Search Results

Search found 7586 results on 304 pages for 'header only'.

Page 250/304 | < Previous Page | 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257  | Next Page >

  • Upgraded to Xcode 4 -- Endless stream of duplicate symbol errors causing build errors

    - by D-Nice
    Everything was working perfectly fine in Xcode 3 yesterday before I upgraded. So I completed the upgrade, restarted my computer, and opened my old project. I had to reconfigure a few settings like the header paths so that I could begin to compile. I'm using AdWhirl for ad mediation, and at this point my errors begin to read something like duplicate symbol _OBJC_METACLASS_$_SBJSON in /Users/Admin/Desktop/TMapLiteAdwhirl/AdWhirl/MMSDK/libMMSDK.a(SBJSON.o) and /Users/Admin/Library/Developer/Xcode/DerivedData/TruxMapLite-bgpylibztethnlhkfkdumpvrjvgy/Build/Intermediates/TruxMapLite.build/Debug-iphoneos/TruxMapLite.build/Objects-normal/armv6/SBJSON.o for architecture armv6 The library it's referring to is the SDK for one of the ad networks I'm including in AdWhirl. Both of the 'duplicate symbols' refer to the SAME FILE, but they use different paths. If I had still had XCode 3, I would simply try excluding these libraries from the build path, but I have no idea how that can be done in Xcode 4. I've tried everything all the way down to deleting the library and all associated files from my project, but when I do this, i will simply get the same type of error for a different library in the AdWhirl directory. This is incredibly frustrating because before my upgrade everything was working smoothly and I was prepared to submit my binary. If anyone has any advice, id be more than happy to give it a try. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Rewrite a URL that's already been redirected?

    - by Jack
    Hi guys, I'm running an Apache2 web server with a dynamic IP address. I bought exampledomain.net, and I use no-ip.com's domain-update service to redirect any visitors to my current ip address (endnote #1). For example, someone visits exampledomain.net and they get redirected to 73.181.57.34. It works like a charm. However, it isn't all that user-friendly. Can I rewrite the redirected, ip-address URL? I tried these rewrite rules in the root folder's .htaccess... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I simplified the RewriteCond. I would use regex in a real situation. Of course, this creates an infinite loop. The user visits www.exampledomain.net. They're redirected to 73.181.57.34:88 by no-ip. Apache redirects them to www.exampledomain.net which redirects them back to 73.181.57.34:88... so on and so forth. I'm a noob when it comes to rewriting, but is there a way to rewrite a URL without redirecting? I tried these rewrite rules too (a shot in the dark)... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ my.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I'd read that Apache replied with a redirect header when you include http Thanks! (1) No-IP works like this: You download and install their dynamic update client on your server. Every couple of minutes it polls your server for its current external ip address. If it's changed, it updates your server's ip address in no-ip's records.

    Read the article

  • JavaScript: Double script tags in Google Analytics tracking code

    - by Tom
    This is more a curiosity question than anything else... Google instructs to add the analytics tracking code as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> var gaJsHost = (("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://ssl." : "http://www."); document.write(unescape("%3Cscript src='" + gaJsHost + "google-analytics.com/ga.js' type='text/javascript'%3E%3C/script%3E")); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> try{ var pageTracker = _gat._getTracker("UA-xxxxxx-x"); pageTracker._trackPageview(); } catch(err) {} </script> I'm wondering some JS guru here could tell me why they're separating it into two script tags instead of sticking it all inside one. I know that the top part could be put in the header and the bottom part just before body tag to ensure the page loaded before it's tracked, but I'm wondering if there's something more to it. Anyone who'd know that would likely know how to separate the code into two tags anyway. I'm only asking as this is coming from the Goog and is being used by millions of sites... Thanks

    Read the article

  • Cookie not working after mod rewrite rule

    - by moonwalker
    Hi all, I have a simple Cookie to set the chosen language: $lang = $_GET['lang']; $myLang = $_COOKIE["myLang"]; if (!isset($_COOKIE["myLang"])){ setcookie("myLang", "en", $expire); include "languages/en.php"; $myLang = "en"; }else{ include "languages/$myLang.php"; } // One year to expire $expire = time()+60*60*24*30*365; // Put $languages in a common header file. $languages = array('en' => 1, 'fr' => 2, 'nl' => 3); if (array_key_exists($lang, $languages)) { include "languages/{$lang}.php"; setcookie("myLang", $lang, $expire); $myLang = $lang; } After using some rewrite rules, it just doesn't work anymore. I tried the following: setcookie("myLang", "en", $expire, "/" , false); No luck at all. This is my .htaccess file: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> Options +FollowSymLinks Options +Indexes RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^sort/([^/]*)/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/sort.php?mode=$1&cat=$2 [L] RewriteRule ^category/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/category.php?cat=$1 [L] RewriteRule ^category/([^/]*)/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/category.php?cat=$1&lang=$2 [L] RewriteRule ^search/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/search.php?mode=$1 [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^u/([^/]+)/?$ 3arsi2/user.php?user=$1 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^u/([^/]+)/(images|videos|music)/?$ 3arsi2/user.php?user=$1&page=$2 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^([^\.]+)$ 3arsi2/$1.php [NC,L] </IfModule> Any idea how to solve this? I'm still new to the mod rewrite thing, so I still don't really understand the logic behind it all. Thanks for any help you can provide.

    Read the article

  • C++ Multiple inheritance with interfaces?

    - by umanga
    Greetings all, I come from Java background and I am having difficulty with multiple inheritance. I have an interface called IView which has init() method.I want to derive a new class called PlaneViewer implementing above interface and extend another class. (QWidget). My implementation is as: IViwer.h (only Header file , no CPP file) : #ifndef IVIEWER_H_ #define IVIEWER_H_ class IViewer { public: //IViewer(); ///virtual //~IViewer(); virtual void init()=0; }; #endif /* IVIEWER_H_ */ My derived class. PlaneViewer.h #ifndef PLANEVIEWER_H #define PLANEVIEWER_H #include <QtGui/QWidget> #include "ui_planeviewer.h" #include "IViewer.h" class PlaneViewer : public QWidget , public IViewer { Q_OBJECT public: PlaneViewer(QWidget *parent = 0); ~PlaneViewer(); void init(); //do I have to define here also ? private: Ui::PlaneViewerClass ui; }; #endif // PLANEVIEWER_H PlaneViewer.cpp #include "planeviewer.h" PlaneViewer::PlaneViewer(QWidget *parent) : QWidget(parent) { ui.setupUi(this); } PlaneViewer::~PlaneViewer() { } void PlaneViewer::init(){ } My questions are: Is it necessary to declare method init() in PlaneViewer interface also , because it is already defined in IView? 2.I cannot complie above code ,give error : PlaneViewer]+0x28): undefined reference to `typeinfo for IViewer' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Do I have to have implementation for IView in CPP file?

    Read the article

  • Is there a better tool than postcat for viewing postfix mail queue files?

    - by Geekman
    So I got a call early this morning about a client needing to see what email they have waiting to be delivered sitting in our secondary mail server. Their link for the main server had (still is) been down for two days and they needed to see their email. So I wrote up a quick Perl script to use mailq in combination with postcat to dump each email for their address into separate files, tar'd it up and sent it off. Horrible code, I know, but it was urgent. My solution works OK in that it at least gives a raw view, but I thought tonight it would be nice if I had a solution where I could provide their email attachments and maybe remove some "garbage" header text as well. Most of the important emails seem to have a PDF or similar attached. I've been looking around but the only method of viewing queue files I can see is the postcat command, and I really don't want to write my own parser - so I was wondering if any of you have already done so, or know of a better command to use? Here's the code for my current solution: #!/usr/bin/perl $qCmd="mailq | grep -B 2 \"someemailaddress@isp\" | cut -d \" \" -f 1"; @data = split(/\n/, `$qCmd`); $i = 0; foreach $line (@data) { $i++; $remainder = $i % 2; if ($remainder == 0) { next; } if ($line =~ /\(/ || $line =~ /\n/ || $line eq "") { next; } print "Processing: " . $line . "\n"; `postcat -q $line > $line.email.txt`; $subject=`cat $line.email.txt | grep "Subject:"`; #print "SUB" . $subject; #`cat $line.email.txt > \"$subject.$line.email.txt\"`; } Any advice appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Force a view change from a button when using UITabBarController

    - by user342197
    Hello - When using a UITabBarController, when the user enters some data on View1 and presses a button, I need to perform some calculations and present the results on View2. I have an AppDelegate, View1Controller, View2Controller, and View3Controller (View3 is a basically static view). My AppDelgate declares UITabBarController *rootController; On View1, I have the calculations being performed in an IBAction for buttonPressed; however, I can't seem to force the view to switch to View2 programmatically. I have done a lot of searching for similar problems, and think I should be doing something like "self.rootController.selectedIndex = 1"; however,when I do this from within buttonPressed on my View1Controller, I get an error "request for member rootController in something not in a structure or union". I think I'm missing something basic here... probably need do do something with my AppDelegate, but I'm banging my head against the wall. Can anyone provide some guidance in this situation...like key things I should do in View1Controller header and implementation with reference to my AppDelgate? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • How to get the Video-ID of a just uploaded Youtube movie

    - by murze
    Hi, how can i get the video-id of a just uploaded Youtube movie? I'm using this code: $yt = new Zend_Gdata_YouTube($httpClient); // create a new Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry object $myVideoEntry = new Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry(); // create a new Zend_Gdata_App_MediaFileSource object $filesource = $yt->newMediaFileSource('mytestmovie.mov'); $filesource->setContentType('video/quicktime'); // set slug header $filesource->setSlug('mytestmovie.mov'); // add the filesource to the video entry $myVideoEntry->setMediaSource($filesource); $myVideoEntry->setVideoTitle('My Test Movie'); $myVideoEntry->setVideoDescription('My Test Movie'); $myVideoEntry->setVideoCategory('Comedy'); // Note that category must be a valid YouTube category ! // set keywords, please note that this must be a comma separated string // and that each keyword cannot contain whitespace $myVideoEntry->setVideoTags('cars, funny'); // upload URI for the currently authenticated user $uploadUrl = 'http://uploads.gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/users/default/uploads'; // try to upload the video, catching a Zend_Gdata_App_HttpException if available // or just a regular Zend_Gdata_App_Exception try { $newEntry = $yt->insertEntry($myVideoEntry, $uploadUrl, 'Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry'); } catch (Zend_Gdata_App_HttpException $httpException) { echo $httpException->getRawResponseBody(); } catch (Zend_Gdata_App_Exception $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } I assume it 'll be a property of $newEntry but i can't seem to find it! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How do I ensure only the headers are shown for the first item in an ItemsControl in WPF?

    - by Dan Ryan
    I am using MVVM binding an ObservableCollection of children to an ItemsControl. The ItemsControl contains a UserControl used to style the UI for the children. <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Documents}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <View:DocumentView Margin="0, 10, 0, 0" /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I want to show a header row for the contents of the ItemsControl but only want to show this once at the top (not for every child). How can I implement this behaviour in the DocumentView user control? Fyi I am using a Grid layout to style the child rows: <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="34"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="100"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="60" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.Row="0" Text="Should only show this at the top"></TextBlock> <Image Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Height="24" Width="24" Source="/Beazley.Documents.Presentation;component/Icons/error.png"></Image> <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Name="ContentTypes" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.ContentTypes}" SelectedValue="{Binding ContentType}"/> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" Text="{Binding Path=FileName}"/> <Button Grid.Column="3" Grid.Row="1" Command="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.RemoveFile}" CommandParameter="{Binding}">Remove</Button> </Grid>

    Read the article

  • What's the best NAME for "quick" Category you add to a file?

    - by Joe Blow
    So the other day I was sick of typing out repetetive addTarget:action:forControlEvents:s, and macros are only entertaining for so long, so I did this: @implementation UIControl (xx) -(void)addTarget:(id)target action:(SEL)action { [self addTarget:target action:action forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; } @end *and simply added it at the top of the .m file in question. Works great of course, but notice the "xx".* What's the best thing to NAME a "quick" Category like this? Annoyingly, it appears you can not leave the xx blank - it would then become an "Extension" (which, incidentally, I don't understand at all). I was thinking maybe: a single underscore the name of the class again identically "quick" perhaps the name of the class in this file (as in "quick extra routines for UIControl in CherryBomb") - so it would be UIControl(CherryBomb), ie, remind you that these extra routines are handy for CherryBomb "x" your or your company's initials (use the same "quick" Category name everywhere) "ThisTextNeverUsedAnywhere" By the way, I've been assuming that Categories only happen in the files that see them (CherryBomb.m in the example) - they do not from then on apply app-wide. ie they only apply where you include the header file (UIControl+NattyStuff) or in the "quick" case only in the file to which one adds the text. (By the way ... it appears you do not actually need to include an interface for such a Category, i.e. you can omit... //you can actually get away without these lines... //#import <UIKit/UIControl.h> //@interface UIControl (x) //-(void)addTarget:(id)target action:(SEL)action; //@end ... that part and it works fine.) For people who love Categories, and who doesn't, what's the answer to this troubling question? What should you name a "quick" Category where the name is never going to be referenced again and is irrelevant? Is "_" a solution?

    Read the article

  • Object addSubview only works in viewDidLoad

    - by DecodingSand
    Hi, I'm new to iPhone dev and need some help with adding subViews. I have a reusable object that I made that is stored in a separate .h .m and xib file. I would like to use this object in my main project's view controller. I have included the header and the assignment of the object generates no errors. I am able to load the object into my main project but can only do things with it inside my viewDidLoad method. I intend to have a few of these objects on my screen and am looking fora solution that is more robust then just hard wiring up multiple copies of the shape object. As soon as I try to access the object outside of the viewDidLoad it produces a variable unknown error - first use in this function. Here is my viewDidLoad method: shapeViewController *shapeView = [[shapeViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"shapeViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview: shapeView.view]; // This is the problem line // This code works changes the display on the shape object [shapeView updateDisplay:@"123456"]; ---- but the same code outside of the viewDidLoad generates the error. So to sum up, everything works except when I try to access the shapeView object in the rest of the methods. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Find Control inside Grid Row

    - by arpan911
    i m using parent child grid and on child grid i m doing Show / hide threw java script. and child grid i bind run time with Templatecolumns like GridView NewDg = new GridView(); NewDg.ID = "dgdStoreWiseMenuStock"; TemplateField TOTAL = new TemplateField(); TOTAL.HeaderTemplate = new BusinessLogic.GridViewTemplateTextBox(ListItemType.Header, "TOTAL",e.Row.RowIndex ); TOTAL.HeaderStyle.Width = Unit.Percentage(5.00); TOTAL.ItemTemplate = new BusinessLogic.GridViewTemplateTextBox(ListItemType.Item, "TOTAL", e.Row.RowIndex); NewDg.Columns.Add(TOTAL); NewDg.DataSource = ds; NewDg.DataBind(); NewDg.Columns[1].Visible = false; NewDg.Columns[2].Visible = false; System.IO.StringWriter sw = new System.IO.StringWriter(); System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter htw = new System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter(sw); NewDg.RenderControl(htw); Now I have one TextBox inside Grid named "TOTAL" I want to Find This TextBox and wanna get its value. How can Get it ?

    Read the article

  • PHP GD imagecreatefromstring discards transparency

    - by meustrus
    I've been trying to get transparency to work with my application (which dynamically resizes images before storing them) and I think I've finally narrowed down the problem after much misdirection about imagealphablending and imagesavealpha. The source image is never loaded with proper transparency! // With this line, the output image has no transparency (where it should be // transparent, colors bleed out randomly or it's completely black, depending // on the image) $img = imagecreatefromstring($fileData); // With this line, it works as expected. $img = imagecreatefrompng($fileName); // Blah blah blah, lots of image resize code into $img2 goes here; I finally // tried just outputting $img instead. header('Content-Type: image/png'); imagealphablending($img, FALSE); imagesavealpha($img, TRUE); imagepng($img); imagedestroy($img); It would be some serious architectural difficulty to load the image from a file; this code is being used with a JSON API that gets queried from an iPhone app, and it's easier in this case (and more consistent) to upload images as base64-encoded strings in the POST data. Do I absolutely need to somehow store the image as a file (just so that PHP can load it into memory again)? Is there maybe a way to create a Stream from $fileData that can be passed to imagecreatefrompng?

    Read the article

  • Looping through an List to select an Element in Selenium

    - by ChrisMcLellan
    I'm attempting to write a Page Class for Links within the Header of the website I'm testing. I have the following link structure below <ul> <li><a href="/" title="Home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="/AboutUs" title="About Us">About Us</a> </li> <li><a href="/Account" title="Account">Account</a></li> <li><a href="/Account/Orders" title="Orders">Orders</a></li> <li><a href="/AdministrationPortal" title="Administration Portal">Administration Portal</a></li> </ul> What I want to do is store these into a List, then when a user select one of the links, it will take then to the page they should go to. I have started with the following code below List<IWebElement> headerElements = new List<IWebElement>(); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Home"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("About Us"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Account"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Orders"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Administration Portal"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Log in / Register"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Log off"))); I was thinking for using a for loop to do this, would this be the best way. I'm trying to avoid writting methods like the one below for each link public void SelectCreateNewReferralLink() { var selectAboutUsLink = ( new WebDriverWait(WebDriver, new TimeSpan(50))).Until (ExpectedConditions.ElementExists(By.CssSelector("#main > a:nth-of-type(1)"))); selectCreateNewReferralLink.Click(); } I'm using C#, with WebDriver attempting to write this Any Help would be great Thanks Chris

    Read the article

  • Forms authentication: disable redirect to the login page

    - by codeka
    I have an application that uses ASP.NET Forms Authentication. For the most part, it's working great, but I'm trying to add support for a simple API via an .ashx file. I want the ashx file to have optional authentication (i.e. if you don't supply an Authentication header, then it just works anonymously). But, depending on what you do, I want to require authentication under certain conditions. I thought it would be a simple matter of responding with status code 401 if the required authentication was not supplied, but it seems like the Forms Authentcation module is intercepting that and responding with a redirect to the login page instead. What I mean is, if my ProcessRequest method looks like this: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { Response.StatusCode = 401; Response.StatusDescription = "Authentication required"; } Then instead of getting a 401 error code on the client, like I expect, I'm actually getting a 302 redirect to the login page. For nornal HTTP traffic, I can see how that would be useful, but for my API page, I want the 401 to go through unmodified so that the client-side caller can respond to it programmatically instead. Is there any way to do that?

    Read the article

  • No "redefinition of default parameter error" for class template member function?

    - by STingRaySC
    Why does the following give no compilation error?: // T.h template<class T> class X { public: void foo(int a = 42); }; // Main.cpp #include "T.h" #include <iostream> template<class T> void X<T>::foo(int a = 13) { std::cout << a << std::endl; } int main() { X<int> x; x.foo(); // prints 42 } It seems as though the 13 is just silently ignored by the compiler. Why is this? The cooky thing is that if the template declaration is in Main.cpp instead of a header file, I do indeed get the default parameter redefinition error. Now I know the compiler will complain about this if it were just an ordinary (non-template) function. What does the standard have to say about default parameters in class template member functions or function templates?

    Read the article

  • iPhone Adding Controls (UIButton, UILabel etc.) on a Playing Video!

    - by Taimur Hamza
    I have been assigned an 'easy' task of adding a button over a playing video. I m terming it easy as i have got the sample code downloaded from Apple's sample code. http://rapidshare.com/files/393248642/MoviePlayer_iPhone.zip Anybody who wants to reply to my query and intends to help should download this project and run it otherwise it wudnt be easy to understand my problem. Thanks! And now the weird problem i am facing is: In the sample project developer has added the view ( UILabel and UIButton ) in the Appdelegate. And i want it other xib files not the App delegate . Fine i added a view 'myButtonABC' instead of 'My Overlay View'. And added this code in my xib file's implementation file. (void)viewDidLoad { TaimurAppDelegate *appDelegate = (TaimurAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [appDelegate initAndPlayMovie:[self localMovieURL]]; NSArray *windows = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] windows]; if ([windows count] 1) { UIWindow *moviePlayerWindow = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] keyWindow]; [moviePlayerWindow addSubview:self.myABC]; } } Now my question is do i need to declare a UIWindow object in the header file here. As i am not working in the app delegate class. As i said previously i have to add this button over a video in other screen and not on the main screen. The third question is can anyone, which in fact is the most imp of all. In my view , if i am able to do this one my problem would be solved. As i have spend considerable amount of time on this task so far. The question is " How can i connect myABCButton (which is a view added to my xib file ) to the File's Owner. Thanks for your patience. Replies Appreciated ! Taimur

    Read the article

  • How to not cache a php file where a cachemanifest is beeing called?

    - by Volmar
    Hi, i'm building a iphone app with jqtouch and i use a cachemanifest to cache all the static files (images, css, javascript) to make it load faster. However the page uses php for the dynamic content and i don't want to cache that. So i'm generating the cachemanifest with this php-script(manifest.php): <?php header('Content-Type: text/cache-manifest'); echo "CACHE MANIFEST\n"; $hashes = ""; $lastFileWasDynamic = FALSE; $dir = new RecursiveDirectoryIterator("."); foreach(new RecursiveIteratorIterator($dir) as $file) { if ($file->IsFile() && $file != "./manifest.php" && substr($file->getFilename(), 0, 1) != ".") { if(preg_match('/.php$/', $file)) { if(!$lastFileWasDynamic) { echo "\n\nNETWORK:\n"; } $lastFileWasDynamic = TRUE; } else { if($lastFileWasDynamic) { echo "\n\nCACHE:\n"; $lastFileWasDynamic = FALSE; } } echo $file . "\n"; $hashes .= md5_file($file); } } echo "\nNETWORK:\nhttp://chart.apis.google.com/\n\n# Hash: " . md5($hashes) . "\n"; ?> This actually works really good except for one irritating thing: From what i read somewhere the file that calls the cachemanifest is automaticly included in the manifest and is beeing cached. Wich means that my start-page index.php, where i call the cachemanifest is beeing cached. This leads to very irritating problems. is there any way to deal with this or any smart workaround? The page is in the cachemanifest listed as NETWORK, but it looks like this is beeing overruled by the fact that the cachemanifest is called from the file.

    Read the article

  • How do I find and open a file in a Visual Studio 2005 add-in?

    - by Charles Randall
    I'm making an add-in with Visual Studio 2005 C# to help easily toggle between source and header files, as well as script files that all follow a similar naming structure. However, the directory structure has all of the files in different places, even though they are all in the same project. I've got almost all the pieces in place, but I can't figure out how to find and open a file in the solution based only on the file name alone. So I know I'm coming from, say, c:\code\project\subproject\src\blah.cpp, and I want to open c:\code\project\subproject\inc\blah.h, but I don't necessarily know where blah.h is. I could hardcode different directory paths but then the utility isn't generic enough to be robust. The solution has multiple projects, which seems to be a bit of a pain as well. I'm thinking at this point that I'll have to iterate through every project, and iterate through every project item, to see if the particular file is there, and then get a proper reference to it. But it seems to me there must be an easier way of doing this.

    Read the article

  • Using WordPress as a CMS

    - by tonsils
    Hi, Hoping someone can assist but I am currently teaching myself WordPress and working on my own CMS site. My site will consist of approx 5 pages where the header/sidebar menu/footer will be seen on all these 5 pages. Newbie here and questions are as follows: 1) All these 5 pages will consist of different content, for example, every page will have a image banner representing the menu option just clicked, for example, "About Us" on page 5, "Promotions" on page 4 etc and then some text beneath that and then possibly some images inside a carousel set up. Within WordPress, how would I tackle this, i.e. do I just create a page in WordPress, position the banner image at the top of the page, then have a few breaks and then insert the carousel of images - is this correct? If not, do I need to create a separate php file called aboutUs.php that has this markup and then somehow link it to a WordPress page? 2) On my landing page of my site ONLY (page 1), just above the footer, I want to display a div section that displays all the sponsors of the website along with a URL to click to their websites - how would I go about doing this in WordPress? If there are any sites that people know that will somehow answer my queries, pls pass them on. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • java annotations - problem with calling a locator class from a Vaadin Project

    - by George
    Hello, I'm not sure how to explain this without writing several pages so I hope the actual code is more expressive. I've made a jar containing multiple annotation declaration similar to the following: @Target(ElementType.PACKAGE) @Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME) public @interface MarkedPackage { } then I have made a test jar containing several classes in several packages and marked just one package with the above annotation (with package-info.java) like below: @myPackage.MarkedPackage package package.test.jar; this jar had in its build path the jar containing the annotations. then I made a static class that has a method (LoadPlugins) that retrieves a list with all the jars of a directory. Then it searches through the jars for the 'package-info' class and checks if that classes package contains the MarkedPackage annotation. by calling this: if (checkPackageAnnotation(thisClass.getPackage())) where thisClass is the package-info class retrieved via a classloader. and: public static boolean checkPackageAnnotation(AnnotatedElement elem) { System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); if (elem == null || !elem.isAnnotationPresent(MarkedPackage.class)) return false; return true; } the elem.getAnnotatios().length is there for debug purposes. And the problem appears when I call the method from the static class: if I call it from a main function: public class MyMain { public static void main(String[] args){ PluginUtils.LoadPlugins(); } } everything works perfectly it displays '1' from that System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); But if I call it from a button from my Vaadin project: header.addComponent(new Button("CallThat", new Button.ClickListener() { public void buttonClick(ClickEvent event) { PluginUtils.LoadPlugins(); } })); It displays '0' from that System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); Also I should mention that I created the main inside my Vaadin project so it would have the exact same build path and resources. Is there a problem with web applications and that "@Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME)" ? hope I was clear enough... Hope someone has a solution for me... If you need more information - let me know. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Sharing runtime variables between files

    - by nightcracker
    I have a project with a few files that all include the header global.hpp. Those files want to share and update information that is relevant for the whole program during runtime (that data is gathered progressively during the program runs but the fields of data are known at compile-time). Now my idea was to use a struct like this: global.hpp #include <string> #ifndef _GLOBAL_SESSION_STRUCT #define _GLOBAL_SESSION_STRUCT struct session_struct { std::string username; std::string password; std::string hostname; unsigned short port; // more data fields as needed }; #endif extern struct session_struct session; main.cpp #include "global.hpp" struct session_struct session; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { session.username = "user"; session.password = "secret"; session.hostname = "example.com"; session.port = 80; // other stuff, etc return 0; } Now every file that includes global.hpp can just read & write the fields of the session struct and easily share information. Is this the correct way to do this? NOTE: For this specific project no threading is used. But please (for future projects and other people reading) clarify in your answer how this (or your proposed) solution works when threaded. Also, for this example/project session variables are shared. But this should also apply to any other form of shared variables.

    Read the article

  • Giving another object a NSManagedObject

    - by Wayfarer
    Alright, so I'm running into an issue with my code. What I have done is subclassed UIButton so I can give it some more infomormation that pertain to my code. I have been able to create the buttons and they work great. Capiche. However, one of the things I want my subclass to hold is a reference to a NSMangedObject. I have this code in my header file: @interface ButtonSubclass : UIButton { NSManagedObjectContext *context; NSManagedObject *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObject *player; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *context; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame andTitle:(NSString*)title; //- (void)setPlayer:(NSManagedObject *)aPlayer; @end As you can see, it has a instance variable to the NSMangedobject I want it to hold (as well as the Context). But for the life of me, I can't get it to hold that NSManagedObject. I run both the @synthesize methods in the Implementation file. @synthesize context; @synthesize player; So I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. This is how I create my button: ButtonSubclass *playerButton = [[ButtonSubclass alloc] initWithFrame:frame andTitle:@"20"]; //works playerButton.context = self.context; //works playerButton.player = [players objectAtIndex:i]; //FAILS And I have initilaized the players array earlier, where I get the objects. Another weird thing is that when it gets to this spot in the code, the app crashes (woot) and the the console output stops. It doesn't give me any error, and notification at all that the app has crashed. It just... stops. So I don't even know what the error is that is crashing the code, besides it has to do with that line up there setting the "player" variable. Thoughts and ideas? I'd love your wisdom!

    Read the article

  • How can I change the visibility of elements inside a DataTemplate when a row is selected in a Silver

    - by miketrash
    I'm using the MVVM pattern. I've bound my items and I want to only show the edit button when a row is selected in the datagrid. It appears to be possible with triggers in WPF but we don't have triggers in Silverlight. I tried a TemplatedParent binding but I'm not sure what the TemplatedParent is in this case. We don't have RelativeSource ancestor in Silverlight either. At this point I'm going to look at a solution using the code behind... <data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn IsReadOnly="True" Header="Name" Width="300"> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <TextBlock x:Name="textBlock" Text="{Binding Name, Mode=OneWay}" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="4,4,0,4"/> <Button Margin="1,1,4,1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" VerticalAlignment="Center" Padding="7,4" Content="Edit" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn> </data:DataGrid.Columns>

    Read the article

  • jQuery AJAX request (Rails 3) gets redirected and returns empty message body!

    - by elsurudo
    I'm trying to do a manual jQuery AJAX request the following way: $("#user_plan_id").change(function() { $("#plan_container").load('/plans/' + this.value); }); I have the "rails.js" file included in my header, and a "<%= csrf_meta_tag %". I see from my log that the request IS getting to the server (although without the authenticity token... does rails.js even do this?), but the response is a 302 (Found) rather than 200, and no data actually gets rendered. Any ideas? Edit: I now see that the first request redirects, and the proper partial gets rendered on the redirect. However, the 2nd response's body (on the client-side) is still empty. I'm guessing jQuery uses the first response and doesn't have a listener set up for the redirect. How do I get around this? Also, another note: the page doing the requesting is an HTTPS page. Here is what my log says: Started GET "/plans/221168073" for 127.0.0.1 at Tue Jun 15 01:24:06 -0400 2010 Processing by PlansController#show as HTML Parameters: {"id"=>"221168073"} DEPRECATION WARNING: Using #request_uri is deprecated. Use fullpath instead. (called from ensure_proper_protocol at /Users/ernestsurudo/Sites/vidfolia/vendor/plugins/ssl_requirement/lib/ssl_requirement.rb:57) Redirected to http://vidfolia.com/plans/221168073 Completed 302 Found in 1ms Perhaps it has something to do with the deprecation warning?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257  | Next Page >