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  • sql server - framework 4 - IIS 7 weird sort from db to page

    - by ila
    I am experiencing a strange behavior when reading a resultset from database in a calling method. The sort of the rows is different from what the database should return. My farm: - database server: sql server 2008 on a WinServer 2008 64 bit - web server: a couple of load balanced WinServer 2008 64 bit running IIS 7 The application runs on a v4.0 app pool, set to enable 32bit applications Here's a description of the problem: - a stored procedure is called, that returns a resultset sorted on a particular column - I can see thru profiler the call to the SP, if I run the statement I see correct sorting - the calling page gets the results, and before any further elaboration logs the rows immediately after the SP execution - the results are in a completely different order (I cannot even understand if they are sorted in any way) Some details on the Stored Procedure: - it is called by code using a SqlDatAdapter - it has also an output value (a count of the rows) that is read correctly - which sort field is to be used is passed as a parameter - makes use of temp tables to collect data and perform the desired sort Any idea on what I could check? Same code and same database work correctly in a test environment, 32 bit and not load balanced.

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  • How to proceed jpeg Image file size after read--rotate-write operations in Java?

    - by zamska
    Im trying to read a JPEG image as BufferedImage, rotate and save it as another jpeg image from file system. But there is a problem : after these operations I cannot proceed same file size. Here the code //read Image BufferedImage img = ImageIO.read(new File(path)); //rotate Image BufferedImage rotatedImage = new BufferedImage(image.getHeight(), image.getWidth(), BufferedImage.TYPE_3BYTE_BGR); Graphics2D g2d = (Graphics2D) rotatedImage.getGraphics(); g2d.rotate(Math.toRadians(PhotoConstants.ROTATE_LEFT)); int height=-rotatedImage.getHeight(null); g2d.drawImage(image, height, 0, null); g2d.dispose(); //Write Image Iterator iter = ImageIO.getImageWritersByFormatName("jpeg"); ImageWriter writer = (ImageWriter)iter.next(); // instantiate an ImageWriteParam object with default compression options ImageWriteParam iwp = writer.getDefaultWriteParam(); try { FileImageOutputStream output = null; iwp.setCompressionMode(ImageWriteParam.MODE_EXPLICIT); iwp.setCompressionQuality(0.98f); // an integer between 0 and 1 // 1 specifies minimum compression and maximum quality File file = new File(path); output = new FileImageOutputStream(file); writer.setOutput(output); IIOImage iioImage = new IIOImage(image, null, null); writer.write(null, iioImage, iwp); output.flush(); output.close(); writer.dispose(); Is it possible to access compressionQuality parameter of original jpeg image in the beginning. when I set 1 to compression quality, the image gets bigger size. Otherwise I set 0.9 or less the image gets smaller size. How can i proceed the image size after these operations? Thank you,

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  • JavaScript: List global variables in IE

    - by Quandary
    I'm trying to get the instance name of my class. The way I do this is I loop through all global objects and compare it with the this pointer. It works in Chrome and FF, but in IE, it doesn't. The problem seems to be the global variables don't seem to be in window. How can I loop through the global variables in IE ? PS: I know it only works as long as there is only one instance, and I don't want to pass the instance's name as a parameter. function myClass() { this.myName = function () { // search through the global object for a name that resolves to this object for (var name in this.global) { if (this.global[name] == this) return name } } } function myClass_chrome() { this.myName = function () { // search through the global object for a name that resolves to this object for (var name in window) { if (window[name] == this) return name ; } } ; } // store the global object, which can be referred to as this at the top level, in a // property on our prototype, so we can refer to it in our object's methods myClass.prototype.global = this //myClass_IE.prototype.global = this // create a global variable referring to an object // var myVar = new myClass() var myVar = new myClass_chrome() //var myVar = new myClass_IE() alert(myVar.myName() );// returns "myVar"

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  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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  • Getting empty update rectangle in OnPaint after calling InvalidateRect on a layered window

    - by Shawn
    I'm trying to figure out why I've been getting an empty update rectangle when I call InvalidateRect on a transparent window. The idea is that I've drawn something on the window (it gets temporarily switched to have an alpha of 1/255 for the drawing), and then I switch it to full transparent mode (i.e. alpha of 0) in order to interact with the desktop & to be able to move the drawing around the screen on top of the desktop. When I try to move the drawing, I get its bounding rectangle & use it to call InvalidateRect, as such: InvalidateRect(m_hTarget, &winRect, FALSE); I've confirmed that the winRect is indeed correct, and that m_hTarget is the correct window & that its rectangle fully encompasses winRect. I get into the OnPaint handler in the class corresponding to m_hTarget, which is derived from a CWnd. In there, I create a CPaintDC, but when I try to access the update rectangle (dcPaint.m_ps.rcPaint) it's always empty. This rectangle gets passed to a function that determines if we need to update the screen (by using UpdateLayeredWindow in the case of a transparent window). If I hard-code a non-empty rectangle in here, the remaining code works correctly & I am able to move the drawing around the screen. I tried changing the 'FALSE' parameter to 'TRUE' in InvalidateRect, with no effect. I also tried using a standard CDC, and then using BeginPaint/EndPaint method in my OnPaint handler, just to ensure that CPaintDC wasn't doing something odd ... but I got the same results. The code that I'm using was originally designed for opaque windows. If m_hTarget corresponds to an opaque window, the same set of function calls results in the correct (i.e. non-empty) rectangle being passed to OnPaint. Once the window is layered, though, it doesn't seem to work right.

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  • Javascript Computed Values With Arrays

    - by user983969
    Jquery Each Json Values Issue This question is similar to above, but not the same before it gets marked duplicated. After realasing how to use computed values i came across another issue. In my javascript i have the following code: var incidentWizard = ['page1.html','page2.html','page3.html']; var magicWizard = ['page1.html','page2.html','page3.html']; var loadedURL = 'page1.html'; The input to this function would be (true,'incident') function(next,wizardname) { var WizSize = incidentWizard.length; wizardName = [wizardName] + 'Wizard'; var wizardPOS = jQuery.inArray(loadedURL,incidentWizard); And now i want to use the wizardname parameter to decide what array i am going to use... Loader(incidentWizard[wizardPOS],true); Ive also tried Loader([incidentWizard][wizardPOS],true); and Loader([incidentWizard][wizardPOS],true); Also the loader function just required the string value in the array at wizardPOS sorry for confusion But when trying this i always end up with the outcome... /incidentWizard I know this is something to do with using computed values but i've tried reading about them and cant seem to solve this issue. Basicly i want to use the computed value of wizardName to access an an array of that name. Please help supports, looking forward to seeing many ways to do this!

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  • C++: Construction and initialization order guarantees

    - by Helltone
    Hi, I have some doubts about construction and initialization order guarantees in C++. For instance, the following code has four classes X, Y, Z and W. The main function instantiates an object of class X. X contains an object of class Y, and derives from class Z, so both constructors will be called. Additionally, the const char* parameter passed to X's constructor will be implicitly converted to W, so W's constructor must also be called. What are the guarantees the C++ standard gives on the order of the calls to the copy constructors? Or, equivalently, this program is allowed to print? #include <iostream> class Z { public: Z() { std::cout << "Z" << std::endl; } }; class Y { public: Y() { std::cout << "Y" << std::endl; } }; class W { public: W(const char*) { std::cout << "W" << std::endl; } }; class X : public Z { public: X(const W&) { std::cout << "X" << std::endl; } private: Y y; }; int main(int, char*[]) { X x("x"); return 0; }

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  • Can't get gravity to work with RMagick and 'caption'

    - by mph
    I'm using RMagick 2.12.2 with ImageMagick 6.5.6-10 on Snow Leopard. I'm trying to put captions on a collection of photos, and I'm getting the caption to work (i.e. it appears on the image), but I can't get the gravity parameter to work correctly. No matter what I set it to, I end up with some variation on NorthGravity. For instance: Setting it to SouthWestGravity gives me NorthWestGravity. Setting it to SouthEastGravity gives me NorthEastGravity. Setting it to CenterGravity gives me NorthGravity. In other words, I can't get the caption to come down off the top of the image. I'd consider using "annotate," but I need "caption" so the lengthy caption text for each image will wrap. What am I doing wrong? Here's the code: #!/usr/bin/env ruby require "rubygems" require "yaml" require "RMagick" include Magick base_dir = "/Users/mike/Desktop/caption_test" photo_log = File.open("#{base_dir}/photo_log.yaml" ) YAML::load_documents(photo_log) do |doc| caption = doc["photo-caption"] filename = doc["file"] canvas = ImageList.new.from_blob(open("#{base_dir}/#{filename}") { |f| f.read } ) canvas << Magick::Image.read("caption:#{caption}") { self.gravity = SouthWestGravity self.size = "#{canvas.first.columns}" self.font = "Helvetica Neue" self.pointsize = 12 self.background_color = "#fff" }.first canvas.flatten_images.write("#{base_dir}/images/#{filename}") end

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 - Custom route doesn't find controller action

    - by mcfroob
    For some reason my application isn't routing to my controller method correctly. I have a routelink like this in my webpage - <%= Html.RouteLink("View", "Blog", new { id=(item.BlogId), slug=(item.Slug) }) %> In global.asax.cs I have the following routes - routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "MoreBlogs", "Blog/Page/{page}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Blog", "Blog/View/{id}/{slug}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "View"} ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); And then I have a class BlogController that has a method - public ActionResult View(int id, string slug) { ... etc. } I put a breakpoint in the first line of the View method but it's not getting hit at all. I checked with a route debugger for the format localhost/Blog/View/1/test and it matched my custom route. All I'm getting is a 404 while running this, I can't work out why the route won't post to the view method in my controller - any ideas?

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  • Ruby on Rails login using legacy user database

    - by ricsmania
    Hello, I have a Rails application that connects to a legacy database (Oracle) and displays some information from a particular user. Right now the user is passed as a URL parameter, but this has obvious security issues because users should only be able to see their own data. To solve that, I want to implement a user login, and I did some research and came across 2 components for that, restful_authentication and authlogic. The problem is that I need to use an existing user/password database instead of creating a new one, which is the common way to use those components. The password is encrypted by a custom Oracle package, but let's assume it is stored as plain text to make things simpler. I only need very basic functionality, which is login a user and keep them logged in forever until logout. No changes to the database will be made by this application, so there's no need for sign up, e-mail activation, reset password, etc. Can someone point me in the right direction on how to do that? Is any of those 2 components a good solution? If not, what would be recommended? Thanks!

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  • Stored Procedure Parameters Not Available After Declared

    - by SidC
    Hi All, Pasted below is a stored procedure written in SQL Server 2005. My intent is to call this sproc from my ASP.NEt web application through the use of a wizard control. I am new to SQL Server and especially to stored procedures. I'm unsure why my parameters are not available to the web application and not visible in SSMS treeview as a parameter under my sproc name. Can you help me correct the sproc below so that the parameters are correctly instantiated and available for use in my web application? Thanks, Sid Stored Procedure syntax: USE [Diel_inventory] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[AddQuote] Script Date: 05/09/2010 00:31:10 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER procedure [dbo].[AddQuote] as Declare @CustID int, @CompanyName nvarchar(50), @Address nvarchar(50), @City nvarchar(50), @State nvarchar(2), @ZipCode nvarchar(5), @Phone nvarchar(12), @FAX nvarchar(12), @Email nvarchar(50), @ContactName nvarchar(50), @QuoteID int, @QuoteDate datetime, @NeedbyDate datetime, @QuoteAmt decimal, @ID int, @QuoteDetailPartID int, @PartNumber float, @Quantity int begin Insert into dbo.Customers (CompanyName, Address, City, State, ZipCode, OfficePhone, OfficeFAX, Email, PrimaryContactName) Values (@CompanyName, @Address, @City, @State, @ZipCode, @Phone, @FAX, @Email, @ContactName) set @CustID = scope_identity() Insert into dbo.Quotes (fkCustomerID,NeedbyDate,QuoteAmt) Values(@CustID,@NeedbyDate,@QuoteAmt) set @QuoteID = scope_identity() Insert into dbo.QuoteDetail (ID) values(@ID) set @ID=scope_identity() Insert into dbo.QuoteDetailParts (QuoteDetailPartID, QuoteDetailID, PartNumber, Quantity) values (@ID, @QuoteDetailPartID, @PartNumber, @Quantity) END

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult 'the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) 'do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • Queueing method calls - any idea how?

    - by TomTom
    I write a heavily asynchronseous application. I am looking for a way to queue method calls, similar to what BeginInvoke / EndInvoke does.... but on my OWN queue. The reaqson is that I am having my own optimized message queueing system using a threadpool but at the same time making sure every component is single threaded in the requests (i.e. one thread only handles messages for a component). I Have a lot of messages going back and forth. For limited use, I would really love to be able to just queue a message call with parameters, instead of having to define my own parameter, method wrapping / unwrapping just for the sake of doing a lot of admnistrative calls. I also do not always want to bypass the queue, and I definitely do not want the sending service to wait for the other service to respond. Anyone knows of a way to intercept a method call? Some way to utilize TransparentProxy / Virtual Proxy for this? ;) ServicedComponent? I would like this to be as little overhead as possible ;)

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  • Internal Java code best practice for dealing with invalid REST API parameters

    - by user326389
    My colleague wrote the following stackoverflow question: other stack overflow question on this topic The question seems to have been misinterpreted and I want to find out the answer, so I'm starting this new question... hopefully a little more clear. Basically, we have a REST API. Users of our API call our methods with parameters. But sometimes users call them with the wrong parameters!! Maybe a mistake in their code, maybe they're just trying to play with us, maybe they're trying to see how we respond, who knows! We respond with HTTP status error codes and maybe a detailed description of the invalid parameter in the XML response. All is well. But internally we deal with these invalid parameters by throwing exceptions. For example, if someone looks up a Person object by giving us their profile id, but the profile id doesn't exist... we throw a PersonInvalidException when looking them up. Then we catch this exception in our API controller and send back an HTTP 400 status error code. Our question is... is this the best practice, throwing exceptions internally for this kind of user error? These exceptions never get propogated back to the user, this is a REST API. They only make our code cleaner. Otherwise we could have a validation method in each of our API controllers to make sure the parameters all make sense, but that seems inefficient. We have to look up things in our database potentially twice. Or we could return nulls and check for them, but that sucks... What are your thoughts?

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  • Glassfish complaining about JSF component IDs

    - by Brian
    Hello All I am very new to JSF (v2.0) and I am attempting to learn it at places like netbeans.org and coreservlets.com. I am working on a very simple "add/subtract/multiply/divide" Java webapp and I have run into a problem. When I first started out, the application was enter two numbers and hit a '+' key and they would be automatically added together. Now that I have added more complexity I am having trouble getting the operation to the managed bean. This is what I had when it was just "add": <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number01" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number01}" /> <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number02" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number02}" /> <h:commandButton id="add" action="answer" value="+" /> For the "answer" page, I display the answer like this: <h:outputText value="#{Calculator.answer}" /> I had the proper getters and setters in the Calculator.java managed bean and the operation worked perfectly. Now I have added the other three operations and I am having trouble visualizing how to get the operation parameter to the bean so that I can switch around it. I tried this: <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="+" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="-" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="*" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="/" /> However, Glassfish complained that I have already used "operation" once and I am trying to use it four times here. Any adivce/tips on how to get multiple operations to the managed bean so that it can preform the desired operation? Thank you for taking the time to read.

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  • Combining XmlWriter objects?

    - by Kevin
    The way my application is structured, each component generates output as XML and returns an XmlWriter object. Before rendering the final output to the page, I combine all XML and perform an XSL transformation on that object. Below, is a simplified code sample of the application structure. Does it make sense to combine XmlWriter objects like this? Is there a better way to structure my application? The optimal solution would be one where I didn't have to pass a single XmlWriter instance as a parameter to each component. function page1Xml() { $content = new XmlWriter(); $content->openMemory(); $content->startElement('content'); $content->text('Sample content'); $content->endElement(); return $content; } function generateSiteMap() { $sitemap = new XmlWriter(); $sitemap->openMemory(); $sitemap->startElement('sitemap'); $sitemap->startElement('page'); $sitemap->writeAttribute('href', 'page1.php'); $sitemap->text('Page 1'); $sitemap->endElement(); $sitemap->endElement(); return $sitemap; } function output($content) { $doc = new XmlWriter(); $doc->openMemory(); $doc->writePi('xml-stylesheet', 'type="text/xsl" href="template.xsl"'); $doc->startElement('document'); $doc->writeRaw( generateSiteMap()->outputMemory() ); $doc->writeRaw( $content->outputMemory() ); $doc->endElement(); $doc->endDocument(); $output = xslTransform($doc); return $output; } $content = page1Xml(); echo output($content); Update: I may abandon XmlWriter altogether and use DomDocument instead. It is more flexible and it also seemed to perform better (at least on the crude tests I created).

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  • x86 Assembly: Before Making a System Call on Linux Should You Save All Registers?

    - by mudge
    I have the below code that opens up a file, reads it into a buffer and then closes the file. The close file system call requires that the file descriptor number be in the ebx register. The ebx register gets the file descriptor number before the read system call is made. My question is should I save the ebx register on the stack or somewhere before I make the read system call, (could int 80h trash the ebx register?). And then restore the ebx register for the close system call? Or is the code I have below fine and safe? I have run the below code and it works, I'm just not sure if it is generally considered good assembly practice or not because I don't save the ebx register before the int 80h read call. ;; open up the input file mov eax,5 ; open file system call number mov ebx,[esp+8] ; null terminated string file name, first command line parameter mov ecx,0o ; access type: O_RDONLY int 80h ; file handle or negative error number put in eax test eax,eax js Error ; test sign flag (SF) for negative number which signals error ;; read in the full input file mov ebx,eax ; assign input file descripter mov eax,3 ; read system call number mov ecx,InputBuff ; buffer to read into mov edx,INPUT_BUFF_LEN ; total bytes to read int 80h test eax,eax js Error ; if eax is negative then error jz Error ; if no bytes were read then error add eax,InputBuff ; add size of input to the begining of InputBuff location mov [InputEnd],eax ; assign address of end of input ;; close the input file ;; file descripter is already in ebx mov eax,6 ; close file system call number int 80h

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  • Click behaviour - Difference in IE and FF ?!

    - by OlliD
    Hey folks, i just came to the conclusion that a project i am currently working on might have a "logical" error in functionality. Currently I'am using server technology with PHP/MySQL and JQuery. Within the page there's a normal link reference with tag <a href="contentpage?page=xxx">next step</a> The pain point now seems to be the given jquery click event on the same element. The intension was to save the (current) content of the page (- form elements) via another php script using the php session command. For any reason, IE can handle the click event of Jquery right before executing the standard html command, that reloads the current page again with the new page parameter. By using FF the behaviour is different. I assume, that FF first execute the html command and afterwards execute the javascript code which handles the click event. Therefore the resultset here is wrong respectivly empty. My question now is whether you made the same experience and how you handled / wordarrounded this problem. I'd be thankful fur any of your tips or further feedback. Maybe you also have a solution on how to rethink about the current architecture. Regards, Oliver

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  • calling same function on different buttons not loaded yet

    - by Jordan Faust
    I can not get this to work for every button and I cannot find anything explaining why. I guessing it is something small that I am missing $(document).ready(function() { // delete the selected row from the database $(document).on('click', '#business-area-delete-button', { model: "BusinessArea" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#business-type-delete-button', { model: "BusinessType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#client-delete-button', { model: "Client" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#client-type-delete-button', { model: "ClientType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#communication-channel-type', { model: "CommunicationChannelType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#parameter-type-delete-button', { model: "ParameterType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#validation-method-delete-button', { model: "ValidationMethod" }, deleteRow); } the event function deleteRow(event){ $.ajax( { type:'POST', data: { id: $(".delete-row").attr("id") }, url:"/mysite/admin/delete" + event.data.model, success:function(data,textStatus){ $('#main-content').html(data); }, error:function(XMLHttpRequest,textStatus,errorThrown){ jQuery('#alerts').html(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); }, complete:function(XMLHttpRequest,textStatus){ placeAlerts() } } ); return false }; This works only for a the button with id validation-method-delete-button. I use document and not the button its self because the button is contained in a template that is loaded later via ajax. I have this working for a similar function that is selecting a row in a table however I am not attempting to pass data in that scenario.

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  • Is this reference or code in mistake or bug?

    - by mikezang
    I copied some text from NSDate Reference as below, please check Return Value, it is said the format will be in YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS ±HHMM, but I got as below in my app, so the reference is mistake? or code in mistake? Saturday, January 1, 2011 12:00:00 AM Japan Standard Time or 2011?1?1????0?00?00? ????? descriptionWithLocale: Returns a string representation of the receiver using the given locale. - (NSString *)descriptionWithLocale:(id)locale Parameters locale An NSLocale object. If you pass nil, NSDate formats the date in the same way as the description method. On Mac OS X v10.4 and earlier, this parameter was an NSDictionary object. If you pass in an NSDictionary object on Mac OS X v10.5, NSDate uses the default user locale—the same as if you passed in [NSLocale currentLocale]. Return Value A string representation of the receiver, using the given locale, or if the locale argument is nil, in the international format YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS ±HHMM, where ±HHMM represents the time zone offset in hours and minutes from GMT (for example, “2001-03-24 10:45:32 +0600”)

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  • Processing a database queue across multiple threads - design advice

    - by rwmnau
    I have a SQL Server table full of orders that my program needs to "follow up" on (call a webservice to see if something has been done with them). My application is multi-threaded, and could have instances running on multiple servers. Currently, every so often (on a Threading timer), the process selects 100 rows, at random (ORDER BY NEWID()), from the list of "unconfirmed" orders and checks them, marking off any that come back successfully. The problem is that there's a lot of overlap between the threads, and between the different processes, and their's no guarantee that a new order will get checked any time soon. Also, some orders will never be "confirmed" and are dead, which means that they get in the way of orders that need to be confirmed, slowing the process down if I keep selecting them over and over. What I'd prefer is that all outstanding orders get checked, systematically. I can think of two easy ways do this: The application fetches one order to check at a time, passing in the last order it checked as a parameter, and SQL Server hands back the next order that's unconfirmed. More database calls, but this ensures that every order is checked in a reasonable timeframe. However, different servers may re-check the same order in succession, needlessly. The SQL Server keeps track of the last order it asked a process to check up on, maybe in a table, and gives a unique order to every request, incrementing its counter. This involves storing the last order somewhere in SQL, which I wanted to avoid, but it also ensures that threads won't needlessly check the same orders at the same time Are there any other ideas I'm missing? Does this even make sense? Let me know if I need some clarification.

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  • Mysterious HttpSession and session-config dependency

    - by OneMoreVladimir
    Good day. I'm developing a Java web app with Servlets\JSP using Tomcat 7.0. During request from client I put and object into the session and use forward. After the forward processing the same request the object can be retreived if the secure parameter is false otherwise it is not stored in session. <session-config> <session-timeout>15</session-timeout> <cookie-config> <http-only>true</http-only> <secure>true</secure> </cookie-config> <tracking-mode>COOKIE</tracking-mode> </session-config> I've figured out that "...cookies can be created with the 'secure' flag, which ensures that the browser will never transmit the specified cookie over non-SSL...". I've configured Tomcat to use SSL, but that haven't helped. Changing the tracking mode to SSL haven't helped as well. How do session-config and HttpSession object correlate in this case? What could be the problem?

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  • ASP.NET MVC twitter/myspace style routing

    - by Astrofaes
    Hi guys, This is my first post after being a long-time lurker - so please be gentle :-) I have a website similar to twitter, in that people can sign up and choose a 'friendly url', so on my site they would have something like: mydomain.com/benjones I also have root level static pages such as: mydomain.com/about and of course my homepage: mydomain.com/ I'm new to ASP.NET MVC 2 (in fact I just started today) and I've set up the following routes to try and achieve the above. public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("content/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("images/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute("About", "about", new { controller = "Common", action = "About" } ); // User profile sits at root level so check for this before displaying the homepage routes.MapRoute("UserProfile", "{url}", new { controller = "User", action = "Profile", url = "" } ); routes.MapRoute("Home", "", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } For the most part this works fine, however, my homepage is not being triggered! Essentially, when you browser to mydomain.com, it seems to trigger the User Profile route with an empty {url} parameter and so the homepage is never reached! Any ideas on how I can show the homepage?

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  • Pass variable to Info Window in FusionTableLayer

    - by user1030205
    I am building a web application that includes a Google Map layered with data from a Google Fusion Table. I have defined the info window for the markers in the Fusion Table and all is rendering as expected, but I have one issue. I need to pass a session variable from my web application to be included in the links that are defined in the info window, but can't seem to find a way to do this. Below is the javascript I am currently using to render the map: var myOptions = { zoom: 10, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, center: new google.maps.LatLng( 40.4230,-98.7372) } map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); // Weather weatherLayer = new google.maps.weather.WeatherLayer({ temperatureUnits: google.maps.weather.TemperatureUnit.FAHRENHEIT }); weatherLayer.setMap(map); //Hobby Stores var storeLayer = new google.maps.FusionTablesLayer({ query: { select: "col2", from: "3991553" }, map: map, supressInfoWindows: true }); //Club Sites var siteLayer = new google.maps.FusionTablesLayer({ query: { select: "col13", from: "3855088" }, styles: [{ markerOptions: { iconName: "airports" }}], map: map, supressInfoWindows: true }); I'd like to be able to pass some type of parameter in the call to google.maps.FusionTableLayer that passes a value to be include in the info window, but can't find a way to do this. To view the actual page, visit www.dualrates.com. Enter your zipcode and select one of the airport markers to see the info window. You may have to zoom the map out to see an airfield.

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  • What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

    - by nopopem
    I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

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