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• Images in IFRAME no longer showing after I log out of Flickr?

  - by contact-kram

  I have a iframe window which displays user's flickr images. I use the flickr.photos.search api to download the user's image from flickr. This works great when the user is logged into flickr. But when I explicitly log off the user from flickr and the yahoo network and then attempt to download the flickr images, I get redirected to www.yahoo.com in a full browser window (not in my iframe). If I remember correctly, I did not have this issue when I was not using iframes and I was being redirected to the yahoo login screen. Any suggestions? To elaborate, this URI - http://www.flickr.com/services/api/auth.howto.web.html, lists the below step - Create an auth handler When users follow your login url, they are directed to a page on flickr.com which asks them if they want to authorize your application. This page displays your application title and description along with the logo, if you uploaded one. When the user accepts the request, they are sent back to the Callback URL you defined in step 2. The URL will have a frob parameter added to it. For example, if your Callback URL was http://test.com/auth.php then the user might be redirected to http://test.com/auth.php?frob=185-837403740 (The frob value in this example is '185-837403740'). This does not happen when I am in my iframe window but it does happen in my full browser window.

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• When should I implement globalization and localization in C#?

  - by Geo Ego

  I am cleaning up some code in a C# app that I wrote and really trying to focus on best practices and coding style. As such, I am running my assembly through FXCop and trying to research each message it gives me to decide what should and shouldn't be changed. What I am currently focusing on are locale settings. For instance, the two errors that I have currently are that I should be specifying the IFormatProvider parameter for Convert.ToString(int), and setting the Dataset and Datatable locale. This is something that I've never done, and never put much thought into. I've always just left that overload out. The current app that I am working on is an internal app for a small company that will very likely never need to run in another country. As such, it is my opinion that I do not need to set these at all. On the other hand, doing so would not be such a big deal, but it seems like it is unneccessary and could hinder readability to a degree. I understand that Microsoft's contention is to use it if it's there, period. Well, I'm technically supposed to call Dispose() on every object that implements IDisposable, but I don't bother doing that with Datasets and Datatables, so I wonder what the practice is "in the wild."

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• Using Lucene to index private data, should I have a separate index for each user or a single index

  - by Nathan Bayles

  I am developing an Azure based website and I want to provide search capabilities using Lucene. (structured json objects would be indexed and stored in Lucene and other content such as Word documents, etc. would be indexed in lucene but stored in blob storage) I want the search to be secure, such that one user would never see a document belonging to another user. I want to allow ad-hoc searches as typed by the user. Lastly, I want to query programmatically to return predefined sets of data, such as "all notes for user X". I think I understand how to add properties to each document to achieve these 3 objectives. (I am listing them here so if anyone is kind enough to answer, they will have better idea of what I am trying to do) My questions revolve around performance and security. Can I improve document security by having a separate index for each user, or is including the user's ID as a parameter in each search sufficient? Can I improve indexing speed and total throughput of the system by having a separate index for each user? My thinking is that having separate indexes would allow me to scale the system by having multiple index writers (perhaps even on different server instances) working at the same time, each on their own index. Any insight would be greatly appreciated. Regards, Nate

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• Is this reference or code in mistake or bug?

  - by mikezang

  I copied some text from NSDate Reference as below, please check Return Value, it is said the format will be in YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS ±HHMM, but I got as below in my app, so the reference is mistake? or code in mistake? Saturday, January 1, 2011 12:00:00 AM Japan Standard Time or 2011?1?1????0?00?00? ????? descriptionWithLocale: Returns a string representation of the receiver using the given locale. - (NSString *)descriptionWithLocale:(id)locale Parameters locale An NSLocale object. If you pass nil, NSDate formats the date in the same way as the description method. On Mac OS X v10.4 and earlier, this parameter was an NSDictionary object. If you pass in an NSDictionary object on Mac OS X v10.5, NSDate uses the default user locale—the same as if you passed in [NSLocale currentLocale]. Return Value A string representation of the receiver, using the given locale, or if the locale argument is nil, in the international format YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS ±HHMM, where ±HHMM represents the time zone offset in hours and minutes from GMT (for example, “2001-03-24 10:45:32 +0600”)

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• Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

  - by Jason Evans

  I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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• Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

  - by Joe White

  Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

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• MAC : How to check if the file is still being copied in cpp?

  - by Peda Pola

  In my current project, we had a requirement to check if the file is still copying. We have already developed a library which will give us OS notification like file_added , file_removed , file_modified, file_renamed on a particular folder along with the corresponding file path. The problem here is that, lets say if you add 1 GB file, it is giving multiple notification such as file_added , file_modified, file_modified as the file is being copied. Now i decided to surpass these notifications by checking if the file is copying or not. Based on that i will ignore events. I have written below code which tells if the file is being copied or not which takes file path as input parameter. Details:- In Mac, while file is being copied the creation date is set as some date less than 1970. Once it is copied the date is set to current date. Am using this technique. Based on this am deciding that file is being copied. Problem:- when we copy file in the terminal it is failing. Please advice me any approach. bool isBeingCopied(const boost::filesystem::path &filePath) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; bool isBeingCopied = false; if([[[[NSFileManager defaultManager] attributesOfItemAtPath:[NSString stringWithUTF8String:filePath.string().c_str()] error:nil] fileCreationDate] timeIntervalSince1970] < 0) { isBeingCopied = true; } [pool release]; return isBeingCopied; }

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• Why doesn't this PHP execute?

  - by cam

  I copied the code from this site exactly: http://davidwalsh.name/web-service-php-mysql-xml-json as follows, /* require the user as the parameter */ if(isset($_GET['user']) && intval($_GET['user'])) { /* soak in the passed variable or set our own */ $number_of_posts = isset($_GET['num']) ? intval($_GET['num']) : 10; //10 is the default $format = strtolower($_GET['format']) == 'json' ? 'json' : 'xml'; //xml is the default $user_id = intval($_GET['user']); //no default /* connect to the db */ $link = mysql_connect('localhost','username','password') or die('Cannot connect to the DB'); mysql_select_db('db_name',$link) or die('Cannot select the DB'); /* grab the posts from the db */ $query = "SELECT post_title, guid FROM wp_posts WHERE post_author = $user_id AND post_status = 'publish' ORDER BY ID DESC LIMIT $number_of_posts"; $result = mysql_query($query,$link) or die('Errant query: '.$query); /* create one master array of the records */ $posts = array(); if(mysql_num_rows($result)) { while($post = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $posts[] = array('post'=>$post); } } /* output in necessary format */ if($format == 'json') { header('Content-type: application/json'); echo json_encode(array('posts'=>$posts)); } else { header('Content-type: text/xml'); echo '<posts>'; foreach($posts as $index => $post) { if(is_array($post)) { foreach($post as $key => $value) { echo '<',$key,'>'; if(is_array($value)) { foreach($value as $tag => $val) { echo '<',$tag,'>',htmlentities($val),'</',$tag,'>'; } } echo '</',$key,'>'; } } } echo '</posts>'; } /* disconnect from the db */ @mysql_close($link); } And the php doesn't execute, it just displays as plain text. What's the dealio? The host supports PHP, I use it to run a Wordpress blog and other things.

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• binding image with 2 values with convertor

  - by prince23

  hi, is it possiable to set 2 data field for an image control whiling binding **<Image Source="{Binding ItemID, Converter={StaticResource IDToImageConverter}}" Height="50" />** now here i need to add one more value Price now. need to send even price as an paramter for IDToImageConverter function how can i do it? now i need to check first price value there are 3 condition i neeed to check in my IDToImageConverter function if( price> 5o) { // then get the ItemID based on the value bind image here if(ItemID >20) { // bind image1 } if(ItemID >50) { // bind image2 } } if( price> 100) { // as above codition we do here } now how can i add these above functionality in IDToImageConverter ? any idea how i can solve it <Image Source="{Binding ItemID, Converter={StaticResource IDToImageConverter}}" Height="50" /> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn> </data:DataGrid.Columns> </data:DataGrid> public class IDToImageConverter : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { Uri uri = new Uri("~/Images/" + value.ToString()+ ".jpg", UriKind.Relative); return new BitmapImage(uri); } thanks in advance. for anyhelp you provide prince

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• passing multidimensional arrays to function

  - by Pegah

  hi! I have a method in my class which uses a 3dimensional tfpairexp as input parameter. and I need to use the values in tfpairexp later. void calctfpairexp (int tf1, int tf2, double tfpairexp[][2][3]) { int ctr,c; for (int j = 0; j < cchips && (c = chips[j].crepls); j += c) { int ctrl_no=0; for (int *p = chips[j].ctrl ; p && (ctr=*p)>=0; ++p,ctrl_no++) { for (int k = 0; k < c; ++k) { tfpairexp[j][ctrl_no][k]=interactionFunc(2,3,1); } } } } I call the method inside the class like this: calctfpairexp(tf1,tf2,tfpairexp); and I need to use values inside tfpairexp in next lines. but the compiler gives error in this line: tfpairexp[j][ctrl_no][k]=interactionFunc(2,3,1); and says that the tfpairexp variable is not defined in the calctfpairexp function. any idea?

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• How to pass an integration property to a batch file with CruiseControlNet ?

  - by TridenT

  In the build log of my project, i can see these properties: <integrationProperties> <CCNetProject>Gdet_T</CCNetProject> ... <LastChangeNumber>0</LastChangeNumber> <LastIntegrationStatus>Success</LastIntegrationStatus> <LastSuccessfulIntegrationLabel>25</LastSuccessfulIntegrationLabel> <LastModificationDate>4/6/2010 1:29:04 PM</LastModificationDate> <LastChangeNumber>10841</LastChangeNumber> </integrationProperties> I want to pass the property CCNetProject and LastChangeNumber to a batch file. it works well with CCNetProject, as it can be used in the batch as an environment variable %CCNetProject%. But it doesn't work with other properties (those are not starting with the CCnet prefix) as LastChangeNumber or LastModificationDate. I tried to pass it as environment variable, but it fails ! <exec> <executable>$(WorkingFolderBase)\MyBatch.bat</executable> <baseDirectory>$(WorkingFolderBase)\</baseDirectory> <buildArgs>$(LastModificationDate)</buildArgs> </exec> I tried to pass it as argument, but it fails: <exec> <executable>$(WorkingFolderBase)\MyBatch.bat</executable> <baseDirectory>$(WorkingFolderBase)\</baseDirectory> <environment> <variable> <name>svn_label</name> <value>"${LastModificationDate}"</value> </variable> </environment> </exec> The results is always the same when I display the parameter or variable : empty string or the variable name $(svn_label) I'm sure it is simple, but ... I can't find ! Any idea ?

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• How to query MYSQL when clicked?

  - by Sam

  Hello, I have a while statement, echoing my whole database that match a WHERE parameter. How can I make it so when I click on something (anything for the moment), it updates that specific row. Here's my code. while($request = mysql_fetch_array( $request_db )) { echo "<tr><td style=\"width:33%;padding:1px;\">"; echo $request['SongName']; echo "</td><td style=\"width:33%;\">"; echo $request['Artist']; echo "</td><td style=\"width:33%;\">"; echo $request['DedicatedTo']; echo "</td><td style=\"width:33%;\">"; echo "UPDATE A ROW's 'Hasplayed' value to '1'."; echo "</td></tr>"; } echo "</table>"; Thanks!

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• What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

  - by nopopem

  I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

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• C++: Construction and initialization order guarantees

  - by Helltone

  Hi, I have some doubts about construction and initialization order guarantees in C++. For instance, the following code has four classes X, Y, Z and W. The main function instantiates an object of class X. X contains an object of class Y, and derives from class Z, so both constructors will be called. Additionally, the const char* parameter passed to X's constructor will be implicitly converted to W, so W's constructor must also be called. What are the guarantees the C++ standard gives on the order of the calls to the copy constructors? Or, equivalently, this program is allowed to print? #include <iostream> class Z { public: Z() { std::cout << "Z" << std::endl; } }; class Y { public: Y() { std::cout << "Y" << std::endl; } }; class W { public: W(const char*) { std::cout << "W" << std::endl; } }; class X : public Z { public: X(const W&) { std::cout << "X" << std::endl; } private: Y y; }; int main(int, char*[]) { X x("x"); return 0; }

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• sql server - framework 4 - IIS 7 weird sort from db to page

  - by ila

  I am experiencing a strange behavior when reading a resultset from database in a calling method. The sort of the rows is different from what the database should return. My farm: - database server: sql server 2008 on a WinServer 2008 64 bit - web server: a couple of load balanced WinServer 2008 64 bit running IIS 7 The application runs on a v4.0 app pool, set to enable 32bit applications Here's a description of the problem: - a stored procedure is called, that returns a resultset sorted on a particular column - I can see thru profiler the call to the SP, if I run the statement I see correct sorting - the calling page gets the results, and before any further elaboration logs the rows immediately after the SP execution - the results are in a completely different order (I cannot even understand if they are sorted in any way) Some details on the Stored Procedure: - it is called by code using a SqlDatAdapter - it has also an output value (a count of the rows) that is read correctly - which sort field is to be used is passed as a parameter - makes use of temp tables to collect data and perform the desired sort Any idea on what I could check? Same code and same database work correctly in a test environment, 32 bit and not load balanced.

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• Facebook Android SDK. Error validating access token

  - by Mj1992

  I am trying to access user information from facebook sdk.But I keep getting this error. {"error":{"message":"Error validating access token: The session has been invalidated because the user has changed the password.","type":"OAuthException","code":190,"error_subcode":460}} Here is the call which returns me the error in the response parameter of the oncomplete function. mAsyncRunner.request("me", new RequestListener() { @Override public void onComplete(String response, Object state) { Log.d("Profile", response); String json = response; //<-- error in response try { JSONObject profile = new JSONObject(json); MainActivity.this.userid = profile.getString("id"); new GetUserProfilePic().execute(); runOnUiThread(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Name: " + MainActivity.this.userid, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } }); } catch (JSONException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Log.e("jsonexception",e.getMessage()); facebook.extendAccessTokenIfNeeded(MainActivity.this, null); GetUserInfo(); } } @Override public void onIOException(IOException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onFileNotFoundException(FileNotFoundException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onMalformedURLException(MalformedURLException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onFacebookError(FacebookError e, Object state) { } }); Sometimes I get the correct response also.I think this is due to the access token expiration if I am right. So can you guys tell me how to extend the access token although I've used this facebook.extendAccessTokenIfNeeded(this, null); in the onResume method of the activity. How to solve this?

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• Glassfish complaining about JSF component IDs

  - by Brian

  Hello All I am very new to JSF (v2.0) and I am attempting to learn it at places like netbeans.org and coreservlets.com. I am working on a very simple "add/subtract/multiply/divide" Java webapp and I have run into a problem. When I first started out, the application was enter two numbers and hit a '+' key and they would be automatically added together. Now that I have added more complexity I am having trouble getting the operation to the managed bean. This is what I had when it was just "add": <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number01" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number01}" /> <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number02" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number02}" /> <h:commandButton id="add" action="answer" value="+" /> For the "answer" page, I display the answer like this: <h:outputText value="#{Calculator.answer}" /> I had the proper getters and setters in the Calculator.java managed bean and the operation worked perfectly. Now I have added the other three operations and I am having trouble visualizing how to get the operation parameter to the bean so that I can switch around it. I tried this: <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="+" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="-" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="*" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="/" /> However, Glassfish complained that I have already used "operation" once and I am trying to use it four times here. Any adivce/tips on how to get multiple operations to the managed bean so that it can preform the desired operation? Thank you for taking the time to read.

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• Passing in extra parameters in a URL

  - by Scott Atkinson

  I have the below column on my table what gets binded on pageload, the parameters in there work fine but i need to add an additional parameter which is the fullname which is the next column along but im having trouble figuring our the syntax, here is my ASP <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="ID"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HyperLink ID="hyperLeadID" runat="server" NavigateUrl='<%#Eval("ID","/documents/Q-Sheet.aspx?LeadID={0}&isHappyCallReferral=yes&isHappyName={1}") %>' Text='<%#Eval("ID")%>'></asp:HyperLink> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Referral Name"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblRefName" CssClass="gvItem" runat="server" Text='<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container, "DataItem.Name") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> As you can see at the end of ID column i have added isHappyName={1} which i assumed it would select the next column along as it starts at 0 but it keeps throwing an error which is "Index (zero based) must be greater than or equal to zero and less than the size of the argument list." Can someone help me to pass the usersname through the URL Thanks

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• row number over text column sort

  - by Marty Trenouth

  I'm having problems with dynamic sorting using ROW Number in SQL Server. I have it working but it's throwing errors on non numeric fields. What do I need to change to get sorts with Alpha Working??? ID Description 5 Test 6 Desert 3 A evil Ive got a Sql Prodcedure CREATE PROCEDURE [CRUDS].[MyTable_Search] -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here -- Full Parameter List @ID int = NULL, @Description nvarchar(256) = NULL, @StartIndex int = 0, @Count int = null, @Order varchar(128) = 'ID asc' AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; -- Insert statements for procedure here Select * from ( Select ROW_NUMBER() OVER (Order By case when @Order = 'ID asc' then [TableName].ID when @Order = 'Description asc' then [TableName].Description end asc, case when @Order = 'ID desc' then [TableName].ID when @Order = 'Description desc' then [TableName].Description end desc ) as row, [TableName].* from [TableName] where (@ID IS NULL OR [TableName].ID = @ID) AND (@Description IS NULL OR [TableName].Description = @Description) ) as a where row > @StartIndex and (@Count is null or row <= @StartIndex + @Count) order by case when @Order = 'ID asc' then a.ID when @Order = 'Description asc' then a.Description end asc, case when @Order = 'ID desc' then a.ID when @Order = 'Description desc' then a.Description end desc END

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• NHibernate many-to-many relationship does not update join-table

  - by Davide Vosti

  I'm having trouble saving a many-to-many relationship with nhibernate. I searched and looked at almost every same question in SO and google but nothing works. The single classes are update correctly but nothing is inserted in the join-table. I have 2 classes: Event and Category. The mapping is this: Event: <bag name="Categories" access="field.camelcase-underscore" table="EventCategories" inverse="true" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <key column="Event"/> <many-to-many class="Category" column="Category"/> </bag> Category: <bag name="Events" table="EventCategories" access="field.camelcase-underscore" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true" > <key column="Category"/> <many-to-many class="Event" column="Event"/> </bag> I tried to swap every parameter in both mappings but nothing works... Do you know what I'm doing wrong or have a right mapping for this case? Thank you very much!

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• Call any webservice from the same $.ajax() call

  - by Andreas

  Hi! Im creating a usercontrol which is controled client side, it has an javascript-file attatched to it. This control has a button and upon click a popup appears, this popup shows a list of my domain entities. My entities are fetched using a call to a webservice. Im trying to get this popup usercontrol to work on all my entities, therefore i have the need to call any webservice needed (one per entity for example) with the same $.ajax() call. I have hiddenfields for the webservice url in my usercontrol which you specify in the markup via a property. So far so good. The problem arise when i need some additional parameters to the webservice (other than pagesize and pageindex). Say for example that one webservice takes an additional parameter "Date". At the moment i have my parameters set up like this: var params = JSON.stringify({ pageSize: _this.pageSize, pageIndex: _this.pageIndex }); and then i call the webservice like so: $.ajax({ webserviceUrl, params, function(result) { //some logic }); }); What i want to do is to be able to add my extra parameters (Date) to "Param" when needed, the specification of these parameters will be done via properties of the usercontrol. So, bottom line, i have a set of default parameters and want to dynamically add optional extra parameters. How is this possible? Thanks in advance.

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• jQuery tokeninput plugin + passing id to another tokeninput url

  - by Elson Solano

  I am using a jquery plugin called jQuery Tokeninput http://loopj.com/jquery-tokeninput/ and I am having a logic issue. var country_id = ""; jQuery("#demo-input-prevent-duplicates").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=country", { theme: "facebook", hintText: "Enter a Country...", placeholder: "Enter a Country...", preventDuplicates: true, onAdd: function(item) { country_id = item.id; }, onDelete: function(){ hideElements(); }, tokenDelimiter: "|", }); My question here is how would I pass the value of country_id to the parameter of the below code. I'm not seeing how to do this one on the jquery tokeninput documentation. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id, { theme: "facebook", preventDuplicates: true, hintText: "Enter a State or Province...", placeholder: "Enter a State or Province..." }); If you'll look on this part of the code, I am passing the country_id that was generated above on the "onAdd". This doesn't work though. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id .... How would I do that one? Your help would be greatly appreciated and of course, rewarded! Thanks! :-)

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• How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0

  - by Seth Spearman

  Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult 'the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) 'do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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• How to call a generic method with an anonymous type involving generics?

  - by Alex Black

  I've got this code that works: def testTypeSpecialization = { class Foo[T] def add[T](obj: Foo[T]): Foo[T] = obj def addInt[X <% Foo[Int]](obj: X): X = { add(obj) obj } val foo = addInt(new Foo[Int] { def someMethod: String = "Hello world" }) assert(true) } But, I'd like to write it like this: def testTypeSpecialization = { class Foo[T] def add[X, T <% Foo[X](obj: T): T = obj val foo = add(new Foo[Int] { def someMethod: String = "Hello world" }) assert(true) } This second one fails to compile: no implicit argument matching parameter type (Foo[Int]{ ... }) = Foo[Nothing] was found. Basically: I'd like to create a new anonymous class/instance on the fly (e.g. new Foo[Int] { ... } ), and pass it into an "add" method which will add it to a list, and then return it The key thing here is that the variable from "val foo = " I'd like its type to be the anonymous class, not Foo[Int], since it adds methods (someMethod in this example) Any ideas? I think the 2nd one fails because the type Int is being erased. I can apparently 'hint' the compiler like this: def testTypeSpecialization = { class Foo[T] def add[X, T <% Foo[X]](dummy: X, obj: T): T = obj val foo = add(2, new Foo[Int] { def someMethod: String = "Hello world" }) assert(true) }

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• Differences in accessing resources between Simulator and Device?

  - by Tony

  Is there some difference between the way that bundle resources can be accessed on the iPhone simulator versus a device (in my case, an iPad)? I am able to access a file on the former, but not the latter. NSString *filePath = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@",[[NSBundle mainBundle] bundlePath], @"/AppResources/html/pages/quickHelp.html"]; BOOL fileExists = [[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:filePath]; // fileExists == YES in the debugger on both the simulator and the device NSString *path = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"AppResources/html/pages/%@", contentsFileName]; NSString *pathForURL = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:path ofType:@"html"]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:pathForURL isDirectory:NO]; The code above works fine in the simulator, but on the device pathForResource:path returns nil, so the last line throws a 'nil string parameter' exception. Am I missing something obvious? edit: Of course, in the above @"quickHelp" is being passed in the contentsFileName var. edit2: if it makes any difference, in my build settings "Base SDK" is set to "iPhone Device 4.0", and "iPhone OS Deployment Target" is set to "iPhone OS 3.1.3". Any other settings that might have an influence?

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