Search Results

Search found 7375 results on 295 pages for 'parameter'.

Page 252/295 | < Previous Page | 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259  | Next Page >

  • binding image with 2 values with convertor

    - by prince23
    hi, is it possiable to set 2 data field for an image control whiling binding **<Image Source="{Binding ItemID, Converter={StaticResource IDToImageConverter}}" Height="50" />** now here i need to add one more value Price now. need to send even price as an paramter for IDToImageConverter function how can i do it? now i need to check first price value there are 3 condition i neeed to check in my IDToImageConverter function if( price> 5o) { // then get the ItemID based on the value bind image here if(ItemID >20) { // bind image1 } if(ItemID >50) { // bind image2 } } if( price> 100) { // as above codition we do here } now how can i add these above functionality in IDToImageConverter ? any idea how i can solve it <Image Source="{Binding ItemID, Converter={StaticResource IDToImageConverter}}" Height="50" /> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn> </data:DataGrid.Columns> </data:DataGrid> public class IDToImageConverter : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { Uri uri = new Uri("~/Images/" + value.ToString()+ ".jpg", UriKind.Relative); return new BitmapImage(uri); } thanks in advance. for anyhelp you provide prince

    Read the article

  • How to pass an integration property to a batch file with CruiseControlNet ?

    - by TridenT
    In the build log of my project, i can see these properties: <integrationProperties> <CCNetProject>Gdet_T</CCNetProject> ... <LastChangeNumber>0</LastChangeNumber> <LastIntegrationStatus>Success</LastIntegrationStatus> <LastSuccessfulIntegrationLabel>25</LastSuccessfulIntegrationLabel> <LastModificationDate>4/6/2010 1:29:04 PM</LastModificationDate> <LastChangeNumber>10841</LastChangeNumber> </integrationProperties> I want to pass the property CCNetProject and LastChangeNumber to a batch file. it works well with CCNetProject, as it can be used in the batch as an environment variable %CCNetProject%. But it doesn't work with other properties (those are not starting with the CCnet prefix) as LastChangeNumber or LastModificationDate. I tried to pass it as environment variable, but it fails ! <exec> <executable>$(WorkingFolderBase)\MyBatch.bat</executable> <baseDirectory>$(WorkingFolderBase)\</baseDirectory> <buildArgs>$(LastModificationDate)</buildArgs> </exec> I tried to pass it as argument, but it fails: <exec> <executable>$(WorkingFolderBase)\MyBatch.bat</executable> <baseDirectory>$(WorkingFolderBase)\</baseDirectory> <environment> <variable> <name>svn_label</name> <value>"${LastModificationDate}"</value> </variable> </environment> </exec> The results is always the same when I display the parameter or variable : empty string or the variable name $(svn_label) I'm sure it is simple, but ... I can't find ! Any idea ?

    Read the article

  • Java: using generic wildcards with subclassing

    - by gibberish
    Say I have a class Foo, a class A and some subclass B of A. Foo accepts A and its sublclasses as the generic type. A and B both require a Foo instance in their constructor. I want A's Foo to be of type A , and B's Foo to be of type B or a superclass of B. So in effect, So I only want this: Foo<X> bar = new Foo<X>; new B(bar); to be possible if X is either A, B, or a both subclass of A and superclass of B. So far this is what I have: class Foo<? extends A>{ //construct } class A(Foo<A> bar){ //construct } class B(Foo<? super B> bar){ super(bar); //construct } The call to super(...) doesn't work, because <A> is stricter than <? super B>. Is it somehow possible to use the constructor (or avoid code duplication by another means) while enforcing these types? Edit: Foo keeps a collection of elements of the generic parameter type, and these elements and Foo have a bidirectional link. It should therefore not be possible to link an A to a Foo.

    Read the article

  • How to wrap a C function whose parameters are pointer to structs, so that it can be called from Lua?

    - by pierr
    I have the follwing C function. How should I wrap it so it can be called from a Lua script? typedef struct tagT{ int a ; int b ; } type_t; int lib_a_f_4(type_t *t) { return t->a * t->b ; } I know how to wrapr it if the function parameter type were int or char *. Should I use table type for a C structure? EDIT: I am using SWIG for the wraping , according to this doc, It seems that I should automatically have this funtion new_type_t(2,3) , but it is not the case. If you wrap a C structure, it is also mapped to a Lua userdata. By adding a metatable to the userdata, this provides a very natural interface. For example, struct Point{ int x,y; }; is used as follows: p=example.new_Point() p.x=3 p.y=5 print(p.x,p.y) 3 5 Similar access is provided for unions and the data members of C++ classes. C structures are created using a function new_Point(), but for C++ classes are created using just the name Point().

    Read the article

  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

    Read the article

  • Best way to track the stages of a form across different controllers - $_GET or routing

    - by chrisj
    Hi, I am in a bit of a dilemma about how best to handle the following situation. I have a long registration process on a site, where there are around 10 form sections to fill in. Some of these forms relate specifically to the user and their own personal data, while most of them relate to the user's pets - my current set up handles user specific forms in a User_Controller (e.g via methods like user/profile, user/household etc), and similarly the pet related forms are handled in a Pet_Controller (e.g pet/health). Whether or not all of these methods should be combined into a single Registration_Controller, I'm not sure - I'm open to any advice on that. Anyway, my main issue is that I want to generate a progress bar which shows how far along in the registration process each user is. As the urls in each form section can potentially be mapping to different controllers, I'm trying to find a clean way to extract which stage a person is at in the overall process. I could just use the query string to pass a stage parameter with each request, e.g user/profile?stage=1. Another way to do it potentially is to use routing - e.g the urls for each section of the form could be set up to be registration/stage/1, registration/stage/2 - then i could just map these urls to the appropriate controller/method behind the scenes. If this makes any sense at all, does anyone have any advice for me?

    Read the article

  • row number over text column sort

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I'm having problems with dynamic sorting using ROW Number in SQL Server. I have it working but it's throwing errors on non numeric fields. What do I need to change to get sorts with Alpha Working??? ID Description 5 Test 6 Desert 3 A evil Ive got a Sql Prodcedure CREATE PROCEDURE [CRUDS].[MyTable_Search] -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here -- Full Parameter List @ID int = NULL, @Description nvarchar(256) = NULL, @StartIndex int = 0, @Count int = null, @Order varchar(128) = 'ID asc' AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; -- Insert statements for procedure here Select * from ( Select ROW_NUMBER() OVER (Order By case when @Order = 'ID asc' then [TableName].ID when @Order = 'Description asc' then [TableName].Description end asc, case when @Order = 'ID desc' then [TableName].ID when @Order = 'Description desc' then [TableName].Description end desc ) as row, [TableName].* from [TableName] where (@ID IS NULL OR [TableName].ID = @ID) AND (@Description IS NULL OR [TableName].Description = @Description) ) as a where row > @StartIndex and (@Count is null or row <= @StartIndex + @Count) order by case when @Order = 'ID asc' then a.ID when @Order = 'Description asc' then a.Description end asc, case when @Order = 'ID desc' then a.ID when @Order = 'Description desc' then a.Description end desc END

    Read the article

  • C: Fifo between threads, writing and reading strings

    - by Yonatan
    Hello once more dear internet, I writing a small program that among other things, writes a log file of commands received. to do that, I want to use a thread that all it should do is just attempt to read from a pipe, while the main thread will write into that pipe whenever it should. Since i don't know the length of each string command, i thought about writing and reading the pointer to the char buf[MAX_MESSAGE_LEN]. Since what i've tried so far doesn't work, i'll post my best effort :P char str[] = "hello log thread 123456789 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19\n"; if (pipe(pipe_fd) != 0) return -1; pthread_t log_thread; pthread_create(&log_thread,NULL, log_thread_start, argv[2]); success_write = 0; do { write(pipe_fd[1],(void*)&str,sizeof(char*)); } while (success_write < sizeof(char*)); and the thread does this: char buffer[MAX_MSGLEN]; int success_read; success_read = 0; //while(1) { do { success_read += read(pipe_fd[0],(void*)&buffer, sizeof(char*)); } while (success_read < sizeof(char*)); //} printf("%s",buffer); (Sorry if this doesn't indent, i can't seem to figure out this editor...) oh, and pipe_fd[2] is a global parameter. So, any help with this, either by the way i thought of, or another way i could read strings without knowing the length, would be much appreciated. On a side note, i'm working on Eclipse IDE C/C++, version 1.2.1 and i can't seem to set up the compiler so it will link the pthread library to my project. I've resorted to writing my own Makefile to make it (pun intended :P) work. Anyone knows what to do ? i've looked online, but all i find are solutions that are probably good on an older version because the tabs and option keys are different. Anyways, Thanks a bunch internet ! Yonatan

    Read the article

  • What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

    - by nopopem
    I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

    Read the article

  • Questions regarding detouring by modifying the virtual table

    - by Elliott Darfink
    I've been practicing detours using the same approach as Microsoft Detours (replace the first five bytes with a jmp and an address). More recently I've been reading about detouring by modifying the virtual table. I would appreciate if someone could shed some light on the subject by mentioning a few pros and cons with this method compared to the one previously mentioned! I'd also like to ask about patched vtables and objects on the stack. Consider the following situation: // Class definition struct Foo { virtual void Call(void) { std::cout << "FooCall\n"; } }; // If it's GCC, 'this' is passed as the first parameter void MyCall(Foo * object) { std::cout << "MyCall\n"; } // In some function Foo * foo = new Foo; // Allocated on the heap Foo foo2; // Created on the stack // Arguments: void ** vtable, uint offset, void * replacement PatchVTable(*reinterpret_cast<void***>(foo), 0, MyCall); // Call the methods foo->Call(); // Outputs: 'MyCall' foo2.Call(); // Outputs: 'FooCall' In this case foo->Call() would end up calling MyCall(Foo * object) whilst foo2.Call() call the original function (i.e Foo::Call(void) method). This is because the compiler will try to decide any virtual calls during compile time if possible (correct me if I'm wrong). Does that mean it does not matter if you patch the virtual table or not, as long as you use objects on the stack (not heap allocated)?

    Read the article

  • How to query MYSQL when clicked?

    - by Sam
    Hello, I have a while statement, echoing my whole database that match a WHERE parameter. How can I make it so when I click on something (anything for the moment), it updates that specific row. Here's my code. while($request = mysql_fetch_array( $request_db )) { echo "<tr><td style=\"width:33%;padding:1px;\">"; echo $request['SongName']; echo "</td><td style=\"width:33%;\">"; echo $request['Artist']; echo "</td><td style=\"width:33%;\">"; echo $request['DedicatedTo']; echo "</td><td style=\"width:33%;\">"; echo "UPDATE A ROW's 'Hasplayed' value to '1'."; echo "</td></tr>"; } echo "</table>"; Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Facebook Tagging friends to the picture

    - by Rajesh Dante
    Below code tag only first uid then then its shows Fatal error: Uncaught OAuthException: (#100) Invalid parameter and can i use exact location for tagging.. as in below code x and y values are in pixel $facebook = new Facebook ( array ( 'appId' => FBAPPID, 'secret' => FBSECRETID ) ); $facebook->setFileUploadSupport ( true ); if (isset ( $_POST ['image'] ) && isset ( $_POST ['tname'] )) { $path_to_image = encrypt::instance ()->decode ( $_POST ['image'] ); $tags = (array)encrypt::instance ()->decode ( $_POST ['tname'] ); /* * Output $tags = array ( 0 => '[{"tag_uid":"100001083191675","x":100,"y":100},{"tag_uid":"100001713817872","x":100,"y":230},{"tag_uid":"100000949945144","x":100,"y":360},{"tag_uid":"100001427144227","x":230,"y":100},{"tag_uid":"100000643504257","x":230,"y":230},{"tag_uid":"100001155130231","x":230,"y":360}]' ); */ $args = array ( 'message' => 'Von ', 'source' => '@' . $path_to_image, 'access_token' => $this->user->fbtoken ) ; $photo = $facebook->api ( $this->user->data->fbid . '/photos', 'post', $args ); // upload works but not tags if (is_array ( $photo ) && ! empty ( $photo ['id'] )) { echo 'Photo uploaded. Check it on Graph API Explorer. ID: ' . $photo ['id']; foreach ( $tags as $key => $t ) { $tagRe = json_encode ( $t ); $args = array ( 'tags' => $tagRe, 'access_token' => $this->user->fbtoken ); $facebook->api ( '/' . $photo ['id'] . '/tags', 'post', $args ); } } }

    Read the article

  • Using custom detectors with FindBugs Maven plugin

    - by Lóránt Pintér
    I have a nice JAR of some custom FindBugs detectors I'd like to use with the FindBugs Maven plugin. There is a way to do this with the plugin via the <pluginList> configuration parameter, but that only accepts local files, URLs, or resources. The only way I found for doing so is to somehow copy my JAR to a local file (maybe via the Dependency plugin) and then configure the FindBugs plugin something like this: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>findbugs-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.3.1</version> <configuration> <pluginList>${project.build.directory}/my-detectors.jar</pluginList> </configuration> </plugin> But this is not very flexible. Is there a way to use Maven's dependency management features together with FindBugs' plugins? I'd like to use something like this: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>findbugs-maven-plugin</artifactId> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>com.lptr.findbugs</groupId> <artifactId>my-detectors</artifactId> <version>1.0</version> </dependency> </dependencies> </plugin> ...but this simply overrides the core FindBugs detectors.

    Read the article

  • Code Analysis Warning CA1004 with generic method

    - by Vaccano
    I have the following generic method: // Load an object from the disk public static T DeserializeObject<T>(String filename) where T : class { XmlSerializer xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); try { TextReader textReader = new StreamReader(filename); var result = (T)xmlSerializer.Deserialize(textReader); textReader.Close(); return result; } catch (FileNotFoundException) { } return null; } When I compile I get the following warning: CA1004 : Microsoft.Design : Consider a design where 'MiscHelpers.DeserializeObject(string)' doesn't require explicit type parameter 'T' in any call to it. I have considered this and I don't know a way to do what it requests with out limiting the types that can be deserialized. I freely admit that I might be missing an easy way to fix this. But if I am not, then is my only recourse to suppress this warning? I have a clean project with no warnings or messages. I would like to keep it that way. I guess I am asking "why this is a warning?" At best this seems like it should be a message. And even that seems a bit much. Either it can or it can't be fixed. If it can't then you are just stuck with the warning with no recourse but suppressing it. Am I wrong?

    Read the article

  • Call any webservice from the same $.ajax() call

    - by Andreas
    Hi! Im creating a usercontrol which is controled client side, it has an javascript-file attatched to it. This control has a button and upon click a popup appears, this popup shows a list of my domain entities. My entities are fetched using a call to a webservice. Im trying to get this popup usercontrol to work on all my entities, therefore i have the need to call any webservice needed (one per entity for example) with the same $.ajax() call. I have hiddenfields for the webservice url in my usercontrol which you specify in the markup via a property. So far so good. The problem arise when i need some additional parameters to the webservice (other than pagesize and pageindex). Say for example that one webservice takes an additional parameter "Date". At the moment i have my parameters set up like this: var params = JSON.stringify({ pageSize: _this.pageSize, pageIndex: _this.pageIndex }); and then i call the webservice like so: $.ajax({ webserviceUrl, params, function(result) { //some logic }); }); What i want to do is to be able to add my extra parameters (Date) to "Param" when needed, the specification of these parameters will be done via properties of the usercontrol. So, bottom line, i have a set of default parameters and want to dynamically add optional extra parameters. How is this possible? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • public class ImageHandler : IHttpHandler

    - by Ken
    cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@id", new system.Guid (imageid)); What using System reference would this require? Here is the handler: using System; using System.Collections.Specialized; using System.Web; using System.Web.Configuration; using System.Web.Security; using System.Globalization; using System.Configuration; using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.Data; using System.IO; using System.Web.Profile; using System.Drawing; public class ImageHandler : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { string imageid; if (context.Request.QueryString["id"] != null) imageid = (context.Request.QueryString["id"]); else throw new ArgumentException("No parameter specified"); context.Response.ContentType = "image/jpeg"; Stream strm = ShowProfileImage(imageid.ToString()); byte[] buffer = new byte[8192]; int byteSeq = strm.Read(buffer, 0, 8192); while (byteSeq > 0) { context.Response.OutputStream.Write(buffer, 0, byteSeq); byteSeq = strm.Read(buffer, 0, 8192); } //context.Response.BinaryWrite(buffer); } public Stream ShowProfileImage(String imageid) { string conn = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["MyConnectionString1"].ConnectionString; SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(conn); string sql = "SELECT image FROM Profile WHERE UserId = @id"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(sql, connection); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@id", new system.Guid (imageid));//Failing Here!!!! connection.Open(); object img = cmd.ExecuteScalar(); try { return new MemoryStream((byte[])img); } catch { return null; } finally { connection.Close(); } } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } }

    Read the article

  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

    Read the article

  • jQuery tokeninput plugin + passing id to another tokeninput url

    - by Elson Solano
    I am using a jquery plugin called jQuery Tokeninput http://loopj.com/jquery-tokeninput/ and I am having a logic issue. var country_id = ""; jQuery("#demo-input-prevent-duplicates").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=country", { theme: "facebook", hintText: "Enter a Country...", placeholder: "Enter a Country...", preventDuplicates: true, onAdd: function(item) { country_id = item.id; }, onDelete: function(){ hideElements(); }, tokenDelimiter: "|", }); My question here is how would I pass the value of country_id to the parameter of the below code. I'm not seeing how to do this one on the jquery tokeninput documentation. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id, { theme: "facebook", preventDuplicates: true, hintText: "Enter a State or Province...", placeholder: "Enter a State or Province..." }); If you'll look on this part of the code, I am passing the country_id that was generated above on the "onAdd". This doesn't work though. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id .... How would I do that one? Your help would be greatly appreciated and of course, rewarded! Thanks! :-)

    Read the article

  • Uploading multiple files asynchronously by blueimp jquery-fileupload

    - by Ryo
    I'm using jQuery File Upload library (http://github.com/blueimp/jQuery-File-Upload), and I've been stuck figuring out how to use the library satisfying the following conditions. The page has multiple file input fields surrounded by a form tag. Users can attach multiple files to each input field All files are sent to a server when the button is clicked, not when files are attached to the input fields. Upload is done asynchronously Say the page has 3 input fields with their name attributes being "file1[]", "file2[]" and "file3[]", the request payload should be like {file1: [ array of files on file1[] ], file2: [ array of files on file2[] ], ...} Here's jsFiddle, it's behaving weird so far in that it sends post request twice and the first one is cancelled. http://jsfiddle.net/BAQtG/24/ The core part of js code looks like this. $(document).ready(function(){ var filesList = [] var elem = $("form") file_upload = elem.fileupload({ formData:{extra:1}, autoUpload: false, fileInput: $("input:file"), }).on("fileuploadadd", function(e, data){ filesList.push(data.files[0]) }); $("button").click(function(){ file_upload.fileupload('send', {files:filesList} ) }) }) Anybody have idea how to get this to work? Updates Now thanks to @CBroe 's comment, the issue that request is sent twice is fixed. However the keys of request parameter is not correctly set. Here's updated jsFiddle. http://jsfiddle.net/BAQtG/27/

    Read the article

  • sql server - framework 4 - IIS 7 weird sort from db to page

    - by ila
    I am experiencing a strange behavior when reading a resultset from database in a calling method. The sort of the rows is different from what the database should return. My farm: - database server: sql server 2008 on a WinServer 2008 64 bit - web server: a couple of load balanced WinServer 2008 64 bit running IIS 7 The application runs on a v4.0 app pool, set to enable 32bit applications Here's a description of the problem: - a stored procedure is called, that returns a resultset sorted on a particular column - I can see thru profiler the call to the SP, if I run the statement I see correct sorting - the calling page gets the results, and before any further elaboration logs the rows immediately after the SP execution - the results are in a completely different order (I cannot even understand if they are sorted in any way) Some details on the Stored Procedure: - it is called by code using a SqlDatAdapter - it has also an output value (a count of the rows) that is read correctly - which sort field is to be used is passed as a parameter - makes use of temp tables to collect data and perform the desired sort Any idea on what I could check? Same code and same database work correctly in a test environment, 32 bit and not load balanced.

    Read the article

  • passing multidimensional arrays to function

    - by Pegah
    hi! I have a method in my class which uses a 3dimensional tfpairexp as input parameter. and I need to use the values in tfpairexp later. void calctfpairexp (int tf1, int tf2, double tfpairexp[][2][3]) { int ctr,c; for (int j = 0; j < cchips && (c = chips[j].crepls); j += c) { int ctrl_no=0; for (int *p = chips[j].ctrl ; p && (ctr=*p)>=0; ++p,ctrl_no++) { for (int k = 0; k < c; ++k) { tfpairexp[j][ctrl_no][k]=interactionFunc(2,3,1); } } } } I call the method inside the class like this: calctfpairexp(tf1,tf2,tfpairexp); and I need to use values inside tfpairexp in next lines. but the compiler gives error in this line: tfpairexp[j][ctrl_no][k]=interactionFunc(2,3,1); and says that the tfpairexp variable is not defined in the calctfpairexp function. any idea?

    Read the article

  • JavaScript: List global variables in IE

    - by Quandary
    I'm trying to get the instance name of my class. The way I do this is I loop through all global objects and compare it with the this pointer. It works in Chrome and FF, but in IE, it doesn't. The problem seems to be the global variables don't seem to be in window. How can I loop through the global variables in IE ? PS: I know it only works as long as there is only one instance, and I don't want to pass the instance's name as a parameter. function myClass() { this.myName = function () { // search through the global object for a name that resolves to this object for (var name in this.global) { if (this.global[name] == this) return name } } } function myClass_chrome() { this.myName = function () { // search through the global object for a name that resolves to this object for (var name in window) { if (window[name] == this) return name ; } } ; } // store the global object, which can be referred to as this at the top level, in a // property on our prototype, so we can refer to it in our object's methods myClass.prototype.global = this //myClass_IE.prototype.global = this // create a global variable referring to an object // var myVar = new myClass() var myVar = new myClass_chrome() //var myVar = new myClass_IE() alert(myVar.myName() );// returns "myVar"

    Read the article

  • C++: Construction and initialization order guarantees

    - by Helltone
    Hi, I have some doubts about construction and initialization order guarantees in C++. For instance, the following code has four classes X, Y, Z and W. The main function instantiates an object of class X. X contains an object of class Y, and derives from class Z, so both constructors will be called. Additionally, the const char* parameter passed to X's constructor will be implicitly converted to W, so W's constructor must also be called. What are the guarantees the C++ standard gives on the order of the calls to the copy constructors? Or, equivalently, this program is allowed to print? #include <iostream> class Z { public: Z() { std::cout << "Z" << std::endl; } }; class Y { public: Y() { std::cout << "Y" << std::endl; } }; class W { public: W(const char*) { std::cout << "W" << std::endl; } }; class X : public Z { public: X(const W&) { std::cout << "X" << std::endl; } private: Y y; }; int main(int, char*[]) { X x("x"); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Internal Java code best practice for dealing with invalid REST API parameters

    - by user326389
    My colleague wrote the following stackoverflow question: other stack overflow question on this topic The question seems to have been misinterpreted and I want to find out the answer, so I'm starting this new question... hopefully a little more clear. Basically, we have a REST API. Users of our API call our methods with parameters. But sometimes users call them with the wrong parameters!! Maybe a mistake in their code, maybe they're just trying to play with us, maybe they're trying to see how we respond, who knows! We respond with HTTP status error codes and maybe a detailed description of the invalid parameter in the XML response. All is well. But internally we deal with these invalid parameters by throwing exceptions. For example, if someone looks up a Person object by giving us their profile id, but the profile id doesn't exist... we throw a PersonInvalidException when looking them up. Then we catch this exception in our API controller and send back an HTTP 400 status error code. Our question is... is this the best practice, throwing exceptions internally for this kind of user error? These exceptions never get propogated back to the user, this is a REST API. They only make our code cleaner. Otherwise we could have a validation method in each of our API controllers to make sure the parameters all make sense, but that seems inefficient. We have to look up things in our database potentially twice. Or we could return nulls and check for them, but that sucks... What are your thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Bing search API and Azure

    - by Gapton
    I am trying to programatically perform a search on Microsoft Bing search engine. Here is my understanding: There was a Bing Search API 2.0 , which will be replaced soon (1st Aug 2012) The new API is known as Windows Azure Marketplace. You use different URL for the two. In the old API (Bing Search API 2.0), you specify a key (Application ID) in the URL, and such key will be used to authenticate the request. As long as you have the key as a parameter in the URL, you can obtain the results. In the new API (Windows Azure Marketplace), you do NOT include the key (Account Key) in the URL. Instead, you put in a query URL, then the server will ask for your credentials. When using a browser, there will be a pop-up asking for a/c name and password. Instruction was to leave the account name blank and insert your key in the password field. Okay, I have done all that and I can see a JSON-formatted results of my search on my browser page. How do I do this programmatically in PHP? I tried searching for the documentation and sample code from Microsoft MSDN library, but I was either searching in the wrong place, or there are extremely limited resources in there. Would anyone be able to tell me how do you do the "enter the key in the password field in the pop-up" part in PHP please? Thanks alot in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259  | Next Page >