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  • Is there a general-purpose printf-ish routine defined in any C standard

    - by supercat
    In many C libraries, there is a printf-style routine which is something like the following: int __vgprintf(void *info, (void)(*print_function(void*, char)), const char *format, va_list params); which will format the supplied string and call print_function with the passed-in info value and each character in sequence. A function like fprintf will pass __vgprintf the passed-in file parameter and a pointer to a function which will cast its void* to a FILE* and output the passed-in character to that file. A function like snprintf will create a struct holding a char* and length, and pass the address of that struct to a function which will output each character in sequence, space permitting. Is there any standard for such a function, which could be used if e.g. one wanted a function to output an arbitrary format to a TCP port? A common approach is to allocate a buffer one hopes is big enough, use snprintf to put the data there, and then output the data from the buffer. It would seem cleaner, though, if there were a standard way to to specify that the print formatter should call a user-supplied routine with each character.

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  • asp file system object

    - by sushant
    i am using this code to access files and folders. <%@ Language=VBScript %<% option explicit dim sRoot, sDir, sParent, objFSO, objFolder, objFile, objSubFolder, sSize % <% sRoot = "D:Raghu" sDir = Request("Dir") sDir = sDir & "\" Response.Write "" & sDir & "" & vbCRLF Set objFSO = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") on error resume next Set objFolder = objFSO.GetFolder(sRoot & sDir) if err.number < 0 then Response.Write "Could not open folder" Response.End end if on error goto 0 sParent = objFSO.GetParentFolderName(objFolder.Path) ' Remove the contents of sRoot from the front. This gives us the parent ' path relative to the root folder ' eg. if parent folder is "c:webfilessubfolder1subfolder2" then we just want "subfolder1subfolder2" sParent = mid(sParent, len(sRoot) + 1) Response.Write "" ' Give a link to the parent folder. This is just a link to this page only pssing in ' the new folder as a parameter Response.Write "Parent folder" & vbCRLF ' Now we want to loop through the subfolders in this folder For Each objSubFolder In objFolder.SubFolders ' And provide a link to them Response.Write "" & objSubFolder.Name & "" & vbCRLF Next ' Now we want to loop through the files in this folder For Each objFile In objFolder.Files if Clng(objFile.Size) < 1024 then sSize = objFile.Size & " bytes" else sSize = Clng(objFile.Size / 1024) & " KB" end if ' And provide a link to view them. This is a link to show.asp passing in the directory and the file ' as parameters Response.Write "" & objFile.Name & "" & sSize & "" & objFile.Type & "" & vbCRLF Next Response.Write "" % it works fine. but when i try to access something on shred path like: "\cvrdd0110:share" it gives error. how to access these files?

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  • Sending a JSON object to an ASP.NET web service using JQUERY ajax function

    - by uzay95
    I want to create object on the client side of aspx page. And i want to add functions to these javascript classes to make easier the life. Actually i can get and use the objects (derived from the server side classes) which returns from the services. When i wanted to send objects from the client by jquery ajax methods, i couldn't do it :) This is my javascript object: function ClassAndMark(_mark, _lesson){ this.Lesson = _lesson; this.Mark = _mark; } function Student(_name, _surname, _classAndMark){ this.Name = _name; this.SurName = _surname; this.ClassAndMark = _classAndMark; } JSClass.prototype.fSaveToDB(){ $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "/WS/SaveObject.asmx/fSaveToDB"), data: ????????????, dataType: "json" }); } Actually i don't know what should be definition of classes and methods on the Server side but i think: class ClassAndMark{ public string Lesson ; public string Mark ; } class Student{ public string Name ; public string SurName ; public ClassAndMark ClassAndMark ; } Web service is below but again i couldn't get what should be instead of the ???? : [WebMethod()] public void fSaveToDB(???? _obj) { // How can i convert input parameter/parameters // of method in the server side object? }

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  • using a stored procedure for login in c#

    - by Jin Yim
    Hi all, If I run a store procedure with two parameter values (admin, admin) (parameters : admin, admin) I get the following message : Session_UID User_Group_Name Sys_User_Name NULLAdministratorsNTMSAdmin No rows affected. (1 row(s) returned) @RETURN_VALUE = 0 Finished running [dbo].[p_SYS_Login]. -- To get the same message in c# I used the code following : string strConnection = Settings.Default.ConnectionString; using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(strConnection)) { using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { SqlDataReader rdr = null; cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandText = "p_SYS_Login"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; SqlParameter paramReturnValue = new SqlParameter(); paramReturnValue.ParameterName = "@RETURN_VALUE"; paramReturnValue.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.Int; paramReturnValue.SourceColumn = null; paramReturnValue.Direction = ParameterDirection.ReturnValue; cmd.Parameters.Add(paramReturnValue); cmd.Parameters.Add(paramGroupName); cmd.Parameters.Add(paramUserName); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Sys_Login", "admin"); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Sys_Password", "admin"); try { conn.Open(); rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); string test = (string)cmd.Parameters["@RETURN_VALUE"].Value; while (rdr.Read()) { Console.WriteLine("test : " + rdr[0]); } } catch (Exception ex) { string message = ex.Message; string caption = "MAVIS Exception"; MessageBoxButtons buttons = MessageBoxButtons.OK; MessageBox.Show( message, caption, buttons, MessageBoxIcon.Warning, MessageBoxDefaultButton.Button1); } finally { cmd.Dispose(); conn.Close(); } } } but I get nothing in SqlDataReader rdr ; is there something I am missing ? Thanks

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  • Which design is better (OO Design)?

    - by Tattat
    I have an "Enemy" object, that have many "gun" . Each "gun" can fire "bullet". Storing "gun" is using an array. when the "gun" is fired, the "bullet" will be created. And the enemy object will have an array to store the "bullet". So, I am thinking about the fire method. I am think making a firebulletFromGun in the "enemy". It need have a parameter: "gun". while this method is called. The "enemy" 's bullet will be added in the Array. Another design is writing the fire method in the "gun". The "enemy" use the "gun"'s fire method. And the "gun" will return a "bullet" object, and it will be added in the Array of "enemy". Both method can work, but which way is better? or they are similar the same? plx drop ur ideas/suggestions. thz.

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • How To Update EF 4 Entity In ASP.NET MVC 3?

    - by Jason Evans
    Hi there. I have 2 projects - a class library containing an EDM Entity Framework model and a seperate ASP.NET MVC project. I'm having problems with how your suppose to edit and save changes to an entity using MVC. In my controller I have: public class UserController : Controller { public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var rep = new UserRepository(); var user = rep.GetById(id); return View(user); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(User user) { var rep = new UserRepository(); rep.Update(user); return View(user); } } My UserRepository has an Update method like this: public void Update(User user) { using (var context = new PDS_FMPEntities()) { context.Users.Attach(testUser); context.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(testUser, EntityState.Modified); context.SaveChanges(); } } Now, when I click 'Save' on the edit user page, the parameter user only contains two values populated: Id, and FirstName. I take it that is due to the fact that I'm only displaying those two properties in the view. My question is this, if I'm updating the user's firstname, and then want to save it, what am I suppose to do about the other User properties which were not shown on the view, since they now contain 0 or NULL values in the user object? I've been reading a lot about using stub entities, but I'm getting nowhere fast, in that none of the examples I've seen actually work. i.e. I keep getting EntityKey related exceptions. Can someone point me to a good tutorial/example of how to update EF 4 entities using a repository class, called by an MVC front-end? Cheers. Jas.

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  • C Program Stalls or Infinite Loops inside and else statement?

    - by Bobby S
    I have this weird thing happening in my C program which has never happened to me before. I am calling a void function with a single parameter, the function is very similar to this so you can get the jist: ... printf("Before Call"); Dumb_Function(a); printf("After Call"); ... ... void Dumb_Function(int a){ if(a == null) { } else{ int i; for(i=0; i<a; i++) { do stuff } printf("test"); } } This will output Before Call test and NOT "After Call" How is this possible? Why does my function not return? Did my program counter get lost? I can not modify it to a non void function. When running the cursor will blink and I am able to type, I press CTRL+C to terminate. Any ideas?

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  • Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

    - by Bhaskar
    Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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  • How do I use .htaccess to redirect to a URL containing HTTP_HOST?

    - by Jon Cram
    Problem I need to redirect some short convenience URLs to longer actual URLs. The site in question uses a set of subdomains to identify a set of development or live versions. I would like the URL to which certain requests are redirected to include the HTTP_HOST such that I don't have to create a custom .htaccess file for each host. Host-specific Example (snipped from .htaccess file) Redirect /terms http://support.dev01.example.com/articles/terms/ This example works fine for the development version running at dev01.example.com. If I use the same line in the main .htaccess file for the development version running under dev02.example.com I'd end up being redirected to the wrong place. Ideal rule (not sure of the correct syntax) Redirect /terms http://support.{HTTP_HOST}/articles/terms/ This rule does not work and merely serves as an example of what I'd like to achieve. I could then use the exact same rule under many different hosts and get the correct result. Answers? Can this be done with mod_alias or does it require the more complex mod_rewrite? How can this be achieved using mod_alias or mod_rewrite? I'd prefer a mod_alias solution if possible. Clarifications I'm not staying on the same server. I'd like: http://example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ http://dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ I'd like to be able to use the same rule in the .htaccess file on both example.com and dev.example.com. In this situation I'd need to be able to refer to the HTTP_HOST as a variable rather than specifying it literally in the URL to which requests are redirected. I'll investigate the HTTP_HOST parameter as suggested but was hoping for a working example.

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  • Retriving data from ListView control

    - by Josh
    I have a ListView control set up in details mode with 5 columns. It is populated by code using the following subroutine: For j = 0 To 14 cmd = New OleDbCommand("SELECT TeacherName, ClassSubject, BookingDate, BookingPeriod FROM " & SchemaTable.Rows(i)!TABLE_NAME.ToString() & " WHERE (((BookingDate)=" & Chr(34) & Date.Today.AddDays(j) & Chr(34) & ") AND ((UserName)=" & Chr(34) & user & Chr(34) & "));", cn) dr = cmd.ExecuteReader Dim itm As ListViewItem Dim itms(4) As String While dr.Read() itms(0) = dr(0) itms(1) = SchemaTable.Rows(i)!TABLE_NAME.ToString() itms(2) = dr(1) itms(3) = dr(2) itms(4) = dr(3) itm = New ListViewItem(itms) Manage.ManageList.Items.Add(itm) End While Next Note that this is not the full routine, just the bit that populated the grid. Now I need to retrieve data from the ListView control in order to delete a booking in my database. I used the following code to retrieve the content of each column: ManageList.SelectedItems(0).Text But it only seems to work on index 0. If I do: ManageList.SelectedItems(3).Text I get this error: InvalidArgument=Value of '3' is not valid for 'index'. Parameter name: index I'm pretty much stumped, it seems logical to me that index 1 will point to the 2nd column, index 2 to the 3rd etc, as it's 0 based? Any help would be appreciated, thanks.

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  • PHP Transferring Photos From One Oracle Database Table to Another

    - by Jonathan Swift
    I am attempting to transfer a set of photos (blobs) from one table to another across databases. I'm nearly there, except for binding the photo parameter. I have the following code: $conn_db1 = oci_pconnect('username', 'password', 'db1'); $conn_db2 = oci_pconnect('username', 'password', 'db2'); $parse_db1_select = oci_parse($conn_db1, "SELECT REF PID, BINARY_OBJECT PHOTOGRAPH FROM BLOBS"); $parse_db2_insert = oci_parse($conn_db2, "INSERT INTO PHOTOGRAPHS (PID, PHOTOGRAPH) VALUES (:pid, :photo)"); oci_execute($parse_db1_select); while ($row = oci_fetch_assoc($parse_db1_select)) { $pid = $row['PID']; $photo = $row['PHOTOGRAPH']; oci_bind_by_name($parse_db2_insert, ':pid', $pid, -1, OCI_B_INT); // This line causes an error oci_bind_by_name($parse_db_insert, ':photo', $photo, -1, OCI_B_BLOB); oci_execute($parse_db2_insert); } oci_close($db1); oci_close($db2); But I get the following error, on the error line commented above: Warning: oci_execute() [function.oci-execute]: ORA-03113: end-of-file on communication channel Process ID: 0 Session ID: 790 Serial number: 118 Does anyone know the right way to do this?

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  • Identifying the GeoPoint that trigger an onTap call

    - by Akroy
    I'm developing a Google Maps app on Android. I have a number of GeoPoints that I'm displaying by adding them as OverlayItems to an ItemizedOverlay. This works well for displaying them and bringing up a nice box when I click them, however I'm trying to put info in the box it brings up. Thus, I've extended ItemizedOverlay with my own class, and I'm overriding onTap (final GeoPoint p, final MapView mapView). At first I thought that this would be very simple, as one of the parameters is the GeoPoint, so I would know exactly which GeoPoint was clicked. However, from what I can tell, the GeoPoint argument there is the GeoPoint for where the user actually touched. Given the range the user can touch and still trigger the onTap, that GeoPoint isn't very helpful for knowing precisely which GeoPoint was actually touched. I'm currently checking the parameter GeoPoint against all my existing GeoPoints and seeing which it's closest to. This seems like a super hacky abstraction inversion. Is there a better way to know what was actually tapped?

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  • What good open source programs exist for fuzzing popular image file types?

    - by JohnnySoftware
    I am looking for a free, open source, portable fuzzing tool for popular image file types that is written in either Java, Python, or Jython. Ideally, it would accept specifications for the fuzzable fields using some kind of declarative constraints. Non-procedural grammar for specifying constraints are greatly preferred. Otherwise, might as well write them all in Python or whatever. Just specifying ranges of valid values or expressions for them. Ideally, it would support some kind of generative programming to export the fuzzer into various programming languages to suit cases where more customization was required. If it supported a direct-manipulation GUI for controlling parameter values and ranges, that would be nice too. The file formats that should be supported are: GIF JPEG PNG So basically, it should be sort of a toolkit consisting of ready-to-run utility, a framework or library, and be capable of generating the fuzzed files directly as well as from programs it generates. It needs to be simple so that test images can be created quickly. It should have a batch capability for creating a series of images. Creating just one at a time would be too painful. I do not want a hacking tool, just a QA tool. Basically, I just want to address concerns that it is taking too long to get commonplace image rendering/parsing libraries stable and trustworthy.

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  • PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

    - by Jason McCreary
    I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

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  • Can JMX operations take interfaces as parameters?

    - by Thor84no
    I'm having problems with an MBean that takes a Map<String, Object> as a parameter. If I try to execute it via JMX using a proxy object, I get an Exception: Caused by: javax.management.ReflectionException at org.jboss.mx.server.AbstractMBeanInvoker.invoke(AbstractMBeanInvoker.java:231) at org.jboss.mx.server.MBeanServerImpl.invoke(MBeanServerImpl.java:668) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to find operation updateProperties(java.util.HashMap) It appears that it attempts to use the actual implementation class rather than the interface, and doesn't check if this is a child of the required interface. The same thing happens for extended classes (for example declare HashMap, pass in LinkedHashMap). Does this mean it's impossible to use an interface for such methods? At the moment I'm getting around it by changing the method signature to accept a HashMap, but it seems odd that I wouldn't be able to use interfaces (or extended classes) in my MBeans. Edit: The proxy object is being created by an in-house utility class called JmxInvocationHandler. The (hopefully) relevant parts of it are as follows: public class JmxInvocationHandler implements InvocationHandler { ... public static <T> T createMBean(final Class<T> iface, SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { T newProxyInstance = (T) Proxy.newProxyInstance(iface.getClassLoader(), new Class[] { iface }, (InvocationHandler) new JmxInvocationHandler(properties, mbean, shHostID)); return newProxyInstance; } ... private JmxInvocationHandler(SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { this.mbeanName = mbean + MBEAN_SUFFIX + shHostID; msConfig = new MsConfiguration(properties.getHost(0), properties.getMSAdminPort(), properties.getMSUser(), properties.getMSPassword()); } ... public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { if (management == null) { management = ManagementClientStore.getInstance().getManagementClient(msConfig.getHost(), msConfig.getAdminPort(), msConfig.getUser(), msConfig.getPassword(), false); } final Object result = management.methodCall(mbeanName, method.getName(), args == null? new Object[] {} : args); return result; } }

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  • Pass scalar/list context to called subroutine

    - by Will
    I'm trying to write a sub that takes a coderef parameter. My sub does some initialization, calls the coderef, then does some cleanup. I need to call the coderef using the same context (scalar, list, void context) that my sub was called in. The only way I can think of is something like this: sub perform { my ($self, $code) = @_; # do some initialization... my @ret; my $ret; if (not defined wantarray) { $code->(); } elsif (wantarray) { @ret = $code->(); } else { $ret = $code->(); } # do some cleanup... if (not defined wantarray) { return; } elsif (wantarray) { return @ret; } else { return $ret; } } Obviously there's a good deal of redundancy in this code. Is there any way to reduce or eliminate any of this redundancy? EDIT   I later realized that I need to run $code->() in an eval block so that the cleanup runs even if the code dies. Adding eval support, and combining the suggestions of user502515 and cjm, here's what I've come up with. sub perform { my ($self, $code) = @_; # do some initialization... my $w = wantarray; return sub { my $error = $@; # do some cleanup... die $error if $error; # propagate exception return $w ? @_ : $_[0]; }->(eval { $w ? $code->() : scalar($code->()) }); } This gets rid of the redundancy, though unfortunately now the control flow is a little harder to follow.

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  • Send C++ Structure to MSMQ Message

    - by Gobalakrishnan
    Hi, I am trying to send the below structure through MSMQ Message typedef struct { char cfiller[7]; short MsgCode; char cfiller1[11]; short MsgLength; char cfiller2[2]; } MESSAGECODE; typedef struct { MESSAGECODE Header; char DealerId[16]; char GroupId[16]; long Token; short Periodicity; double Deposit; double GrossExposureLimit; double NetExposureLimit; double NetSaleExposureLimit; double NetPositionLimit; double TurnoverLimit; double PendingOrdersLimit; double MTMLossLimit; double MaxSingleTransValue; long MaxSingleTransQty; double IMLimit; long NetQuantityLimit; } LIMITUPDATE; void main() { // // create queue // open queue // send message // OleInitialize(NULL); // have to init OLE // // declare some variables // IMSMQQueueInfoPtr qinfo("MSMQ.MSMQQueueInfo"); IMSMQQueuePtr qSend; IMSMQMessagePtr m("MSMQ.MSMQMessage"); LIMITUPDATE l1; l1.Header.MsgCode=26001; l1.Header.MsgLength=150; qinfo->PathName = ".\\private$\\q99"; m->Body = l1; qSend = qinfo->Open(MQ_SEND_ACCESS, MQ_DENY_NONE); m->Send(qSend); qSend->Close(); } while compiling i am getting the following error. Error 2 error C2664: 'IMSMQMessage::PutBody' : cannot convert parameter 1 from 'LIMITUPDATE' to 'const _variant_t &' c:\temp\msmq\msmq.cpp 58 msmq thank you.

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  • Strange Sql Server 2005 behavior

    - by Justin C
    Background: I have a site built in ASP.NET with Sql Server 2005 as it's database. The site is the only site on a Windows Server 2003 box sitting in my clients server room. The client is a local school district, so for data security reasons there is no remote desktop access and no remote Sql Server connection, so if I have to service the database I have to be at the terminal. I do have FTP access to update ASP code. Problem: I was contacted yesterday about an issue with the system. When I looked in to it, it seems a bug that I had solved nearly a year ago had returned. I have a stored procedure that used to take an int as a parameter but a year ago we changed the structure of the system and updated the stored procedure to take an nvarchar(10). The stored procedure somehow changed back to taking an int instead of an nvarchar. There is an external hard drive connected to the server that copies data periodically and has the ability to restore the server in case of failure. I would have assumed that somehow an older version of the database had been restored, but data that I know was inserted 7 days and 1 day before the bug occurred is still in the database. Question: Is there anyway that the structure of a Sql Server 2005 database can revert to a previous version or be restored to a previous version without touching the actual data? No one else should have access to the server so I'm going a little insane trying to figure out how this even happened. Any ideas?

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  • JSP JPA Form: how to insert value in a path variable

    - by kajarigd
    I have the following code snippet in a jsp file: <hr> <form:form commandName="newTicketSale" id="reg" action="transactionResult.htm"> <h3>Buy Movie Tickets:</h3> <form:label path="movieName">Movie Name:</form:label> <form:input path="movieName" /> <form:errors class="invalid" path="movieName" /> <form:label path="ticketPrice">Ticket Price:</form:label> <form:input path="ticketPrice" /> <form:errors class="invalid" path="ticketPrice" /> <input type="submit"> <br><br> </form:form> I am using JPA tags in this jsp. Now, in the commandName "newTicketSale" there is another parameter called userId. In the jsp file itself I need to insert value ${name} in userId, so that in the Controller file when I am doing @Valid @ModelAttribute("newTicketSale") MovieTicket newTicket I can retrieve the value ${name} when I am doing newTicket.getUserId(). I don't know how to do this. Please help! Thanks in advance!

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  • .save puts NULL in id field in Rails

    - by mathee
    Here's the model file: class ProfileTag < ActiveRecord::Base def self.create_or_update(options = {}) id = options.delete(:id) record = find_by_id(id) || new record.id = id record.attributes = options puts "record.profile_id is" puts record.profile_id record.save! record end end This gives me the correct print out in my log. But it also says that there's a call to UPDATE that sets profile_id to NULL. Here's some of the output in the log file: Processing ProfilesController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-28 18:20:54) [PUT] Parameter: {"commit"=>"Save", ...} ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Create (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mINSERT INTO `profile_tags` (`reputation_value`, `updated_at`, `tag_id`, `id`, `profile_id`, `created_at`) VALUES(0, '2010-05-29 01:20:54', 1, NULL, 4, '2010-05-29 01:20:54')?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (2.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Load (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mSELECT * FROM `profile_tags` WHERE (`profile_tags`.profile_id = 4) ?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (1.0ms)?[0m ?[0mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Update (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mUPDATE `profile_tags` SET profile_id = NULL WHERE (profile_id = 4 AND id IN (35)) ?[0m I'm not sure I understand why the INSERT puts the value into profile_id properly, but then it sets it to NULL on an UPDATE. If you need more specifics, please let me know. I'm thinking that the save functionality does many things other than INSERTs into the database, but I don't know what I need to specify so that it will properly set profile_id.

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  • select option clears when page loads in php

    - by user79685
    Hey guys, the scenario is this: see select below <form name="limit"> <select name="limiter" onChange="limit(this.value)"> <option selected="selected">&nbsp;</option> <option value="5">5</option> <option value="10">10</option> <option value="15">15</option> </select> </form> I want whenever any option is selected for 3 things to happen: 1.) js limit() function is called which all it does its takes current url, adds new query parameter 'limit' with the user selected value eg: http://localhost/blahblah/apps/category.php?pg=1&catId=3021&limit=5 (this will cause the category.php page to be hit and # of product displayed limited to the value selected by user) 2.)Once the url is hit, it reloads but i DONT want the value selected to reset back to the default (which it currently does). I want it to reflect the users selection after page reload. 3.) Also, when i move to the next page (pagination), i would like the state to be carried ova to the next page (ie. remembering the user selection).

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  • IBM WESB/WAS JCA security configuration

    - by user594883
    I'm working with IBM tools. I have a Websphere ESB (WESB) and a CICS transaction gateway (CTG). The basic set-up is as follows: A SOAP service needs data from CICS. The SOAP-service is connecting to service bus (WESB) to handle data and protocol transformation and then WESB calls the CTG which in turn calls CICS and the reply is handled vice verse (synchronously). WESB calls the CTG using Resource Adapter and JCA connector (or CICS adapter as it is called in WESB). Now, I have all the pieces in place and working. My question is about the security, and even though I'm working with WESB, the answer is probably the same as in Websphere Application Server (WAS). The Resource Adaper is secured using JAAS - J2C authentication data. I have configured the security using J2C authentication data entry, so basically I have a reference in the application I'm running and at runtime the application does a lookup for the security attributes from the server. So basically I'm always accessing the CICS adapter with the same security reference. My problem is that I need to access the resource in more dynamic way in the future. The security cannot be welded into the application anymore but instead given as a parameter. Could some WESB or WAS guru help me out, how this could be done in WESB/WAS exactly?

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  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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  • App crashes frequently at time when UIActionSheet would be presented

    - by Jim Hankins
    I am getting the following error intermittently when a call is made to display an action sheet. Assertion failure in -[UIActionSheet showInView:] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid parameter not satisfying: view != nil' Now in this case I've not changed screens. The UIActionSheet is presented when a local notification is fired and I have an observer call a local method on this view as such: I have the property marked as strong. When the action sheet is dismissed I also set it to nil. I am using a story board for the UI. It's fairly repeatable to crash it, perhaps less than 5 tries. (Thankfully I have that going for me). Any suggestions what to try next? I'm really pulling my hair out on this one. Most of the issues I've seen on this topic are pointing to the crash occurring once the selection is made. In my case it's at presentation and intermittently. Also for what it's worth, this particular view is several stacks deep in an embedded navigation controller. Hometableviewdetail selectviewController in question. This same issue occurs so far in testing on iOS 5.1 and iOS 6. I'm presuming it's something to do with how the show InView is being targeted. self.actionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:@"Select Choice" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Not Yet" destructiveButtonTitle:@"Do this Now" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [self.actionSheet showInView:self.parentViewController.tabBarController.view];

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