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• Simple search form passing the searched string through GET

  - by Brian Roisentul

  Hi, I'd like my Search form to return the following url after submit: /anuncios/buscar/the_text_I_searched My form is the following: <% form_for :announcement, :url => search_path(:txtSearch) do |f| %> <div class="searchBox" id="basic"> <%= text_field_tag :txtSearch, params[:str_search].blank? ? "Busc&aacute; tu curso r&aacute;pido y f&aacute;cil." : params[:str_search], :maxlength=> 100, :class => "basicSearch_inputField", :onfocus => "if (this.value=='Busc&aacute; tu curso r&aacute;pido y f&aacute;cil.') this.value=''", :onblur => "if(this.value=='') { this.value='Busc&aacute; tu curso r&aacute;pido y f&aacute;cil.'; return false; }" %> <div class="basicSearch_button"> <input type="submit" value="BUSCAR" class="basicSearch_buttonButton" /> <br /><a href="#" onclick="javascript:jQuery('#advance').modal({opacity:60});">Busqueda avanzada</a> </div> </div> <% end %> My routes' line for search_path is this: map.search '/anuncios/buscar/:str_search', :controller => 'announcements', :action => 'search' Well, this will work if I manually type the url I want in the brower, but definitely, if you look at the form's url, you'll find a ":txtSearch" parameter, which is not giving me the actual value of the text field when the form is submitted. And that's what I'd like to get! Could anybody help me on this?

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• How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

  - by Dimitri C.

  In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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• Uploading multiple files asynchronously by blueimp jquery-fileupload

  - by Ryo

  I'm using jQuery File Upload library (http://github.com/blueimp/jQuery-File-Upload), and I've been stuck figuring out how to use the library satisfying the following conditions. The page has multiple file input fields surrounded by a form tag. Users can attach multiple files to each input field All files are sent to a server when the button is clicked, not when files are attached to the input fields. Upload is done asynchronously Say the page has 3 input fields with their name attributes being "file1[]", "file2[]" and "file3[]", the request payload should be like {file1: [ array of files on file1[] ], file2: [ array of files on file2[] ], ...} Here's jsFiddle, it's behaving weird so far in that it sends post request twice and the first one is cancelled. http://jsfiddle.net/BAQtG/24/ The core part of js code looks like this. $(document).ready(function(){ var filesList = [] var elem = $("form") file_upload = elem.fileupload({ formData:{extra:1}, autoUpload: false, fileInput: $("input:file"), }).on("fileuploadadd", function(e, data){ filesList.push(data.files[0]) }); $("button").click(function(){ file_upload.fileupload('send', {files:filesList} ) }) }) Anybody have idea how to get this to work? Updates Now thanks to @CBroe 's comment, the issue that request is sent twice is fixed. However the keys of request parameter is not correctly set. Here's updated jsFiddle. http://jsfiddle.net/BAQtG/27/

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• I read 3 pages of a JQuery book and here's my reaction and question

  - by George

  My jQuery reaction to the language's flexible "selectors" is probably rooted in this experience: I once had managed a project where a developer constructed a web page that was used by users to provide very flexible search parameters for a search screen using dynamic sql string building based on the user's specified search parameter. The resulting queries were usually very complicated and involved joins to many tables. One of the options that the user had was to choose from one of 3 an options. Depending on the user's choice for this option, the resulting SQL would need to query a different set of database columns. For example, if choice option "A" were selected, the resulting database columns queried would be prefixed with "A_"; if option "B" were selected, he resulting database columns queried would be prefixed with "B_" and so on. The developer choice to write all the complete SQL assuming that the user selected, for example, option "A" and therefore first constructed SQLs of this type: SQL = "SELECT A_COL1, A_COL2, A_COL3 FROM TABLE ..." and then after constructing one of a million possible variations on the Query From Hell, did something like this: If UserOption = "B" then SQL = SQL.Replace("A_","B_") 'replace everywhere End if He insisted that this was the easiest was to code it, and while I understood that, I was concerned about maintenance of this code. You see, this worked for a while, but as the search options grew and the database columns evolved, the various "REPLACE small substring" with another small substring had unexpected consequences when applied to an evolving database and new search options. My feeling is that code should be written as much as possible such that you can add to it without fear of breaking what is already there. I feel a better approach, though a bit more work, would have been to write a function to return the appropriate target column based on a common set name and the user selected option. OK, so what does this have to do with jQuery selectors? Are the ultra flexible JQuery selectors kind of like perform a "replace all" on a SQL string? Handy as hell but potentially creating a maintenance nightmare?

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• LINQ to XML - How to get Dictionary from Anonymous Object?

  - by DaveDev

  Currently I'm getting a list of HeaderColumns from the following XML snippet: <PerformancePanel> <HeaderColumns> <column performanceId="12" text="Over last month %" /> <column performanceId="13" text="Over last 3 months %" /> <column performanceId="16" text="1 Year %" /> <column performanceId="18" text="3 Years % p.a." /> <column performanceId="20" text="5 Years % p.a." /> <column performanceId="22" text="10 Years % p.a." /> </HeaderColumns> </PerformancePanel> from which I create an object as follows: (admitedly similar to an earlier question!) var performancePanels = new { Panels = (from panel in doc.Elements("PerformancePanel") select new { HeaderColumns = (from column in panel.Elements("HeaderColumns").Elements("column") select new { PerformanceId = (int)column.Attribute("performanceId"), Text = (string)column.Attribute("text") }).ToList(), }).ToList() }; I'd like if HeaderColumns was a Dictionary() so later I extract the values from the anonymous object like follows: Dictionary<int, string> myHeaders = new Dictionary<int, string>(); foreach (var column in performancePanels.Panels[0].HeaderColumns) { myHeaders.Add(column.PerformanceId, column.Text); } I thought I could achieve this with the Linq to XML with something similar to this HeaderColumns = (from column in panel.Elements("HeaderColumns").Elements("column") select new Dictionary<int, string>() { (int)column.Attribute("performanceId"), (string)column.Attribute("text") }).ToDictionary<int,string>(), but this doesn't work because ToDictionary() needs a Func parameter and I don't know what that is / how to implement it, and the code's probably wrong anyway! Could somebody please suggest how I can achieve the result I need? Thanks.

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• Dropdown list bound to object data source - how to update on a button click

  - by Jen

  This is probably something really stupidly simple.. I have a drop down list bound to an object data source. I have set AppendDataBoundItems to true so that I can have an initial select. <asp:DropDownList ID="Accommodations1" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" DataTextField="AccommodationTypeDescription" DataValueField="Id" OnDataBound="Accommodations1_DataBound" onSelectedIndexChanged="Accommodations1_SelectedIndexChanged" Width="200px" DataSourceID="AccommodationDs" AppendDataBoundItems="true"> <asp:ListItem Text="Select" Value=""></asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="AccommodationDs" runat="server" OldValuesParameterFormatString="original_{0}" SelectMethod="ListByPropertyId" TypeName="PropertyAccommodationController"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="PropertyId" Type="Int32" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> I have a button which adds an accommodaton - so after that happens I need the dropdown list to update to include the new accommodation. So I've tried calling databind on the dropdownlist, and databind on the datasource - and nothing is making this dropdown list update. eg. PropertyAccommodations1.DataBind(); Could someone please let me know what I'm doing wrong. Originally I thought it was due to an update panel issue.. but I've removed the update panel and it still doesn't work (and checked the master page doesn't include an update panel). Thanks!!

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• Using variables before include()ing them

  - by phenry

  I'm using a file, page.php, as an HTML container for several content files; i.e., page.php defines most of the common structure of the page, and the content files just contain the text that's unique to every page. What I would like to do is include some PHP code with each content file that defines metadata for the page such as its title, a banner graphic to use, etc. For example, a content file might look like this (simplified): <?php $page_title="My Title"; ?> <h1>Hello world!</h1> The name of the file would be passed as a URL parameter to page.php, which would look like this: <html> <head> <title><?php echo $page_title; ?></title> </head> <body> <?php include($_GET['page']); ?> </body> </html> The problem with this approach is that the variable gets defined after it is used, which of course won't work. Output buffering also doesn't seem to help. Is there an alternate approach I can use? I'd prefer not to define the text in the content file as a PHP heredoc block, because that smashes the HTML syntax highlighting in my text editor. I also don't want to use JavaScript to rewrite page elements after the fact, because many of these pages don't otherwise use JavaScript and I'd rather not introduce it as a dependency if I don't have to.

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• Code Golf: Numeric Ranges

  - by SLaks

  Mods: Can you please make this Community Wiki? Challenge Compactify a long list of numbers by replacing consecutive runs with ranges. Example Input 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 10, 12, 13, 14, 15 Output: 1 - 4, 7, 8, 10, 12 - 15 Note that ranges of two numbers should be left as is. (7, 8; not 7 - 8) Rules You can accept a list of integers (or equivalent datatype) as a method parameter, from the commandline, or from standard in. (pick whichever option results in shorter code) You can output a list of strings by printing them, or by returning either a single string or set of strings. Reference Implementation (C#) IEnumerable<string> Sample(IList<int> input) { for (int i = 0; i < input.Count; ) { var start = input[i]; int size = 1; while (++i < input.Count && input[i] == start + size) size++; if (size == 1) yield return start.ToString(); else if (size == 2) { yield return start.ToString(); yield return (start + 1).ToString(); } else if (size > 2) yield return start + " - " + (start + size - 1); } }

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• Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

  - by Joe White

  Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

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• Pass view to viewmodel with datatemplate

  - by jpsstavares

  I have a ParameterView and ParameterViewModel, and I need the ParameterViewModel to have a reference to the Parameter view (more on that later). In the window I have a list of ParameterViewModels and in the ResourceDictionary I add the DataTemplate: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type my:ParameterViewModel}" > <my:ParameterView HorizontalAlignment="Left"/> </DataTemplate> I then bind an ItemsControl.ItemSource to the List of ParameterViewModels The problem is: How can I pass the ParameterView to the ParameterViewModel in this scenario? The reason I need the ParameterView in the ParameterViewModel is the following: I have a TextBox whose Text property is binded to the PropertyModelView.Name property. But I want to display a default string when the Name is empty or Null. I've tried to set the property value to the default string I want when that happens but the TextBox.Text is not set in this scenario. I do something like this: private string _name; public string Name { get { return _name; } set { if (value == null || value.Length == 0) Name = _defaultName; else _name = value; } } I've also tried to specifically set the TextBox.Text binding mode to TwoWay without success. I think this is a defense mechanism to prevent an infinite loop from happening but I don't know for sure. Any help on this front would also be highly appreciated. Thanks, José Tavares

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• Facebook Android SDK. Error validating access token

  - by Mj1992

  I am trying to access user information from facebook sdk.But I keep getting this error. {"error":{"message":"Error validating access token: The session has been invalidated because the user has changed the password.","type":"OAuthException","code":190,"error_subcode":460}} Here is the call which returns me the error in the response parameter of the oncomplete function. mAsyncRunner.request("me", new RequestListener() { @Override public void onComplete(String response, Object state) { Log.d("Profile", response); String json = response; //<-- error in response try { JSONObject profile = new JSONObject(json); MainActivity.this.userid = profile.getString("id"); new GetUserProfilePic().execute(); runOnUiThread(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Name: " + MainActivity.this.userid, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } }); } catch (JSONException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Log.e("jsonexception",e.getMessage()); facebook.extendAccessTokenIfNeeded(MainActivity.this, null); GetUserInfo(); } } @Override public void onIOException(IOException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onFileNotFoundException(FileNotFoundException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onMalformedURLException(MalformedURLException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onFacebookError(FacebookError e, Object state) { } }); Sometimes I get the correct response also.I think this is due to the access token expiration if I am right. So can you guys tell me how to extend the access token although I've used this facebook.extendAccessTokenIfNeeded(this, null); in the onResume method of the activity. How to solve this?

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• Is it possible to persist two profiles with the Profile Provider Model?

  - by NickGPS

  I have a website that needs to store two sets of user data into separate data stores. The first set of data is used by the SiteCore CMS and holds information about the user. The second set of data is used by a personalisation application that stores its own user data. The reason they aren't stored together in the same profile object is because the personalisation application is used across multiple websites that do not all use SiteCore. I am able to create multiple Profile Providers - I currently have one from SiteCore and a custom provider that I have written and these both work in isolation. The problem exists when you try to configure both in the same web.config file. It seems you can only specify a single Profile object in the web.config file, rather than one for each provider. This means that regardless of which provider is being used the .Net framework sends through the profile object that is specified in the "inherits" parameter in the profile section of the web.config file. My questions are - Is it possible to specify a different Profile object for each Profile Provider? If so, how and where is this specified? Thanks, Nick

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• Passing in extra parameters in a URL

  - by Scott Atkinson

  I have the below column on my table what gets binded on pageload, the parameters in there work fine but i need to add an additional parameter which is the fullname which is the next column along but im having trouble figuring our the syntax, here is my ASP <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="ID"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HyperLink ID="hyperLeadID" runat="server" NavigateUrl='<%#Eval("ID","/documents/Q-Sheet.aspx?LeadID={0}&isHappyCallReferral=yes&isHappyName={1}") %>' Text='<%#Eval("ID")%>'></asp:HyperLink> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Referral Name"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblRefName" CssClass="gvItem" runat="server" Text='<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container, "DataItem.Name") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> As you can see at the end of ID column i have added isHappyName={1} which i assumed it would select the next column along as it starts at 0 but it keeps throwing an error which is "Index (zero based) must be greater than or equal to zero and less than the size of the argument list." Can someone help me to pass the usersname through the URL Thanks

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• Differences in accessing resources between Simulator and Device?

  - by Tony

  Is there some difference between the way that bundle resources can be accessed on the iPhone simulator versus a device (in my case, an iPad)? I am able to access a file on the former, but not the latter. NSString *filePath = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@",[[NSBundle mainBundle] bundlePath], @"/AppResources/html/pages/quickHelp.html"]; BOOL fileExists = [[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:filePath]; // fileExists == YES in the debugger on both the simulator and the device NSString *path = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"AppResources/html/pages/%@", contentsFileName]; NSString *pathForURL = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:path ofType:@"html"]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:pathForURL isDirectory:NO]; The code above works fine in the simulator, but on the device pathForResource:path returns nil, so the last line throws a 'nil string parameter' exception. Am I missing something obvious? edit: Of course, in the above @"quickHelp" is being passed in the contentsFileName var. edit2: if it makes any difference, in my build settings "Base SDK" is set to "iPhone Device 4.0", and "iPhone OS Deployment Target" is set to "iPhone OS 3.1.3". Any other settings that might have an influence?

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• Consuming a HTTPS Web Service in .Net 3.5 Web Project

  - by Chris M

  I'm trying to consume a webservice that ONLY runs on HTTPS but using the "add service" method in VS or using the WSDL to generate a code file leaves me with a web service that states its http... <wsdl:service name="OGServ"> <wsdl:documentation xmlns:wsdl="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/wsdl/">XML Web Services element of OGServ Gateway</wsdl:documentation> <wsdl:port name="OGServSoap" binding="tns:OGServSoap"> <soap:address location="http://ogserv.domain.co.uk/ogwsrv/og.asmx" /> </wsdl:port> <wsdl:port name="OGServSoap12" binding="tns:OGServSoap12"> <soap12:address location="http://ogserv.domain.co.uk/ogwsrv/og.asmx" /> </wsdl:port> </wsdl:service> Would this be the reason that even when I change the app.config (generated by the add-service) endpoint address to https it says it was expecting HTTP? The error: EC.Tests.OGGatewayLayerTest (TestFixtureSetUp): System.ArgumentException : The provided URI scheme 'https' is invalid; expected 'http'. Parameter name: via

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• GridView ObjectDataSource LINQ Paging and Sorting using multiple table query.

  - by user367426

  I am trying to create a pageing and sorting object data source that before execution returns all results, then sorts on these results before filtering and then using the take and skip methods with the aim of retrieving just a subset of results from the database (saving on database traffic). this is based on the following article: http://www.singingeels.com/Blogs/Nullable/2008/03/26/Dynamic_LINQ_OrderBy_using_String_Names.aspx Now I have managed to get this working even creating lambda expressions to reflect the sort expression returned from the grid even finding out the data type to sort for DateTime and Decimal. public static string GetReturnType<TInput>(string value) { var param = Expression.Parameter(typeof(TInput), "o"); Expression a = Expression.Property(param, "DisplayPriceType"); Expression b = Expression.Property(a, "Name"); Expression converted = Expression.Convert(Expression.Property(param, value), typeof(object)); Expression<Func<TInput, object>> mySortExpression = Expression.Lambda<Func<TInput, object>>(converted, param); UnaryExpression member = (UnaryExpression)mySortExpression.Body; return member.Operand.Type.FullName; } Now the problem I have is that many of the Queries return joined tables and I would like to sort on fields from the other tables. So when executing a query you can create a function that will assign the properties from other tables to properties created in the partial class. public static Account InitAccount(Account account) { account.CurrencyName = account.Currency.Name; account.PriceTypeName = account.DisplayPriceType.Name; return account; } So my question is, is there a way to assign the value from the joined table to the property of the current table partial class? i have tried using. from a in dc.Accounts where a.CompanyID == companyID && a.Archived == null select new { PriceTypeName = a.DisplayPriceType.Name}) but this seems to mess up my SortExpression. Any help on this would be much appreciated, I do understand that this is complex stuff.

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• Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

  - by Jason Evans

  I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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• JavaScript: List global variables in IE

  - by Quandary

  I'm trying to get the instance name of my class. The way I do this is I loop through all global objects and compare it with the this pointer. It works in Chrome and FF, but in IE, it doesn't. The problem seems to be the global variables don't seem to be in window. How can I loop through the global variables in IE ? PS: I know it only works as long as there is only one instance, and I don't want to pass the instance's name as a parameter. function myClass() { this.myName = function () { // search through the global object for a name that resolves to this object for (var name in this.global) { if (this.global[name] == this) return name } } } function myClass_chrome() { this.myName = function () { // search through the global object for a name that resolves to this object for (var name in window) { if (window[name] == this) return name ; } } ; } // store the global object, which can be referred to as this at the top level, in a // property on our prototype, so we can refer to it in our object's methods myClass.prototype.global = this //myClass_IE.prototype.global = this // create a global variable referring to an object // var myVar = new myClass() var myVar = new myClass_chrome() //var myVar = new myClass_IE() alert(myVar.myName() );// returns "myVar"

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• Processing a database queue across multiple threads - design advice

  - by rwmnau

  I have a SQL Server table full of orders that my program needs to "follow up" on (call a webservice to see if something has been done with them). My application is multi-threaded, and could have instances running on multiple servers. Currently, every so often (on a Threading timer), the process selects 100 rows, at random (ORDER BY NEWID()), from the list of "unconfirmed" orders and checks them, marking off any that come back successfully. The problem is that there's a lot of overlap between the threads, and between the different processes, and their's no guarantee that a new order will get checked any time soon. Also, some orders will never be "confirmed" and are dead, which means that they get in the way of orders that need to be confirmed, slowing the process down if I keep selecting them over and over. What I'd prefer is that all outstanding orders get checked, systematically. I can think of two easy ways do this: The application fetches one order to check at a time, passing in the last order it checked as a parameter, and SQL Server hands back the next order that's unconfirmed. More database calls, but this ensures that every order is checked in a reasonable timeframe. However, different servers may re-check the same order in succession, needlessly. The SQL Server keeps track of the last order it asked a process to check up on, maybe in a table, and gives a unique order to every request, incrementing its counter. This involves storing the last order somewhere in SQL, which I wanted to avoid, but it also ensures that threads won't needlessly check the same orders at the same time Are there any other ideas I'm missing? Does this even make sense? Let me know if I need some clarification.

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• How to set a static system date for one user or application--"Groundhog Day"

  - by aixylinux

  I have a vendor application on AIX which requires the system date to be set to an arbitrary value for QA testing purposes. The application gets its date from the system, and there is no possibility of changing it to get the date from a parameter. The application runs under a specific userid. I'd like to find a way to set the date for this application or user to a private value without affecting all the other users and applications on the system. So far the only thing I have been able to do is dedicate an LPAR to this application. Every day at midnight a root crontab job resets the date to the static value. This works, but it is wasteful of resources; and now I am faced the requirement to do this for other applications, which, of course, require different dates. Is there any clever solution to this? I need a way to create a sandboxed environment where the date returned from the system can be set to a private value. As I said, the OS is AIX, and that can't be changed for this application either.

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• Can JMX operations take interfaces as parameters?

  - by Thor84no

  I'm having problems with an MBean that takes a Map<String, Object> as a parameter. If I try to execute it via JMX using a proxy object, I get an Exception: Caused by: javax.management.ReflectionException at org.jboss.mx.server.AbstractMBeanInvoker.invoke(AbstractMBeanInvoker.java:231) at org.jboss.mx.server.MBeanServerImpl.invoke(MBeanServerImpl.java:668) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to find operation updateProperties(java.util.HashMap) It appears that it attempts to use the actual implementation class rather than the interface, and doesn't check if this is a child of the required interface. The same thing happens for extended classes (for example declare HashMap, pass in LinkedHashMap). Does this mean it's impossible to use an interface for such methods? At the moment I'm getting around it by changing the method signature to accept a HashMap, but it seems odd that I wouldn't be able to use interfaces (or extended classes) in my MBeans. Edit: The proxy object is being created by an in-house utility class called JmxInvocationHandler. The (hopefully) relevant parts of it are as follows: public class JmxInvocationHandler implements InvocationHandler { ... public static <T> T createMBean(final Class<T> iface, SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { T newProxyInstance = (T) Proxy.newProxyInstance(iface.getClassLoader(), new Class[] { iface }, (InvocationHandler) new JmxInvocationHandler(properties, mbean, shHostID)); return newProxyInstance; } ... private JmxInvocationHandler(SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { this.mbeanName = mbean + MBEAN_SUFFIX + shHostID; msConfig = new MsConfiguration(properties.getHost(0), properties.getMSAdminPort(), properties.getMSUser(), properties.getMSPassword()); } ... public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { if (management == null) { management = ManagementClientStore.getInstance().getManagementClient(msConfig.getHost(), msConfig.getAdminPort(), msConfig.getUser(), msConfig.getPassword(), false); } final Object result = management.methodCall(mbeanName, method.getName(), args == null? new Object[] {} : args); return result; } }

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• Need help with a custom Spinner/ArrayAdapter setup

  - by MisterSquonk

  I have a WeatherSpinner class which extends Spinner. The class shows region names which I originally did using an ArrayAdapter<String> but I now want to use ArrayAdapter<Locale>(Locale is an abstract 'empty' class of my own). I'm getting a ClassCastException when trying to populate my ArrayAdapter with the following... protected ArrayList<?> theList; protected ArrayAdapter<Locale> aa = null; ... protected void updateContents(ArrayList<?> list, int selectedItem) { theList = list; // Exception thrown on next line aa = new ArrayAdapter<Locale>(theContext, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item, (Locale[]) theList.toArray()); ... } I'm passing a RegionList object into updateContents() as the 'list' parameter and RegionList extends ArrayList<Region>, and Region extends Locale. I've also overriden Region's toString() method to return a valid String. What am I not seeing here? Am I wrong about the way ArrayList<?>.toArray() works?

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• how to achieve functionality of #def of c in PHP

  - by Sabya

  Well, I don't know if thats what I want. But here is my problem: In case of some error I am logging the FILE, CLASS, FUNCTION and LINE in a file. For that I am doing something like: myLog('['. __FILE__ . ']' . '[' . __CLASS__ . ']' . '[' . __FUNCTION__ . ']' . '[' . __LINE__ . ']'); The problem is everywhere I've to repeat that code in the parameter. and If I want to change the format, I've to change everywhere. How can I have something like: myLog(LOG_MSG_FORMAT); With PHP define it is not possible since it will give my the LINE number of the place where that definition is, not where the definition is getting used. Any solution to this is welcome. I am not bitchy about having C like functionality of #def.

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• Complicated .NET factory design

  - by Tom W

  Hello SO; I'm planning to ask a fairly elaborate question that is also something of a musing here, so bear with me... I'm trying to design a factory implementation for a simulation application. The simulation will consist of different sorts of entities i.e. it is not a homogenous simulation in any respect. As a result, there will be numerous very different concrete implementations and only the very general properties will be abstracted at the top level. What I'd like to be able to do is create new simulation entities by calling a method on the model with a series of named arguments representing the parameters of the entity, and have the model infer what type of object is being described by the inbound parameters (from the names of the parameters and potentially the sequence they occur in) and call a factory method on the appropriate derived class. For example, if I pass the model a pair of parameters (Param1=5000, Param2="Bacon") I would like it to infer that the names Param1 and Param2 'belong' to the class "Blob1" and call a shared function "getBlob1" with named parameters Param1:=5000, Param2:="Bacon" whereas if I pass the model (Param1=5000, Param3=50) it would call a similar factory method for Blob2; because Param1 and Param3 in that order 'belong' to Blob2. I foresee several issues to resolve: Whether or not I can reflect on the available types with string parameter names and how to do this if it's possible Whether or not there's a neat way of doing the appropriate constructor inference from the combinatoric properties of the argument list or whether I'm going to have to bodge something to do it 'by hand'. If possible I'd like the model class to be able to accept parameters as parameters rather than as some collection of keys and values, which would require the model to expose a large number of parametrised methods at runtime without me having to code them explicitly - presumably one for every factory method available in the relevant namespace. What I'm really asking is how you'd go about implementing such a system, rather than whether or not it's fundamentally possible. I don't have the foresight or experience with .NET reflection to be able to figure out a way by myself. Hopefully this will prove an informative discussion.

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• How do I format a Uri when binding an Image in Silverlight?

  - by Scott

  I haven't been able to find an answer to this. I have a database that has image paths in it ("images/myimage.jpg"). These images exist on my asp.net site which is also where I host the SL. I want to bind these images to my ListBox control so that the image displays. I have read that since I have a string value, "images/myimage.jpg", that I need to convert it to a BitMap image. I have done this: the xaml: <Image Source="{Binding ImageFile, Converter={StaticResource ImageConverter}}"/> the ImageConverter class: public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { try { Uri source= new Uri(value.ToString()); return new BitmapImage(source); } catch(Exception ex) { return new BitmapImage(); } } I get an error when creating the Uri, "The Format of the URI could not be determined". What am I doing wrong? If I create a Uri that looks like this: http://localhost:49723/images/myimage.jpg, it works just fine. Why doesn't just "images/myimage.jpg" work?

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