ForDate >= beginDate && h.ForDate <= endDate ) on t.ID equals h.KPIType.ID into results2 orderby t.DisplayOrder select new { t, Goal = results1, KPIHistory = results2 }; query.ToList().ForEach(q => { results.Add(q.t); }); Thanks, I'm happy to answer questions if more info needed.

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  • Need help coming up with a better HtmlHelper Extension method.

    - by zSysop
    Hi all, I've inherited the following code and i was wondering if i could pick at your brains to see if there's a nicer way to do duplicate this. Heres the html for most of our partial input views <% if (Html.IsInputReadOnly()) { %> <td> Id </td> <td> <%= Html.TextBox( "Id" , (Model == null ? null : Model.Id) , new { @readonly = "readonly", @disabled="disabled" } )%> <% } elseif (Html.IsInputDisplayable() == false) { %> <td></td> <td></td> <% } else { %> <td>Id</td> <td><%= Html.TextBox("Id")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Id", "*")%> </td> <%} %> Here are my entension methods public static bool IsInputReadOnly(this HtmlHelper helper) { string actionName = ActionName(helper); // The Textbox should be read only on all pages except for the lookup page if (actionName.ToUpper().CompareTo("EDIT") == 0) return true; return false; } public static bool IsInputDisplayable(this HtmlHelper helper) { string actionName = ActionName(helper); // The Textbox should be read only on all pages except for the lookup page if (actionName.ToUpper().CompareTo("CREATE") == 0) return true; return false; } Thanks in advance

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  • Highlight image borders with Ajax request.

    - by Tek
    First, some visualization of the code. I have the following images that are dynamically generated from jquery. They're made upon user request: <img id="i13133" src="someimage.jpg" /> <img id="i13232" src="someimage1.jpg" /> <img id="i14432" src="someimage2.jpg" /> <img id="i16432" src="someimage3.jpg" /> <img id="i18422" src="someimage4.jpg" /> I have an AJAX loop that repeats every 15 seconds using jQuery and it contains the following code: Note: The if statement is inside the Ajax loop. Where imgId is the requested ID from the Ajax call. //Passes the IDs retrieved from Ajax, if the IDs exist on the page the animation is triggered. if ( $('#i' + imgId ).length ) { var pickimage = '#i' + imgId; var stop = false; function highlight(pickimage) { $(pickimage).animate({color: "yellow"}, 1000, function () { $(pickimage ).animate({color: "black"}, 1000, function () { if (!stop) highlight(pickimage); }); }); } // Start the loop highlight(pickimage); } It works great, even with multiple images. But I had originally used this with one image. The problem is I need an interrupt. Something like: $(img).click(function () { stop = true; }); There's two problems: 1.)This obviously stops all animations. I can't wrap my head around how I could write something that only stops the animation of the image that's clicked. 2.)The Ajax retrieves IDs, sometimes those IDs appear more than once every few minutes, which means it would repeat the animations on top of each other if the image exists. I could use some help figuring out how to detect if an animation is already running on an image, and do nothing if the animation is already triggered on an image.

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  • Zend Framework: Zend_DB Error

    - by Sergio E.
    I'm trying to learn ZF, but got strange error after 20 minutes :) Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Zend_Db_Adapter_Exception' with message 'Configuration array must have a key for 'dbname' that names the database instance' What does this error mean? I got DB information in my config file: resources.db.adapter=pdo_mysql resources.db.host=localhost resources.db.username=name resources.db.password=pass resources.db.dbname=name Any suggestions? EDIT: This is my model file /app/models/DbTable/Bands.php: class Model_DbTable_Bands extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'zend_bands'; } Index controller action: public function indexAction() { $albums = new Model_DbTable_Bands(); $this->view->albums = $albums->fetchAll(); } EDIT All codes: bootstrap.php protected function _initAutoload() { $autoloader = new Zend_Application_Module_Autoloader(array( 'namespace' => '', 'basePath' => dirname(__FILE__), )); return $autoloader; } protected function _initDoctype() { $this->bootstrap('view'); $view = $this->getResource('view'); $view->doctype('XHTML1_STRICT'); } public static function setupDatabase() { $config = self::$registry->configuration; $db = Zend_Db::factory($config->db); $db->query("SET NAMES 'utf8'"); self::$registry->database = $db; Zend_Db_Table::setDefaultAdapter($db); Zend_Db_Table_Abstract::setDefaultAdapter($db); } IndexController.php class IndexController extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function init() { /* Initialize action controller here */ } public function indexAction() { $albums = new Model_DbTable_Bands(); $this->view->albums = $albums->fetchAll(); } } configs/application.ini, changed database and provided password: [development : production] phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 1 phpSettings.display_errors = 1 db.adapter = PDO_MYSQL db.params.host = localhost db.params.username = root db.params.password = pedro db.params.dbname = test models/DbTable/Bands.php class Model_DbTable_Bands extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'cakephp_bands'; public function getAlbum($id) { $id = (int)$id; $row = $this->fetchRow('id = ' . $id); if (!$row) { throw new Exception("Count not find row $id"); } return $row->toArray(); } }

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  • How to allow one thread to mutate an array property while another thread iterates on a copy of the a

    - by Steve918
    I would like to implement an observer pattern in Objective-C where the observer implements an interface similar to SKPaymentTransactionObserver and the observable class just extends my base observable. My observable class looks something like what is below. Notice I'm making copies of the observers before enumeration to avoid throwing an exception . I've tried adding an NSLock around add observers and notify observers, but I run into a deadlock. What would be the proper way to handle concurrency when observers are being added as notifications are being sent? @implementation Observable -(void)notifyObservers:(SEL)selector { @synchronized(self) { NSSet* observer_copy = [observers copy]; for (id observer in observer_copy) { if([observer respondsToSelector: selector]) { [observer performSelector: selector]; } } [observer_copy release]; } } -(void)notifyObservers:(SEL)selector withObject:(id)arg1 withObject:(id)arg2 { @synchronized(self) { NSSet* observer_copy = [observers copy]; for (id observer in observer_copy) { if([observer respondsToSelector: selector]) { [observer performSelector: selector withObject: arg1 withObject: arg2]; } } [observer_copy release]; } } -(void)addObserver:(id)observer { @synchronized(self) { [observers addObject: observer]; } } -(void)removeObserver:(id)observer { @synchronized(self) { [observers removeObject: observer]; } }

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  • FluentNHibernate, getting 1 column from another table

    - by puffpio
    We're using FluentNHibernate and we have run into a problem where our object model requires data from two tables like so: public class MyModel { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual int FooId { get; set; } public virtual string FooName { get; set; } } Where there is a MyModel table that has Id, Name, and FooId as a foreign key into the Foo table. The Foo tables contains Id and FooName. This problem is very similar to another post here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1896645/nhibernate-join-tables-and-get-single-column-from-other-table but I am trying to figure out how to do it with FluentNHibernate. I can make the Id, Name, and FooId very easily..but mapping FooName I am having trouble with. This is my class map: public class MyModelClassMap : ClassMap<MyModel> { public MyModelClassMap() { this.Id(a => a.Id).Column("AccountId").GeneratedBy.Identity(); this.Map(a => a.Name); this.Map(a => a.FooId); // my attempt to map FooName but it doesn't work this.Join("Foo", join => join.KeyColumn("FooId").Map(a => a.FooName)); } } with that mapping I get this error: The element 'class' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has invalid child element 'join' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. List of possible elements expected: 'joined-subclass, loader, sql-insert, sql-update, sql-delete, filter, resultset, query, sql-query' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. any ideas?

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  • jQuery: get the file name selected from <input type="file" />

    - by ConNen
    This code should work in IE (don't even test it in Firefox), but it doesn't. What I want is to display the name of the attached file. Any help? <html> <head> <title>example</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function(){ $("#attach").after("<input id='fakeAttach' type='button' value='attach a file' />"); $("#fakeAttach").click(function() { $("#attach").click(); $("#maxSize").after("<div id='temporary'><span id='attachedFile'></span><input id='remove' type='button' value='remove' /></div>"); $('#attach').change(function(){ $("#fakeAttach").attr("disabled","disabled"); $("#attachedFile").html($(this).val()); }); $("#remove").click(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); $("#attach").replaceWith($("#attach").clone()); $("#fakeAttach").attr("disabled",""); $("#temporary").remove(); }); }) }); </script> </head> <body> <input id="attach" type="file" /><span id="maxSize">(less than 1MB)</span> </body> </html>

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  • Passing an Ajax variable to a Codeigniter function

    - by Matt
    Hello, I think this is a simple one. I have a Codeigniter function which takes the inputs from a form and inserts them into a database. I want to Ajaxify the process. At the moment the first line of the function gets the id field from the form - I need to change this to get the id field from the Ajax post (which references a hidden field in the form containing the necessary value) instead. How do I do this please? My Codeigniter Controller function function add() { $product = $this->products_model->get($this->input->post('id')); $insert = array( 'id' => $this->input->post('id'), 'qty' => 1, 'price' => $product->price, 'size' => $product->size, 'name' => $product->name ); $this->cart->insert($insert); redirect('home'); } And the jQuery Ajax function $("#form").submit(function(){ var dataString = $("input#id") //alert (dataString);return false; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/home/add", data: dataString, success: function() { } }); return false; }); As always, many thanks in advance.

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  • Set Custom ASP.NET UserControl variables when its in a Repeater

    - by tnriverfish
    <%@ Register Src="~/Controls/PressFileDownload.ascx" TagName="pfd" TagPrefix="uc1" %> <asp:Repeater id="Repeater1" runat="Server" OnItemDataBound="RPTLayer_OnItemDataBound"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="LBLHeader" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Label> <asp:Image ID="IMGThumb" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Image> <asp:Label ID="LBLBody" Runat="server" class="layerBody"></asp:Label> <uc1:pfd ID="pfd1" runat="server" ShowContainerName="false" ParentContentTypeId="55" /> <asp:Literal ID="litLayerLinks" runat="server"></asp:Literal> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label lbl; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal lit; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Image img; System.Web.UI.WebControls.HyperLink hl; System.Web.UI.UserControl uc; I need to set the ParentItemID variable for the uc1:pdf listed inside the repeater. I thought I should be able to find uc by looking in the e.Item and then setting it somehow. I think this is the part where I'm missing something. uc = (UserControl)e.Item.FindControl("pfd1"); if (uc != null) { uc.Attributes["ParentItemID"] = i.ItemID.ToString(); } Any thoughts would be appreciated. Also tried this with similar results... when I debug inside my usercontrol (pfd1) the parameters I am trying to set have not been set. uc = (UserControl)e.Item.FindControl("pfd1"); if (uc != null) { uc.Attributes.Add("ContainerID", _cid.ToString()); uc.Attributes.Add("ParentItemId", i.ItemID.ToString()); }

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