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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • Attempting to Convert Byte[] into Image... but is there platform issues involved

    - by user305535
    Greetings, Current, I'm attempting to develop an application that takes a Byte Array that is streamed to us from a Linux C language program across a TCPClient (stream) and reassemble it back into an image/jpg. The "sending" application was developed by a off-site developer who claims that the image reassembles back into an image without any problems or errors in his test environment (all Linux)... However, we are not so fortunate. I (believe) we successfully get all of the data sent, storing it as a string (lets us append the stream until it is complete) and then we convert it back into a Byte[]. This appears to be working fine... But, when we take the byte[] we get from the streaming (and our string assembly) and try to convert it into an image using the System.Drawing.Image.FromStream() we get errors.... Anyone have any idea what we're doing wrong? Or, does anyone know if this is a cross-platform issue? We're developing our app for Windows XP and C# .net, but the off-site developer did his work in c and Linux... perhaps there's some difference as to how each Operating System Coverts Images into Byte Arrays? Anyway, here's the code for converting our received ByteArray (from the TCPClient Stream) into an image. This code works when we send an image from a test machine we built that RUNS on XP, but not from the Linux box... System.Text.ASCIIEncoding encoding = new System.Text.ASCIIEncoding(); byte[] imageBytes = encoding.GetBytes(data); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(imageBytes, 0, imageBytes.Length); // Convert byte[] to Image ms.Write(imageBytes, 0, imageBytes.Length); System.Drawing.Image image = System.Drawing.Image.FromStream(ms, false); <-- DIES here, throws a {System.ArgumentException: Parameter is not valid.} error Any advice, suggestions, theories, or HELP would be GREATLY appreciated! Please let me know??? Best wishes all! Thanks in advance! Greg

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  • What do I have to change in my PHP/CURL code to retrieve data from a https:// URL?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have a PHP file using CURL that accepts a Google Doc URL as a parameter, then returns the plain text of the Google Doc. It worked well until recently when apparently a redirect was added so that the http:// address redirects to the equivalent https:// address, as in this example: http://docs.google.com/View?id=dc7gj86r_20dn2csqg3 So I changed my code to access the https:// address, but it just returns blank. What do I have to change my CURL code so that I can get the HTML text from the https:// address? $url = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 'url',FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING); $validUrlPrefixes[] = "https://docs.google.com"; if(beginsWithOneOfThese($url, $validUrlPrefixes)) { $user_agent = 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729)'; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, "/tmp/cookie"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "/tmp/cookie"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url ); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FAILONERROR, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 15); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $user_agent); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 0); $rawData = curl_exec($ch); $rawData = cleanText($rawData); if(beginsWith($url, "https://docs.google.com")) { echo qstr::convertGoogleDocContentToText($rawData); die; } echo $rawData; die;

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  • Boost binding a function taking a reference

    - by Jamie Cook
    Hi all, I am having problems compiling the following snippet int temp; vector<int> origins; vector<string> originTokens = OTUtils::tokenize(buffer, ","); // buffer is a char[] array // original loop BOOST_FOREACH(string s, originTokens) { from_string(temp, s); origins.push_back(temp); } // I'd like to use this to replace the above loop std::transform(originTokens.begin(), originTokens.end(), origins.begin(), boost::bind<int>(&FromString<int>, boost::ref(temp), _1)); where the function in question is // the third parameter should be one of std::hex, std::dec or std::oct template <class T> bool FromString(T& t, const std::string& s, std::ios_base& (*f)(std::ios_base&) = std::dec) { std::istringstream iss(s); return !(iss >> f >> t).fail(); } the error I get is 1>Compiling with Intel(R) C++ 11.0.074 [IA-32]... (Intel C++ Environment) 1>C:\projects\svn\bdk\Source\deps\boost_1_42_0\boost/bind/bind.hpp(303): internal error: assertion failed: copy_default_arg_expr: rout NULL, no error (shared/edgcpfe/il.c, line 13919) 1> 1> return unwrapper<F>::unwrap(f, 0)(a[base_type::a1_], a[base_type::a2_]); 1> ^ 1> 1>icl: error #10298: problem during post processing of parallel object compilation Google is being unusually unhelpful so I hope that some one here can provide some insights.

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  • Linq Scope Problem + Reduce Repeated Code

    - by Tom Gullen
    If the parameter is -1, it needs to run a different query as to if an ID was specified... how do I do this? I've tried initialising var q; outside the If block but no luck! // Loads by Entry ID, or if -1, by latest entry private void LoadEntryByID(int EntryID) { IEnumerable<tblBlogEntry> q; if (EntryID == -1) { q = ( from Blog in db.tblBlogEntries orderby Blog.date descending select new { Blog.ID, Blog.title, Blog.entry, Blog.date, Blog.userID, Comments = ( from BlogComments in db.tblBlogComments where BlogComments.blogID == Blog.ID select BlogComments).Count(), Username = ( from Users in db.yaf_Users where Users.UserID == Blog.userID select new { Users.DisplayName }) }).FirstOrDefault(); } else { q = ( from Blog in db.tblBlogEntries where Blog.ID == EntryID select new { Blog.ID, Blog.title, Blog.entry, Blog.date, Blog.userID, Comments = ( from BlogComments in db.tblBlogComments where BlogComments.blogID == Blog.ID select BlogComments).Count(), Username = ( from Users in db.yaf_Users where Users.UserID == Blog.userID select new { Users.DisplayName }) }).SingleOrDefault(); } if (q == null) { this.Loaded = false; } else { this.ID = q.ID; this.Title = q.title; this.Entry = q.entry; this.Date = (DateTime)q.date; this.UserID = (int)q.userID; this.Loaded = true; this.AuthorUsername = q.Username; } } My main aim is to reduce repeating code

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  • The Implications of Modern Day Software Development Abstractions

    - by Andreas Grech
    I am currently doing a dissertation about the implications or dangers that today's software development practices or teachings may have on the long term effects of programming. Just to make it clear: I am not attacking the use abstractions in programming. Every programmer knows that abstractions are the bases for modularity. What I want to investigate with this dissertation are the positive and negative effects abstractions can have in software development. As regards the positive, I am sure that I can find many sources that can confirm this. But what about the negative effects of abstractions? Do you have any stories to share that talk about when certain abstractions failed on you? The main concern is that many programmers today are programming against abstractions without having the faintest idea of what the abstraction is doing under-the-covers. This may very well lead to bugs and bad design. So, in you're opinion, how important is it that programmers actually know what is going below the abstractions? Taking a simple example from Joel's Back to Basics, C's strcat: void strcat( char* dest, char* src ) { while (*dest) dest++; while (*dest++ = *src++); } The above function hosts the issue that if you are doing string concatenation, the function is always starting from the beginning of the dest pointer to find the null terminator character, whereas if you write the function as follows, you will return a pointer to where the concatenated string is, which in turn allows you to pass this new pointer to the concatenation function as the *dest parameter: char* mystrcat( char* dest, char* src ) { while (*dest) dest++; while (*dest++ = *src++); return --dest; } Now this is obviously a very simple as regards abstractions, but it is the same concept I shall be investigating. Finally, what do you think about the issue that schools are preferring to teach Java instead of C and Lisp ? Can you please give your opinions and your says as regards this subject? Thank you for your time and I appreciate every comment.

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  • Is this a hole in dynamic binding in C# 4?

    - by Galilyou
    I've seen a very interesting post on Fabio Maulo's blog. Here's the code and the bug if you don't want to jump to the url. I defined a new generic class like so: public class TableStorageInitializer<TTableEntity> where TTableEntity : class, new() { public void Initialize() { InitializeInstance(new TTableEntity()); } public void InitializeInstance(dynamic entity) { entity.PartitionKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); entity.RowKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); } } Note that InitializeInstance accepts one parameter, which is of type dynamic. Now to test this class, I defined another class that is nested inside my main Program class like so: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { TableStorageInitializer<MyClass> x = new TableStorageInitializer<MyClass>(); x.Initialize(); } private class MyClass { public string PartitionKey { get; set; } public string RowKey { get; set; } public DateTime Timestamp { get; set; } } } Note: the inner class "MyClass" is declared private. Now if i run this code I get a "Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException" on the line "entity.PartitionKey = Guide.NewGuid().ToString()". The interesting part, though is that the message of the exception says "Object doesn't contain a definition for PartitionKey". Also note that if you changed the modifier of the nested class to public, the code will execute with no problems. So what do you guys think is really happening under the hood? Please refer to any documentation -of course if this is documented anywhere- that you may find?

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  • What should I do if i have a factory method which requires different parameters for different implem

    - by Sam Holder
    I have an interface, IMessage and a class which have several methods for creating different types of message like so: class MessageService { IMessage TypeAMessage(param 1, param 2) IMessage TypeBMessage(param 1, param 2, param 3, param 4) IMessage TypeCMessage(param 1, param 2, param 3) IMessage TypeDMessage(param 1) } I don't want this class to do all the work for creating these messages so it simply delegates to a MessageCreatorFactory which produces an IMessageCreator depending on the type given (an enumeration based on the type of the message TypeA, TypeB, TypeC etc) interface IMessageCreator { IMessage Create(MessageParams params); } So I have 4 implementations of IMessageCreator: TypeAMessageCreator, TypeBMessageCreator, TypeCMessageCreator, TypeDMessageCreator I ok with this except for the fact that because each type requires different parameters I have had to create a MessageParams object which contains 4 properties for the 4 different params, but only some of them are used in each IMessageCreator. Is there an alternative to this? One other thought I had was to have a param array as the parameter in the Create emthod, but this seems even worse as you don't have any idea what the params are. Or to create several overloads of Create in the interface and have some of them throw an exception if they are not suitable for that particular implementation (ie you called a method which needs more params, so you should have called one of the other overloads.) Does this seem ok? Is there a better solution?

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  • C++: is it safe to work with std::vectors as if they were arrays?

    - by peoro
    I need to have a fixed-size array of elements and to call on them functions that require to know about how they're placed in memory, in particular: functions like glVertexPointer, that needs to know where the vertices are, how distant they are one from the other and so on. In my case vertices would be members of the elements to store. to get the index of an element within this array, I'd prefer to avoid having an index field within my elements, but would rather play with pointers arithmetic (ie: index of Element *x will be x - & array[0]) -- btw, this sounds dirty to me: is it good practice or should I do something else? Is it safe to use std::vector for this? Something makes me think that an std::array would be more appropriate but: Constructor and destructor for my structure will be rarely called: I don't mind about such overhead. I'm going to set the std::vector capacity to size I need (the size that would use for an std::array, thus won't take any overhead due to sporadic reallocation. I don't mind a little space overhead for std::vector's internal structure. I could use the ability to resize the vector (or better: to have a size chosen during setup), and I think there's no way to do this with std::array, since its size is a template parameter (that's too bad: I could do that even with an old C-like array, just dynamically allocating it on the heap). If std::vector is fine for my purpose I'd like to know into details if it will have some runtime overhead with respect to std::array (or to a plain C array): I know that it'll call the default constructor for any element once I increase its size (but I guess this won't cost anything if my data has got an empty default constructor?), same for destructor. Anything else?

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  • Best practice - logging events (general) and changes (database)

    - by b0x0rz
    need help with logging all activities on a site as well as database changes. requirements: * should be in database * should be easily searchable by initiator (user name / session id), event (activity type) and event parameters i can think of a database design but either it involves a lot of tables (one per event) so i can log each of the parameters of an event in a separate field OR it involves one table with generic fields (7 int numeric and 7 text types) and log everything in one table with event type field determining what parameter got written where (and hoping that i don't need more than 7 fields of a certain type, or 8 or 9 or whatever number i choose)... example of entries (the usual things): [username] login failed @datetime [username] login successful @datetime [username] changed password @datetime, estimated security of password [low/ok/high/perfect] @datetime [username] clicked result [result number] [result id] after searching for [search string] and got [number of results] @datetime [username] clicked result [result number] [result id] after searching for [search string] and got [number of results] @datetime [username] changed profile name from [old name] to [new name] @datetime [username] verified name with [credit card type] credit card @datetime datbase table [table name] purged of old entries @datetime via automated process etc... so anyone dealt with this before? any best practices / links you can share? i've seen it done with the generic solution mentioned above, but somehow that goes against what i learned from database design, but as you can see the sheer number of events that need to be trackable (each user will be able to see this info) is giving me headaches, BUT i do LOVE the one event per table solution more than the generic one. any thoughts? edit: also, is there maybe an authoritative list of such (likely) events somewhere? thnx stack overflow says: the question you're asking appears subjective and is likely to be closed. my answer: probably is subjective, but it is directly related to my issue i have with designing a database / writing my code, so i'd welcome any help. also i tried narrowing down the ideas to 2 so hopefully one of these will prevail, unless there already is an established solution for these kinds of things.

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  • XSLT how to merge some lists of parameters

    - by buggy1985
    Hi, I have an URL Structure like this: http://my.domain.com/generated.xml?param1=foo&param2=bar&xsl=path/to/my.xsl The generated XML will be transformed using the given XSL Stylesheet. The two other parameters are integrated too like this: <root> <params> <param name="param1">foo</param> <param name="param2">bar</param> </param> ... </root> Now I want to create with XSLT a link with a new URI that keeps the existing parameters and adds one or multiple new parameters like page=3 or sort=DESC. If the given parameter already exists, it should be replaced. I'm not sure how to do this. How to pass multiple (optional) parameters to a template. How to merge two lists of parameters. Any ideas? Thanks ;)

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  • Google Analytics - Goals - Advanced Segments - Does it keep cookies for tracking visitors?

    - by Kuko
    Hi there, I am working with Google Analytics - Goals and Funnels for quite sometime, but one thing is is not clear for me. I would very much appreciate if you could help me. We are advertising on several sites rotating several different ads. Our main goal is to collect as many sign-ups (new users) as possible for as low price as possible. We use to advertise the way, that each ad has the same URL where to land, but contains different parameter (e.g. http://www.brautpunkt.de/?ref=fb01 or ..... .de/?ref=adw03). My question is: If I am looking at the goals (Goals Overview), filtering it through Advanced Segments (Landing Page contains /?ref=fb01) is this subset of goals done only by the users who registered in the same session after they came on our site directly from the ad? or also by those users who came first time through this ad (/?ref=fb01), didn't register in the same session but came directly for example on the other day and register than? Thank you very much in advance for your advice. Peter

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  • Rackspace Cloud rewrite jpg causes Session reset

    - by willoller
    This may be the .Net version of this question. I have an image script with the following: ... Response.WriteFile(filename); Response.End(); I am rewriting .jpg files using the following rewrite rule in web.config: <rule name="Image Redirect" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^product-images/(.*).jpg" /> <conditions> <add input="{REQUEST_URI}" pattern="\.(jp?g|JP?G)$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" redirectType="SeeOther" url="/product-images/ProductImage.aspx?path=product-images/{tolower:{R:1}}.jpg" /> </rule> It basically just rewrites the image path into a query parameter. The problem is that (intermittently of course) Mosso returns a new Asp Session cookie which breaks the whole world. Directly accessing a static .jpg file does not cause this problem. Directly accessing the image script does not cause it either. Only rewriting a .jpg file to the .aspx script causes the Session loss. Things I have tried (From the Rackspace doc How can I bypass the cache?) I added Private cacheability to the image script itself: Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.Private); I tried adding these cache-disabling nodes to web.config: <staticContent> <clientCache cacheControlMode="DisableCache" /> </staticContent> and <httpProtocol> <customHeaders> <add name="Cache-Control private" value="Cache-Control private" </customHeaders> </httpProtocol> The Solution I need The browser cache cannot be disabled. This means potential solutions involving Cache.SetNoStore() or HttpCacheability.NoCache will not work.

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  • OO - inheritance vs. decoration problem

    - by Karel J
    Hi all, I have an OOP-related question. I have an interface, say: class MyInterface { public int getValue(); } In my project, this interface is implemented by 7 implementations: class MyImplementation1 implements MyInterface { ... } ... class MyImplementation7 implements MyInterface { ... } These implementations are used by several different modules. For some modules, the behaviour of the MyInterface must be adjusted slightly. Let's that it must return the value of the implementator + 1 (for the sake of example). I solved this by creating a little decorator: class MyDifferentInterface implements MyInterface { private MyInterface i; public MyDifferentInterface(MyInterface i) { this.i = i; } public int getValue() { return i.getValue() + 1; } } This does the job. Here is my problem: one of the modules doesn't accept an MyInterface parameter, but MyImplementation4 directly. The reason for this is that this module needs specific behaviour of MyImplementation4, which are not covered by the interface MyInterface on itself. But, and here comes the difficulty, this module must also work on the modified version of MyImplementation4. That is, getValue() must return +1; What is the best way to solve this? I fail to come up with a solution which does not include lots of code duplicates. Please note that although the example above is pretty small and simple, the interface and the decorator is quite large and complicated. Thanks a lot all.

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  • java 6 web services share domain specific classes between server and client

    - by user173446
    Hi all, Context: Considering below defined Engine class being parameter of some webservice method. As we have both server and client in java we may have some benefits (???) in sharing Engine class between server and client ( i.e we may put in a common jar file to be added to both client and server classpath ) Some benefits would be : we keep specific operations like 'brushEngine' in same place build is faster as we do not need in our case to generate java code for client classes but to use them from the server build) if we later change server implementation for 'brushEngine' this is reflected automatically in client . Questions: How to share below detailed Engine class using java 6 tools ( i.e wsimport , wsgen etc )? Is there other tools for java that can achieve this sharing ? Is sharing a case that java 6 web services support is missing ? Can this case be reduced to other web service usage patterns? Thanks. Code: public class Engine { private String engineData; public String getData(){ return data; } public setData(String value){ this.data = value; } public void brushEngine(){ engineData = "BrushedEngine"+engineData; } }

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  • Is there really such a thing as a char or short in modern programming?

    - by Dean P
    Howdy all, I've been learning to program for a Mac over the past few months (I have experience in other languages). Obviously that has meant learning the Objective C language and thus the plainer C it is predicated on. So I have stumbles on this quote, which refers to the C/C++ language in general, not just the Mac platform. With C and C++ prefer use of int over char and short. The main reason behind this is that C and C++ perform arithmetic operations and parameter passing at integer level, If you have an integer value that can fit in a byte, you should still consider using an int to hold the number. If you use a char, the compiler will first convert the values into integer, perform the operations and then convert back the result to char. So my question, is this the case in the Mac Desktop and IPhone OS environments? I understand when talking about theses environments we're actually talking about 3-4 different architectures (PPC, i386, Arm and the A4 Arm variant) so there may not be a single answer. Nevertheless does the general principle hold that in modern 32 bit / 64 bit systems using 1-2 byte variables that don't align with the machine's natural 4 byte words doesn't provide much of the efficiency we may expect. For instance, a plain old C-Array of 100,000 chars is smaller than the same 100,000 ints by a factor of four, but if during an enumeration, reading out each index involves a cast/boxing/unboxing of sorts, will we see overall lower 'performance' despite the saved memory overhead?

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  • How to submit Nothing as a route value to ASP MVC

    - by Adam
    I have a route with several optional parameters. These are possible search terms in different fields. So, for example, if I have fields key, itemtype and text then I have in global.asax: routes.MapRoute( _ "Search", _ "Admin.aspx/Search/{Key}/{ItemType}/{Text}", _ New With {.controller = "Admin", .action = "Search" .Key = Nothing, .ItemType = Nothing, .Text = Nothing} _ ) My action takes optional parameters: Function Search(Optional ByVal Key As String = Nothing, _ Optional ByVal ItemType As Integer = 0, _ Optional ByVal Text As String = Nothing, _ Optional ByVal OtherText As String = Nothing) It then checks if the Key and Text strings have a non-null (and non-empty) value and adds search terms to the db request as needed. However, is it possible to send in a null value for, for example, Key but still send in a value for Text? If so, what does the URL look like? (Admin.aspx/Search//0/Foo doesn't work :) ) I know I can handle this using a parameter array instead, but wondered if this was possible using the sort of route described? I could of course define some other value as equivalent to null (for example, a space/%20) but is there any way to send a null value in the URL? I'm suspecting not, but thought I'd see if anyone knew of one. I'm using ASP MVC 2 for this project.

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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  • How to access global variable in a view in Ruby on Rails?

    - by ben
    I have a User model. I have a Session controller, in which I have a global user variable that is assigned as follows: $user = User.authenticate(params[:session][:email], params[:session][:password]) (I've made user global just to try to solve this problem, so if there's a better way please let me know!) I need to use the email of the logged in user as a parameter to send to Flex part of my website. At the moment I'm creating the link as follows: <%= link_to "secondpage", secondpage_path(:email => @session.$user.email) But I'm getting the following error: compile error /Users/benhartney/rails_projects/talk/app/views/layouts/_header.html.erb:12: syntax error, unexpected tGVAR ..._path(:email = @session.$user.email) ).to_s); @output_buffe... There's also a little arrow pointing at $user If I remove the $ from $user, I get this error: undefined method `user' for nil:NilClass If I remove the (:email => @session.user.email) part, everything works fine, so I think all of the code except for this is ok. Can anyone tell me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks for reading!

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  • Rails 3 : Can't get form_for to work as a 'delete' following the RESTful achitecture => always giving a ROUTING ERROR

    - by Alex
    I have a very simple render that goes as follow: <%= form_for(:relationships, :url => relationships_path, :html => {:method => 'delete'}) do |f| %> <div><%= f.hidden_field :user_id_to_unfollow, :value => @user.id %></div> <div class="actions"><%= f.submit "Unfollow" %></div> <% end %> When I submit this form it will always give me a Routing Error No route matches "/relationships" on my page. In my relationships controller, I have created all the propers methods: def create ... end def destroy ... end def update ... end def show ... end And in my routes config I have made sure to allow all routes for the relationships controller resources :relationships But I can't seem to get into the destroy method of the controller :( However if I remove the :html => {:method => 'delete'} method parameter in the form_for then I get to the create method of the controller no pb. I don't get it.... Alex

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  • Pros and Cons of using SqlCommand Prepare in C#?

    - by MadBoy
    When i was reading books to learn C# (might be some old Visual Studio 2005 books) I've encountered advice to always use SqlCommand.Prepare everytime I execute SQL call (whether its' a SELECT/UPDATE or INSERT on SQL SERVER 2005/2008) and I pass parameters to it. But is it really so? Should it be done every time? Or just sometimes? Does it matter whether it's one parameter being passed or five or twenty? What boost should it give if any? Would it be noticeable at all (I've been using SqlCommand.Prepare here and skipped it there and never had any problems or noticeable differences). For the sake of the question this is my usual code that I use, but this is more of a general question. public static decimal pobierzBenchmarkKolejny(string varPortfelID, DateTime data, decimal varBenchmarkPoprzedni, decimal varStopaOdniesienia) { const string preparedCommand = @"SELECT [dbo].[ufn_BenchmarkKolejny](@varPortfelID, @data, @varBenchmarkPoprzedni, @varStopaOdniesienia) AS 'Benchmark'"; using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetailsDZP)) //if (varConnection != null) { using (var sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Prepare(); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varPortfelID", varPortfelID); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varStopaOdniesienia", varStopaOdniesienia); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@data", data); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varBenchmarkPoprzedni", varBenchmarkPoprzedni); using (var sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { //sqlQueryResult["Benchmark"]; } } } }

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  • How does C#'s DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees "5/1/2010" to "5/4/2010." But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would allow the user to get the latest data and always pass the same end date to the sql proc--"5/5/2010" in this case. Please speak to this as well. Sample proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • Google Chrome and (cache or memory leaks).

    - by Alexey Ogarkov
    Hello All, I have a big problem with Google Chrome and its memory. My app is displaying to user several image charts and reloads them every 10s. In the interval i have code like that var image = new Image(); var src = 'myurl/image'+new Date().getTime(); image.onload = function() { document.getElementById('myimage').src = src; image.onload = image.onabort = image.onerror = null; } image.src = src; So i have no memory leaks in Firefox and IE. Here the response headers for images Server Apache-Coyote/1.1 Vary * Cache-Control no-store (// I try no-cache, must-revalidate and so on here) Content-Type image/png Content-Length 11131 Date Mon, 31 May 2010 14:00:28 GMT Vary * taken from here In about:cache page there is no my cached images. If i enable purge-memory-button for chrome (--purge-memory-button parameter) it`s not help. Images is in PNG24. So i think that the problem is not in cache. May be Google Chrome is not releasing memory for old images. Please help. Any suggestions. Thanks.

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  • How can i use a commandlinetool (ie. sox) via subprocess.Popen with mod_wsgi?

    - by marue
    I have a custom django filefield that makes use of sox, a commandline audiotool. This works pretty well as long as i use the django development server. But as soon as i switch to the production server, using apache2 and mod_wsgi, mod_wsgi catches every output to stdout. This makes it impossible to use the commandline tool to evaluate the file, for example use it to check if the uploaded file really is an audio file like this: filetype=subprocess.Popen([sox,'--i','-t','%s'%self.path], shell=False,\ stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (filetype,error)=filetype.communicate() if error: raise EnvironmentError((1,'AudioFile error while determining audioformat: %s'%error)) Is there a way to workaround for this? edit the error i get is "missing filename". I am using mod_wsgi 2.5, standard with ubuntu 8.04. edit2 What exactly happens, when i call subprocess.Popen from within django in mod_wsgi? Shouldn't subprocess stdin/stdout be independent from django stdin/stdout? In that case mod_wsgi should not affect programms called via subprocess... I'm really confused right now, because the file i am trying to access is a temporary file, created via a filenamevariable that i pass to the file creation and the subprocess command. That file is being written to /tmp, where the rights are 777, so it can't be a rights issue. And the error message is not "file does not exist", but "missing filename", which suggests i am not passing a filename as parameter to the commandlinetool.

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