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• XSLT how to merge some lists of parameters

  - by buggy1985

  Hi, I have an URL Structure like this: http://my.domain.com/generated.xml?param1=foo&param2=bar&xsl=path/to/my.xsl The generated XML will be transformed using the given XSL Stylesheet. The two other parameters are integrated too like this: <root> <params> <param name="param1">foo</param> <param name="param2">bar</param> </param> ... </root> Now I want to create with XSLT a link with a new URI that keeps the existing parameters and adds one or multiple new parameters like page=3 or sort=DESC. If the given parameter already exists, it should be replaced. I'm not sure how to do this. How to pass multiple (optional) parameters to a template. How to merge two lists of parameters. Any ideas? Thanks ;)

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• KeyStore, HttpClient, and HTTPS: Can someone explain this code to me?

  - by stormin986

  I'm trying to understand what's going on in this code. KeyStore trustStore = KeyStore.getInstance(KeyStore.getDefaultType()); FileInputStream instream = new FileInputStream(new File("my.keystore")); try { trustStore.load(instream, "nopassword".toCharArray()); } finally { instream.close(); } SSLSocketFactory socketFactory = new SSLSocketFactory(trustStore); Scheme sch = new Scheme("https", socketFactory, 443); httpclient.getConnectionManager().getSchemeRegistry().register(sch); My Questions: trustStore.load(instream, "nopassword".toCharArray()); is doing what exactly? From reading the documentation load() will load KeyStore data from an input stream (which is just an empty file we just created), using some arbitrary "nopassword". Why not just load it with null as the InputStream parameter and an empty string as the password field? And then what is happening when this empty KeyStore is being passed to the SSLSocketFactory constructor? What's the result of such an operation? Or -- is this simply an example where in a real application you would have to actually put a reference to an existing keystore file / password?

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• How to get more detail from an exception?

  - by cusimar9

  I have a .NET 4.0 web application which implements an error handler within the Application_Error event of Global.asax. When an exception occurs this intercepts it and sends me an email including a variety of information like the logged in user, the page the error occurred on, the contents of the session etc. This is all great but there is some fundamental detail missing which I seem unable to locate. For instance, this is a subset of an error I would receive and the associated stack trace: Source: Telerik.Web.UI Message: Selection out of range Parameter name: value Stack trace: at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.PerformDataBinding(IEnumerable dataSource) at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.OnDataSourceViewSelectCallback(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Select(DataSourceSelectArguments arguments, DataSourceViewSelectCallback callback) at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.OnDataBinding(EventArgs e) at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.PerformSelect() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl.DataBind() at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl.EnsureDataBound() at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.OnPreRender(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) Now as lovely as this is I could do with knowing a) the name of the control and b) the value which caused the control to be 'out of range'. Any suggestions about how I could get this sort of information? I've run this in debug mode and the objects passed to Global.asax don't seem to hold any more detail that I can see.

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• In Python, how can I find the index of the first item in a list that is NOT some value?

  - by Ryan B. Lynch

  Python's list type has an index(x) method. It takes a single parameter x, and returns the (integer) index of the first item in the list that has the value x. Basically, I need to invert the index(x) method. I need to get the index of the first value in a list that does NOT have the value x. I would probably be able to even just use a function that returns the index of the first item with a value != None. I can think of a 'for' loop implementation with an incrementing counter variable, but I feel like I'm missing something. Is there an existing method, or a one-line Python construction that can handle this? In my program, the situation comes up when I'm handling lists returned from complex regex matches. All but one item in each list have a value of None. If I just needed the matched string, I could use a list comprehension like '[x for x in [my_list] if x is not None]', but I need the index in order to figure out which capture group in my regex actually caused the match.

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• Anchor HTML DIV tag to right of screen

  - by Phillip

  Hello, I have a site that has 2 DIV tags, one floats left the other floats right. The left DIV contains text for the page, the other DIV is used to display a video. When I have text in the left DIV that fits the entire width of the screen the video shows up where I want it. However, a few pages have very little text and cause the video to show up in the right-center of the screen. I want to anchor this DIV to the right of the screen regardless of how much text is shown. I don't seem to get this problem in lower resolutions, it occurs more in the higher resolutions (such as 1280x1024). You can see an example on these pages: http://www.quilnet.com/TechSupport.aspx - Positions the right DIV where I want it regardless of the resolution. http://www.quilnet.com/ContactUs.aspx - Makes the right DIV closer to the center in higher resolutions. I want it in the position of the page TechSupport.aspx. I am trying to refrain from using the width parameter because I want it to be resolutionally compliant. I don't want my viewers to have to move a scroll bar left and right. Any ideas? Thanks!

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• How can i use a commandlinetool (ie. sox) via subprocess.Popen with mod_wsgi?

  - by marue

  I have a custom django filefield that makes use of sox, a commandline audiotool. This works pretty well as long as i use the django development server. But as soon as i switch to the production server, using apache2 and mod_wsgi, mod_wsgi catches every output to stdout. This makes it impossible to use the commandline tool to evaluate the file, for example use it to check if the uploaded file really is an audio file like this: filetype=subprocess.Popen([sox,'--i','-t','%s'%self.path], shell=False,\ stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (filetype,error)=filetype.communicate() if error: raise EnvironmentError((1,'AudioFile error while determining audioformat: %s'%error)) Is there a way to workaround for this? edit the error i get is "missing filename". I am using mod_wsgi 2.5, standard with ubuntu 8.04. edit2 What exactly happens, when i call subprocess.Popen from within django in mod_wsgi? Shouldn't subprocess stdin/stdout be independent from django stdin/stdout? In that case mod_wsgi should not affect programms called via subprocess... I'm really confused right now, because the file i am trying to access is a temporary file, created via a filenamevariable that i pass to the file creation and the subprocess command. That file is being written to /tmp, where the rights are 777, so it can't be a rights issue. And the error message is not "file does not exist", but "missing filename", which suggests i am not passing a filename as parameter to the commandlinetool.

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• How to submit Nothing as a route value to ASP MVC

  - by Adam

  I have a route with several optional parameters. These are possible search terms in different fields. So, for example, if I have fields key, itemtype and text then I have in global.asax: routes.MapRoute( _ "Search", _ "Admin.aspx/Search/{Key}/{ItemType}/{Text}", _ New With {.controller = "Admin", .action = "Search" .Key = Nothing, .ItemType = Nothing, .Text = Nothing} _ ) My action takes optional parameters: Function Search(Optional ByVal Key As String = Nothing, _ Optional ByVal ItemType As Integer = 0, _ Optional ByVal Text As String = Nothing, _ Optional ByVal OtherText As String = Nothing) It then checks if the Key and Text strings have a non-null (and non-empty) value and adds search terms to the db request as needed. However, is it possible to send in a null value for, for example, Key but still send in a value for Text? If so, what does the URL look like? (Admin.aspx/Search//0/Foo doesn't work :) ) I know I can handle this using a parameter array instead, but wondered if this was possible using the sort of route described? I could of course define some other value as equivalent to null (for example, a space/%20) but is there any way to send a null value in the URL? I'm suspecting not, but thought I'd see if anyone knew of one. I'm using ASP MVC 2 for this project.

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• asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

  - by Jopache

  I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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• How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

  - by Randy

  So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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• Choosing a method for a webservice

  - by Wrikken

  I'm asked to set up a new webservice which should be easily usable in whatever language (php, .NET, Java, etc.) possible. Of course rolling my own can be done, accepting different content-types (xml / x-www-form-urlencoded (normal post) / json / etc.), but an existing method or mechanism would of course be prefered, cutting down time spent on development for the consumers of the service. The webservice does accept modifications / sets (it is not only simply data retrieval), but those will most likely be quite a lot less then gets (we estimate about 2.5% sets, 97.5 gets). The term webservice here indicates the protocol should go over HTTP, not being able to implement it totally client sided (javascript in the end-users browser etc.), as it needs specific user authentication. Both gets and sets are pretty light on the parameter count (usually 1 to 4). Methods like REST (which I'd prefer for only gets), XML-RPC & SOAP (might be a bit overkill, but has the advantage of explicitly defined methods and returns) are the usual suspects. What in your opinion / experience is the most widely 'spoken' and most easily implementable protocol in different languages (seen from the consumers' viewpoint) which could fullfill this need?

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• Google Chrome and (cache or memory leaks).

  - by Alexey Ogarkov

  Hello All, I have a big problem with Google Chrome and its memory. My app is displaying to user several image charts and reloads them every 10s. In the interval i have code like that var image = new Image(); var src = 'myurl/image'+new Date().getTime(); image.onload = function() { document.getElementById('myimage').src = src; image.onload = image.onabort = image.onerror = null; } image.src = src; So i have no memory leaks in Firefox and IE. Here the response headers for images Server Apache-Coyote/1.1 Vary * Cache-Control no-store (// I try no-cache, must-revalidate and so on here) Content-Type image/png Content-Length 11131 Date Mon, 31 May 2010 14:00:28 GMT Vary * taken from here In about:cache page there is no my cached images. If i enable purge-memory-button for chrome (--purge-memory-button parameter) it`s not help. Images is in PNG24. So i think that the problem is not in cache. May be Google Chrome is not releasing memory for old images. Please help. Any suggestions. Thanks.

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• Best practice - logging events (general) and changes (database)

  - by b0x0rz

  need help with logging all activities on a site as well as database changes. requirements: * should be in database * should be easily searchable by initiator (user name / session id), event (activity type) and event parameters i can think of a database design but either it involves a lot of tables (one per event) so i can log each of the parameters of an event in a separate field OR it involves one table with generic fields (7 int numeric and 7 text types) and log everything in one table with event type field determining what parameter got written where (and hoping that i don't need more than 7 fields of a certain type, or 8 or 9 or whatever number i choose)... example of entries (the usual things): [username] login failed @datetime [username] login successful @datetime [username] changed password @datetime, estimated security of password [low/ok/high/perfect] @datetime [username] clicked result [result number] [result id] after searching for [search string] and got [number of results] @datetime [username] clicked result [result number] [result id] after searching for [search string] and got [number of results] @datetime [username] changed profile name from [old name] to [new name] @datetime [username] verified name with [credit card type] credit card @datetime datbase table [table name] purged of old entries @datetime via automated process etc... so anyone dealt with this before? any best practices / links you can share? i've seen it done with the generic solution mentioned above, but somehow that goes against what i learned from database design, but as you can see the sheer number of events that need to be trackable (each user will be able to see this info) is giving me headaches, BUT i do LOVE the one event per table solution more than the generic one. any thoughts? edit: also, is there maybe an authoritative list of such (likely) events somewhere? thnx stack overflow says: the question you're asking appears subjective and is likely to be closed. my answer: probably is subjective, but it is directly related to my issue i have with designing a database / writing my code, so i'd welcome any help. also i tried narrowing down the ideas to 2 so hopefully one of these will prevail, unless there already is an established solution for these kinds of things.

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• C++: is it safe to work with std::vectors as if they were arrays?

  - by peoro

  I need to have a fixed-size array of elements and to call on them functions that require to know about how they're placed in memory, in particular: functions like glVertexPointer, that needs to know where the vertices are, how distant they are one from the other and so on. In my case vertices would be members of the elements to store. to get the index of an element within this array, I'd prefer to avoid having an index field within my elements, but would rather play with pointers arithmetic (ie: index of Element *x will be x - & array[0]) -- btw, this sounds dirty to me: is it good practice or should I do something else? Is it safe to use std::vector for this? Something makes me think that an std::array would be more appropriate but: Constructor and destructor for my structure will be rarely called: I don't mind about such overhead. I'm going to set the std::vector capacity to size I need (the size that would use for an std::array, thus won't take any overhead due to sporadic reallocation. I don't mind a little space overhead for std::vector's internal structure. I could use the ability to resize the vector (or better: to have a size chosen during setup), and I think there's no way to do this with std::array, since its size is a template parameter (that's too bad: I could do that even with an old C-like array, just dynamically allocating it on the heap). If std::vector is fine for my purpose I'd like to know into details if it will have some runtime overhead with respect to std::array (or to a plain C array): I know that it'll call the default constructor for any element once I increase its size (but I guess this won't cost anything if my data has got an empty default constructor?), same for destructor. Anything else?

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• Boost binding a function taking a reference

  - by Jamie Cook

  Hi all, I am having problems compiling the following snippet int temp; vector<int> origins; vector<string> originTokens = OTUtils::tokenize(buffer, ","); // buffer is a char[] array // original loop BOOST_FOREACH(string s, originTokens) { from_string(temp, s); origins.push_back(temp); } // I'd like to use this to replace the above loop std::transform(originTokens.begin(), originTokens.end(), origins.begin(), boost::bind<int>(&FromString<int>, boost::ref(temp), _1)); where the function in question is // the third parameter should be one of std::hex, std::dec or std::oct template <class T> bool FromString(T& t, const std::string& s, std::ios_base& (*f)(std::ios_base&) = std::dec) { std::istringstream iss(s); return !(iss >> f >> t).fail(); } the error I get is 1>Compiling with Intel(R) C++ 11.0.074 [IA-32]... (Intel C++ Environment) 1>C:\projects\svn\bdk\Source\deps\boost_1_42_0\boost/bind/bind.hpp(303): internal error: assertion failed: copy_default_arg_expr: rout NULL, no error (shared/edgcpfe/il.c, line 13919) 1> 1> return unwrapper<F>::unwrap(f, 0)(a[base_type::a1_], a[base_type::a2_]); 1> ^ 1> 1>icl: error #10298: problem during post processing of parallel object compilation Google is being unusually unhelpful so I hope that some one here can provide some insights.

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• How does C#'s DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

  - by Bill Paetzke

  Given: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees "5/1/2010" to "5/4/2010." But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would allow the user to get the latest data and always pass the same end date to the sql proc--"5/5/2010" in this case. Please speak to this as well. Sample proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

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• How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

  - by Seth Spearman

  Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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• Is there really such a thing as a char or short in modern programming?

  - by Dean P

  Howdy all, I've been learning to program for a Mac over the past few months (I have experience in other languages). Obviously that has meant learning the Objective C language and thus the plainer C it is predicated on. So I have stumbles on this quote, which refers to the C/C++ language in general, not just the Mac platform. With C and C++ prefer use of int over char and short. The main reason behind this is that C and C++ perform arithmetic operations and parameter passing at integer level, If you have an integer value that can fit in a byte, you should still consider using an int to hold the number. If you use a char, the compiler will first convert the values into integer, perform the operations and then convert back the result to char. So my question, is this the case in the Mac Desktop and IPhone OS environments? I understand when talking about theses environments we're actually talking about 3-4 different architectures (PPC, i386, Arm and the A4 Arm variant) so there may not be a single answer. Nevertheless does the general principle hold that in modern 32 bit / 64 bit systems using 1-2 byte variables that don't align with the machine's natural 4 byte words doesn't provide much of the efficiency we may expect. For instance, a plain old C-Array of 100,000 chars is smaller than the same 100,000 ints by a factor of four, but if during an enumeration, reading out each index involves a cast/boxing/unboxing of sorts, will we see overall lower 'performance' despite the saved memory overhead?

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• Attempting to Convert Byte[] into Image... but is there platform issues involved

  - by user305535

  Greetings, Current, I'm attempting to develop an application that takes a Byte Array that is streamed to us from a Linux C language program across a TCPClient (stream) and reassemble it back into an image/jpg. The "sending" application was developed by a off-site developer who claims that the image reassembles back into an image without any problems or errors in his test environment (all Linux)... However, we are not so fortunate. I (believe) we successfully get all of the data sent, storing it as a string (lets us append the stream until it is complete) and then we convert it back into a Byte[]. This appears to be working fine... But, when we take the byte[] we get from the streaming (and our string assembly) and try to convert it into an image using the System.Drawing.Image.FromStream() we get errors.... Anyone have any idea what we're doing wrong? Or, does anyone know if this is a cross-platform issue? We're developing our app for Windows XP and C# .net, but the off-site developer did his work in c and Linux... perhaps there's some difference as to how each Operating System Coverts Images into Byte Arrays? Anyway, here's the code for converting our received ByteArray (from the TCPClient Stream) into an image. This code works when we send an image from a test machine we built that RUNS on XP, but not from the Linux box... System.Text.ASCIIEncoding encoding = new System.Text.ASCIIEncoding(); byte[] imageBytes = encoding.GetBytes(data); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(imageBytes, 0, imageBytes.Length); // Convert byte[] to Image ms.Write(imageBytes, 0, imageBytes.Length); System.Drawing.Image image = System.Drawing.Image.FromStream(ms, false); <-- DIES here, throws a {System.ArgumentException: Parameter is not valid.} error Any advice, suggestions, theories, or HELP would be GREATLY appreciated! Please let me know??? Best wishes all! Thanks in advance! Greg

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• Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

  - by Joe White

  Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

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• Traversing through an arbitrary dictionary tree structure in C#

  - by Rudism

  I am trying to write a recursive C# function that will operate on generic dictionaries of the form IDictionary<string, T> where T is either another IDictionary<string, T> or a string. My first failed attempt looked something like this: public string HandleDict(IDictionary<string, string> dict){ // handle the leaf-node here } public string HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, IDictionary<string, T>> dict){ // loop through children foreach(string key in dict.Keys){ HandleDict(dict[key]); } } I also tried variants of HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, T>) where T : IDictionary<string, T> but that also doesn't quite work. I know that what I want to do could be achieved through a custom class as the parameter instead of dictionaries, and that my attempts are conceptually flawed (there's no end to the recursion in the generic function). I would still like to know if there is actually a way to do what I want here using just generic IDictionaries.

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• Is this a hole in dynamic binding in C# 4?

  - by Galilyou

  I've seen a very interesting post on Fabio Maulo's blog. Here's the code and the bug if you don't want to jump to the url. I defined a new generic class like so: public class TableStorageInitializer<TTableEntity> where TTableEntity : class, new() { public void Initialize() { InitializeInstance(new TTableEntity()); } public void InitializeInstance(dynamic entity) { entity.PartitionKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); entity.RowKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); } } Note that InitializeInstance accepts one parameter, which is of type dynamic. Now to test this class, I defined another class that is nested inside my main Program class like so: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { TableStorageInitializer<MyClass> x = new TableStorageInitializer<MyClass>(); x.Initialize(); } private class MyClass { public string PartitionKey { get; set; } public string RowKey { get; set; } public DateTime Timestamp { get; set; } } } Note: the inner class "MyClass" is declared private. Now if i run this code I get a "Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException" on the line "entity.PartitionKey = Guide.NewGuid().ToString()". The interesting part, though is that the message of the exception says "Object doesn't contain a definition for PartitionKey". Also note that if you changed the modifier of the nested class to public, the code will execute with no problems. So what do you guys think is really happening under the hood? Please refer to any documentation -of course if this is documented anywhere- that you may find?

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• Bytecode and Objects

  - by HH

  Hey everyone, I am working on a bytecode instrumentation project. Currently when handling objects, the verifier throws an error most of the time. So I would like to get things clear concerning rules with objects (I read the JVMS but couldn't find the answer I was looking for): I am instrumenting the NEW instruction: original bytecode NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> after instrumentation NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESTATIC <Profiler.handleNEW> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> Note that I added a call to Profiler.handleNEW() which takes as argument an object reference (the newly created object). The piece of code above throws a VerificationError. While if I don't add the INVOKESTATIC (leaving only the DUP), it doesn't. So what is the rule that I'm violating? I can duplicate an uninitialized reference but I can't pass it as parameter? I would appreciate any help. Thank you

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• Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. SQL Server

  - by geekzlla

  I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 ORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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• std::conditional compile-time branch evaluation

  - by cmannett85

  Compiling this: template < class T, class Y, class ...Args > struct isSame { static constexpr bool value = std::conditional< sizeof...( Args ), typename std::conditional< std::is_same< T, Y >::value, isSame< Y, Args... >, // Error! std::false_type >::type, std::is_same< T, Y > >::type::value; }; int main() { qDebug() << isSame< double, int >::value; return EXIT_SUCCESS; } Gives me this compiler error: error: wrong number of template arguments (1, should be 2 or more) The issue is that isSame< double, int > has an empty Args parameter pack, so isSame< Y, Args... > effectively becomes isSame< Y > which does not match the signature. But my question is: Why is that branch being evaluated at all? sizeof...( Args ) is false, so the inner std:conditional should not be evaluated. This isn't a runtime piece of code, the compiler knows that sizeof..( Args ) will never be true with the given template types. If you're curious, it's supposed to be a variadic version of std::is_same, not that it works...

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• java 6 web services share domain specific classes between server and client

  - by user173446

  Hi all, Context: Considering below defined Engine class being parameter of some webservice method. As we have both server and client in java we may have some benefits (???) in sharing Engine class between server and client ( i.e we may put in a common jar file to be added to both client and server classpath ) Some benefits would be : we keep specific operations like 'brushEngine' in same place build is faster as we do not need in our case to generate java code for client classes but to use them from the server build) if we later change server implementation for 'brushEngine' this is reflected automatically in client . Questions: How to share below detailed Engine class using java 6 tools ( i.e wsimport , wsgen etc )? Is there other tools for java that can achieve this sharing ? Is sharing a case that java 6 web services support is missing ? Can this case be reduced to other web service usage patterns? Thanks. Code: public class Engine { private String engineData; public String getData(){ return data; } public setData(String value){ this.data = value; } public void brushEngine(){ engineData = "BrushedEngine"+engineData; } }

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