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  • Prgramming jquery slider

    - by Mirage
    I want to program the jquery slider myself rather than using any plugin. But i want to know the basic idea. e.g I have <ul> <li> <div>content </div> </li> <li> <div>content </div> </li> <li> <div>content </div> </li> <li> <div>content </div> </li> <li> <div>content </div> </li> </ul> I want to show horzontally only three items at one time and there will be arroes left and right end. I know jquery basics. But i don't know how should i do in steps. I mean when click on right arrow The left div should slide left and new div com right should come left ANy ideas in sequence what i need to do

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  • Joining Tables Based on Foreign Keys

    - by maestrojed
    I have a table that has a lot of fields that are foreign keys referencing a related table. I am writing a script in PHP that will do the db queries. When I query this table for its data I need to know the values associated with these keys not the key. How do most people go about this? A 101 way to do this would be to query this table for its data including the foreign keys and then query the related tables to get each key's value. This could be a lot of queries (~10). Question 1: I think I could write 1 query with a bunch of joins. Would that be better? This approach also requires the querying script to know which table fields are foreign keys. Since I have many tables like this but all with different fields, this means writing nice generic functions is hard. MySQL InnoDB tables allow for foreign constraints. I know the database has these set up correctly. Question 2: What about the idea of querying the table and identifying what the constraints are and then matching them up using whatever process I decide on from Question 1. I like this idea but never see it being used in code. Makes me think its not a good idea for some reason. I would use something like SHOW CREATE TABLE tbl_name; to find what constraints/relationships exist for that table. Thank you for any suggestions or advice.

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  • Varchar columns: Nullable or not.

    - by NYSystemsAnalyst
    The database development standards in our organization state the varchar fields should not allow null values. They should have a default value of an empty string (""). I know this makes querying and concatenation easier, but today, one of my coworkers questioned me about why that standard only existed for varchar types an not other datatypes (int, datetime, etc). I would like to know if others consider this to be a valid, defensible standard, or if varchar should be treated the same as fields of other data types? I believe this standard is valid for the following reason: I believe that an empty string and null values, though technically different, are conceptually the same. An empty, zero length string is a string that does not exist. It has no value. However, a numeric value of 0 is not the same as NULL. For example, if a field called OutstandingBalance has a value of 0, it means there are $0.00 remaining. However, if the same field is NULL, that means the value is unknown. On the other hand, a field called CustomerName with a value of "" is basically the same as a value of NULL because both represent the non-existence of the name. I read somewhere that an analogy for an empty string vs. NULL is that of a blank CD vs. no CD. However, I believe this to be a false analogy because a blank CD still phyically exists and still has physical data space that does not have any meaningful data written to it. Basically, I believe a blank CD is the equivalent of a string of blank spaces (" "), not an empty string. Therefore, I believe a string of blank spaces to be an actual value separate from NULL, but an empty string to be the absense of value conceptually equivalent to NULL. Please let me know if my beliefs regarding variable length strings are valid, or please enlighten me if they are not. I have read several blogs / arguments regarding this subject, but still do not see a true conceptual difference between NULLs and empty strings.

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  • displaying a saved buffer in OpenGL ES

    - by Adam
    Hi everyone, So basically I have a screenshot that I've saved that I want to later display on the screen. I've saved it with: glReadPixels(0, 0, self.bounds.size.width, self.bounds.size.height, GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, savedBuffer); And later I'm trying to write it to the screen with: GLuint RenderedTex; glGenTextures(1, &RenderedTex); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, RenderedTex); glTexImage2D (GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, self.bounds.size.width, self.bounds.size.height, 0, GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, savedBuffer); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); I'm pretty new to OpenGL so I don't know if I'm doing things right... actually I know I'm not, because nothing shows up. Also not sure how to dispose of the texture when I'm done with it. Anyone know the correct way to do this? Edit: I think I might be having a problem loading the texture because it's not a power of 2, it's 320x480... also, I think this code is just loading the texture, but not drawing it, I'd need a call to glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 0, 4) in there somewhere...

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  • Designing a class in such a way that it doesn't become a "God object"

    - by devoured elysium
    I'm designing an application that will allow me to draw some functions on a graphic. Each function will be drawn from a set of points that I will pass to this graphic class. There are different kinds of points, all inheriting from a MyPoint class. For some kind of points it will be just printing them on the screen as they are, others can be ignored, others added, so there is some kind of logic associated to them that can get complex. How to actually draw the graphic is not the main issue here. What bothers me is how to make the code logic such that this GraphicMaker class doesn't become the so called God-Object. It would be easy to make something like this: class GraphicMaker { ArrayList<Point> points = new ArrayList<Point>(); public void AddPoint(Point point) { points.add(point); } public void DoDrawing() { foreach (Point point in points) { if (point is PointA) { //some logic here else if (point is PointXYZ) { //...etc } } } } How would you do something like this? I have a feeling the correct way would be to put the drawing logic on each Point object (so each child class from Point would know how to draw itself) but two problems arise: There will be kinds of points that need to know all the other points that exist in the GraphicObject class to know how to draw themselves. I can make a lot of the methods/properties from the Graphic class public, so that all the points have a reference to the Graphic class and can make all their logic as they want, but isn't that a big price to pay for not wanting to have a God class?

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  • Multiple inequality conditions (range queries) in NoSQL

    - by pableu
    Hi, I have an application where I'd like to use a NoSQL database, but I still want to do range queries over two different properties, for example select all entries between times T1 and T2 where the noiselevel is smaller than X. On the other hand, I would like to use a NoSQL/Key-Value store because my data is very sparse and diverse, and I do not want to create new tables for every new datatype that I might come across. I know that you cannot use multiple inequality filters for the Google Datastore (source). I also know that this feature is coming (according to this). I know that this is also not possible in CouchDB (source). I think I also more or less understand why this is the case. Now, this makes me wonder.. Is that the case with all NoSQL databases? Can other NoSQL systems make range queries over two different properties? How about, for example, Mongo DB? I've looked in the Documentation, but the only thing I've found was the following snippet in their docu: Note that any of the operators on this page can be combined in the same query document. For example, to find all document where j is not equal to 3 and k is greater than 10, you'd query like so: db.things.find({j: {$ne: 3}, k: {$gt: 10} }); So they use greater-than and not-equal on two different properties. They don't say anything about two inequalities ;-) Any input and enlightenment is welcome :-)

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  • Exception error in Erlang

    - by Jim
    So I've been using Erlang for the last eight hours, and I've spent two of those banging my head against the keyboard trying to figure out the exception error my console keeps returning. I'm writing a dice program to learn erlang. I want it to be able to call from the console through the erlang interpreter. The program accepts a number of dice, and is supposed to generate a list of values. Each value is supposed to be between one and six. I won't bore you with the dozens of individual micro-changes I made to try and fix the problem (random engineering) but I'll post my code and the error. The Source: -module(dice2). -export([d6/1]). d6(1) - random:uniform(6); d6(Numdice) - Result = [], d6(Numdice, [Result]). d6(0, [Finalresult]) - {ok, [Finalresult]}; d6(Numdice, [Result]) - d6(Numdice - 1, [random:uniform(6) | Result]). When I run the program from my console like so... dice2:d6(1). ...I get a random number between one and six like expected. However when I run the same function with any number higher than one as an argument I get the following exception... **exception error: no function clause matching dice2:d6(1, [4|3]) ... I know I I don't have a function with matching arguments but I don't know how to write a function with variable arguments, and a variable number of arguments. I tried modifying the function in question like so.... d6(Numdice, [Result]) - Newresult = [random:uniform(6) | Result], d6(Numdice - 1, Newresult). ... but I got essentially the same error. Anyone know what is going on here?

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  • How to create an array of buttons in C++

    - by mangoman13
    Hi, I'm using C++ in VS2005 and have an 8x8 grid of buttons on a form. I want to have these buttons in an array, so when I click on any of them it will open the same event handler (I think that is what they are called), but I will know the index of which one was clicked on. I know how to do this in VB and C#, but I can't seem to figure it out with C++ Right now I have all my buttons labelled by their location, i.e. b00, b10, b21, etc. So I think what I am looking for is a way to do something like this: Button b[8][8]; //this causes me errors (error C2728: 'System::Windows::Forms::Button' : a native array cannot contain this managed type) and (error C2227: left of '->{ctor}' must point to class/struct/union/generic type) void Assignment(){ b[0][0] = b00; b[1][0] = b10; ... } and then in form1.h: private: System::Void b_Click(System::Object^ sender, System::EventArgs^ e) { //somehow read the coordinates into variables x and y //do something based on these values } Any help would be appreciated. Also let me know if I am going in the complete wrong direction with this. Thanks!

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  • How to efficiently convert String, integer, double, datetime to binary and vica versa?

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm quite new to C# (I'm using .NET 4.0) so please bear with me. I need to save some object properties (their properties are int, double, String, boolean, datetime) to a file. But I want to encrypt the files using my own encryption, so I can't use FileStream to convert to binary. Also I don't want to use object serialization, because of performance issues. The idea is simple, first I need to somehow convert objects (their properties) to binary (array), then encrypt (some sort of xor) the array and append it to the end of the file. When reading first decrypt the array and then somehow convert the binary array back to object properties (from which I'll generate objects). I know (roughly =) ) how to convert these things by hand and I could code it, but it would be useless (too slow). I think the best way would be just to get properties' representation in memory and save that. But I don't know how to do it using C# (maybe using pointers?). Also I though about using MemoryStream but again I think it would be inefficient. I am thinking about class Converter, but it does not support toByte(datetime) (documentation says it always throws exception). For converting back I think the only options is class Converter. Note: I know the structure of objects and they will not change, also the maximum String length is also known. Thank you for all your ideas and time. EDIT: I will be storing only parts of objects, in some cases also parts of different objects (a couple of properties from one object type and a couple from another), thus I think that serialization is not an option for me.

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  • How to Detect in Windows Registry if user has .Net Framework installed?

    - by Sarah Weinberger
    How do I detect in the Windows Registry if a user has .Net Framework installed? I am not looking for a .Net based solution, as the query is from InnoSetup. I know from reading another post here on Stack Overflow that .Net Framework is an inplace upgrade to 4.0. I already know how to check if a user has version 4.0 installed on the system, namely by checking the following: function FindFramework(): Boolean; var bVer4x0: Boolean; bVer4x0Client: Boolean; bVer4x0Full: Boolean; bSuccess: Boolean; iInstalled: Cardinal; begin Result := False; bVer4x0Client := False; bVer4x0Full := False; bVer4x0 := RegKeyExists(HKLM, 'SOFTWARE\Microsoft\.NETFramework\policy\v4.0'); bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Client', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Client := True; bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Full', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Full := True; if (True = bVer4x0Full) then begin Result := True; end; end; I checked the registry and there is no v4.5 folder, which makes sense if .Net Framework 4.5 is an inplace upgrade. Still, the Control Panel Programs and Features includes the listing. I know that probably "issuing dotNetFx45_Full_setup.exe /q" will have no bad effect if installing on a system that already has version 4.5, but I still would like to not install the upgrade if the upgrade already exists, faster and less problems.

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  • How would I code a complex formula parser manually?

    - by StormianRootSolver
    Hm, this is language - agnostic, I would prefer doing it in C# or F#, but I'm more interested this time in the question "how would that work anyway". What I want to accomplish ist: a) I want to LEARN it - it's about my ego this time, it's for a fun project where I want to show myself that I'm a really good at this stuff b) I know a tiny little bit about EBNF (although I don't know yet, how operator precedence works in EBNF - Irony.NET does it right, I checked the examples, but this is a bit ominous to me) c) My parser should be able to take this: 5 * (3 + (2 - 9 * (5 / 7)) + 9) for example and give me the right results d) To be quite frankly, this seems to be the biggest problem in writing a compiler or even an interpreter for me. I would have no problem generating even 64 bit assembler code (I CAN write assembler manually), but the formula parser... e) Another thought: even simple computers (like my old Sharp 1246S with only about 2kB of RAM) can do that... it can't be THAT hard, right? And even very, very old programming languages have formula evaluation... BASIC is from 1964 and they already could calculate the kind of formula I presented as an example f) A few ideas, a few inspirations would be really enough - I just have no clue how to do operator precedence and the parentheses - I DO, however, know that it involves an AST and that many people use a stack So, what do you think?

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  • How to use Grails Spring Security Plugin to require logging in before access an action?

    - by Hoàng Long
    Hi all, I know that I can use annotation or Request mapping to restrict access to an ACTION by some specific ROLES. But now I have a different circumstance. My scenario is: every user of my site can create posts, and they can make their own post public, private, or only share to some other users. I implement sharing post by a database table PERMISSION, which specify if a user have the right to view a post or not. The problem arises here is that when a customer access a post through a direct link, how can I determine he/she have the privilege to view it? There's 3 circumstances: The post is public, so it can be viewed by anyone (include not-login user) The post is private, so only the login-owner can view it The post is sharing, it means only the login-user that is shared and the owner can view it. I want to process like this: If the requested post is public: ok. If the requested post is private/sharing: I want to redirect the customer to the login page; after logging in, the user will be re-direct to the page he wants to see. The problem here is that I can redirect the user to login controller/ auth action, but after that I don't know how to redirect it back. The link to every post is different by post_id, so I can't use SpringSecurityUtils.securityConfig.successHandler.defaultTargetUrl Could anyone know a way to do this?

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  • PHP Function needed for GENERIC sorting of a recordset array

    - by donbriggs
    Somebody must have come up with a solution for this by now. I wrote a PHP class to display a recordset as an HTML table/datagrid, and I wish to expand it so that we can sort the datagrid by whichever column the user selects. In the below example data, we may need to sort the recordset array by Name, Shirt, Assign, or Age fields. I will take care of the display part, I just need help with sorting the data array. As usual, I query a database to get a result, iterate throught he result, and put the records into an assciateiave array. So, we end up with an array of arrays. (See below.) I need to be able to sort by any column in the dataset. However, I will not know the column names at design time, nor will I know if the colums will be string or numeric values. I have seen a ton of solutions to this, but I have not seen a GOOD and GENERIC solution Can somebody please suggest a way that I can sort the recordset array that is GENERIC, and will work on any recordset? Again, I will not know the fields names or datatypes at design time. The array presented below is ONLY an example. Array ( [0] = Array ( [name] = Kirk [shrit] = Gold [assign] = Bridge ) [1] => Array ( [name] => Spock [shrit] => Blue [assign] => Bridge ) [2] => Array ( [name] => Uhura [shrit] => Red [assign] => Bridge ) [3] => Array ( [name] => Scotty [shrit] => Red [assign] => Engineering ) [4] => Array ( [name] => McCoy [shrit] => Blue [assign] => Sick Bay ) )

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  • Can I use foreign key restrictions to return meaningful UI errors with PHP

    - by Shane
    I want to start by saying that I am a big fan of using foreign keys and have a tendency to use them even on small projects to keep my database from being filled with orphaned data. On larger projects I end up with gobs of keys which end up covering upwards of 8 - 10 layers of data. I want to know if anyone could suggest a graceful way of handling 'expected errors' from the MySQL database in a way that I can construct meaningful messages for the end user. I will explain 'expected errors' with an example. Lets say I have a set of tables used for basic discussions: discussion questions responses users Hierarchically they would probably look something like this: -users --discussion ---questions ----responses When I attempt to delete a user the FKs will check discussions and if any discussion exist the deletion is restricted, deleting discussion checks questions, deleting questions checks responses. An 'expected error' in this case would be attempting to delete a user--unless they are newly created I can anticipate that one or more foreign keys will fail causing an error. What I WANT to do is to catch that error on deletion and be able to tell the end user something like 'We're sorry, but all discussions must be removed before you can delete this user...'. Now I know I can keep and maintain matching arrays in PHP and map specific errors to messages but that is messy and prone to becoming stagnant, or I could manually run a set of selects prior to attempting the deletion, but then I am doing just as much work as without using FKs. Any help here would be greatly appreciated, or if I am just looking at this completely wrong then please let me know. On a side note I generally use CodeIgniter for my application development, so if that would open up an avenue through that framework please consider that in your answers. Thanks in Advance

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  • Is C++ (one of) the best language to learn at first

    - by AlexV
    C++ is one of the most used programming language in the world since like 25+ years. My first job as programmer was in C++ and I coded in C++ everyday for nearly 4 years. Now I do mostly PHP, but I will forever cherish this C++ background. C++ has helped me understand many "under the hood" features/behaviors/restrictions of many other (and different) programming languages like PHP and Delphi. I'm a full time programmer for 6+ years now and since I have a quite varied programming background I often get questions by "newbies" as where to start to become a "good" programmer. I think C++ is one of the best language to start with because it gives you a real usefull experience that will last and will teach you how things work under the hood. It's not the easier one to learn for a newbie, but in my opinion it's one that will reward in the long term. I would like to know your opinion on this matter to add to my arguments when I guide "newbies". After this introduction, here's my question : Is C++ (one of) the best language to learn at first for you. Since it's subjective, I've marked this question as community wiki. EDIT: This question is not about why Java (or C# or any other language) is better than C++ to start with, it's about what's make C++ a good choice or not a good choice to learn as one of your firsts languages. For example, for me C++ made me understand how the memory works. Now today in many languages everything is managed by the garbadge collector and some people don't even know that. I'm glad I know how it works underneath and I think it can help you to write better code.

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  • Vertically Merge Multiple Tables in MySQL by Joint Primary Key

    - by world
    Hello, I'll attempt to make my question as clear as possible. I'm fairly unexperienced with SQL, only know the really basic queries. In order to have a better idea I'd been reading the MySQL manual for the past few days, but I couldn't really find a concrete solution and my needs are quite specific. I've got 3 MySQL MyISAM tables: table1, table2 and table3. Each table has an ID column (ID, ID2, ID3 respectively), and different data columns. For example table1 has [ID, Name, Birthday, Status, ...] columns, table2 has [ID2, Country, Zip, ...], table3 has [ID3, Source, Phone, ...] you get the idea. The ID, ID2, ID3 columns are common to all three tables... if there's an ID value in table1 it will also appear in table2 and table3. The number of rows in these tables is identical, about 10m rows in each table. What I'd like to do is create a new table that contains (most of) the columns of all three tables and merge them into it. The dates, for instance, must be converted because right now they're in VARCHAR YYYYMMDD format. Reading the MySQL manual I figured STR_TO_DATE() would do the job, but I don't know how to write the query itself in the first place so I have no idea how to integrate the date conversion. So basically, after I create the new table (which I do know how to do), how can I merge the three tables into it, integrating into the query the date conversion?

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  • How do I use Core Data with the Cocoa Text Input system?

    - by the Joel
    Hobbyist Cocoa programmer here. Have been looking around all the usual places, but this seems relatively under-explained: I am writing something a little out of the ordinary. It is much simpler than, but similar to, a desktop publishing app. I want editable text boxes on a canvas, arbitrarily placed. This is document-based and I’d really like to use Core Data. Now, The cocoa text-handling system seems to deal with a four-class structure: NSTextStorage, NSLayoutManager, NSTextContainer and finally NSTextView. I have looked into these and know how to use them, sort of. Have been making some prototypes and it works for simple apps. The problem arrives when I get into persistency. I don't know how to, by way of Cocoa Bindings or something else, store the contents of NSTextStorage (= the actual text) in my managed object context. I have considered overriding methods pairs like -words, -setWords: in these objects. This would let me link the words to a String, which I know how to store in Core Data. However, I’d have to override any method that affects the text - and that seems a little much. Thankful for any insights.

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  • How do I make VC++'s debugger break on exceptions?

    - by Mason Wheeler
    I'm trying to debug a problem in a DLL written in C that keeps causing access violations. I'm using Visual C++ 2008, but the code is straight C. I'm used to Delphi, where if an exception occurs while running under the debugger, the program will immediately break to the debugger and it will give you a chance to examine the program state. In Visual C++, though, all I get is a message in the Output tab: First-chance exception at blah blah blah: Access violation reading location 0x04410000. No breaks, nothing. It just goes and unwinds the stack until it's back in my Delphi EXE, which recognizes something's wrong and alerts me there, but by that point I've lost several layers of call stack and I don't know what's going on. I've tried other debugging techniques, but whatever it's doing is taking place deep within a nested loop inside a C macro that's getting called more than 500 times, and that's just a bit beyond my skill (or my patience) to trace through. I figure there has to be some way to get the "first-chance" exception to actually give me a "chance" to handle it. There's probably some "break immediately on first-chance exceptions" configuration setting I don't know about, but it doesn't seem to be all that discoverable. Does anyone know where it is and how to enable it?

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  • Manifesto for Integrated Development Environments

    - by Hugo S Ferreira
    Have you recently take a peek at Coda, or Espresso, or Textmate? Or even Google Chrome's Developer Tools? They are well designed, intuitive, interface rich, and extensible. But Coda, Espresso or Textmate, among several, are text editors, not IDEs. On the other side, VIM and Emacs live in the last century, and Eclipse is an overbloated platform. This is more like an outcry for a decent, common infrastructure for REAL IDEs. But there's some questions attached: (i) what features are needed for such a product and (ii) what products are out there that could fullfil this need, and what are they missing. So here's my draft for a manifesto: Manifesto for Integrated Development Environments: We favor interactivity and productivity over syntax and tools. We favor inline, contextual documentation over man and html files. We favor high-definition, graphic-capable color screens over 80x25 character terminals. We favor the use of advanced input schemas over unintuitive keyboard shortcuts. We favor a common, extensible and customizable infrastructure over unmaintained chaintools. We know the difference between search&replace and refactoring. We know the difference between integrated debugging support over a terminal window. We know the difference between semantic-aware code-completion over dumb textual templates. We favor the usage of standards like (E)BNF.

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  • Passing data between Drupal module callback, preprocess and template

    - by rob5408
    I've create a module called finder that I want to take parameters from a url, crunch them and then display results via a tpl file. here's the relevant functions... function finder_menu() { $items = array(); $items['finder'] = array( 'page callback' => 'finder_view', 'access callback' => TRUE, ); return $items; } function finder_theme($existing, $type, $theme, $path) { return array( 'finder_view' => array( 'variables' => array('providers' => null), 'template' => 'results', ), ); } function finder_preprocess_finder_view(&$variables) { // put my data into $variables } function finder_view($zipcode = null) { // Get Providers from Zipcode return theme('finder_view', $providers); } Now I know finder_view is being called. I also know finder_preprocess_finder_view is being called. Finally, I know that result.tpl.php is being used to output. But I cannot wrap my head around how to do meaningful work in the callback, somehow make that data available in the preprocessor to add to "variables" so that i can access in the tpl file. in a situation where you are using a tpl file is the callback even useful for anything? I've done this in the past where the callback does all the work and passes to a theming function, but i want to use a file for output instead this time. Thanks...

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  • Share Localization

    - by fop6316
    I was able to localize my Alfresco Model (+ constraints lists) by following these rules : http://wiki.alfresco.com/wiki/Data_Dictionary_Guide#Model_Localization But I would like to know if there is something similar for Share ? Do we only have to use the "label-id" attributes without worrying of any convention ? Is it better to use : label.companyName=Company name or something like sop_sopModel.field.sop_companyName.title=Company Name or anything else ? I didn't see any recommandation on the wiki. Here is an example of label-id's I don't know how to format. This is a part of my share-config-custom.xml file. I know this is not really important but I would like to do things properly. <config evaluator="aspect" condition="sop:company"> <forms> <form> <field-visibility> <show id="sop:companyName" /> <show id="sop:companyAddress" /> </field-visibility> <appearance> <set id="sopPanel" appearance="bordered-panel" label-id="???" /> <field id="sop:companyName" label-id="???" set="sopPanel" /> <field id="sop:companyAddress" label-id="???" set="sopPanel" /> </appearance> </form> </forms> </config> Thanks

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  • Using LINQ to map dynamically (or construct projections)

    - by CodeGrue
    I know I can map two object types with LINQ using a projection as so: var destModel = from m in sourceModel select new DestModelType {A = m.A, C = m.C, E = m.E} where class SourceModelType { string A {get; set;} string B {get; set;} string C {get; set;} string D {get; set;} string E {get; set;} } class DestModelType { string A {get; set;} string C {get; set;} string E {get; set;} } But what if I want to make something like a generic to do this, where I don't know specifically the two types I am dealing with. So it would walk the "Dest" type and match with the matching "Source" types.. is this possible? Also, to achieve deferred execution, I would want it just to return an IQueryable. For example: public IQueryable<TDest> ProjectionMap<TSource, TDest>(IQueryable<TSource> sourceModel) { // dynamically build the LINQ projection based on the properties in TDest // return the IQueryable containing the constructed projection } I know this is challenging, but I hope not impossible, because it will save me a bunch of explicit mapping work between models and viewmodels.

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  • Why should I care about RVM's Gemset feature when I use Bundler?

    - by t6d
    I just don't get it. I thought, Bundler was developed to resolve version conflicts between gems. So that I just have to require "bundler/setup" and everything is fine, knowing that Bundler will load the correct versions of all my gems and their dependencies. Now, RVM is great for managing multiple Rubies, I know, but why should I care about the Gemset feature? Do I miss something here? Can it make my development even easier? Maybe, some of you can give me some hints on the perfect RVM + Bundler workflow for both, development and production. I also don't know when RVM starts switching to another Ruby. I know that I can have an .rvmrc file in my project, but do I have to cd to this directory so that the switch happens? Furthermore, I usually use Passenger for development since, thanks to the Passenger.prefpane, integration in Mac OS is great. Can I still do that with RVM or is there a better way to do it? Does Passenger recognize .rvmrc files and switch to the correct Gemset?

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  • Android Cursor strange behaviour

    - by sandis
    After many houres of bug searching in a big app, I have finally tracked down the bug. This logging captures the problem: Log.d(TAG,"buildList, DBresult.getInt(1): "+DBresult.getInt(1)); Log.d(TAG,"buildList, DBresult.getString(1): "+DBresult.getString(1)); Log.d(TAG,"buildList, DBresult.getInt(4): "+DBresult.getInt(4)); Log.d(TAG,"buildList, DBresult.getString(4): "+DBresult.getString(4)); The resulting output: 05-06 11:11:20.123: DEBUG/TodoList(18943): buildList, DBresult.getInt(1): 0 05-06 11:11:20.123: DEBUG/TodoList(18943): buildList, DBresult.getString(1): false 05-06 11:11:20.123: DEBUG/TodoList(18943): buildList, DBresult.getInt(4): 0 05-06 11:11:20.123: DEBUG/TodoList(18943): buildList, DBresult.getString(4): true There are no backgroung threads running. As you can see the problem is that '0' is interpreted as false on one occasion, and as true on another. Since I am completely lost on how this can happen, I dont know how to proceed. What could possibly result in such a behaviour? Both the columns are of the type "boolean", i.e a numeric in sqlite. Unfortunately the string returned is the correct value, while the integer is always 0. If I export the database to my computer and check it with SQlite Administrator I can see that the values are correctly set, it is only the getInt()-function that always returns 0. I know for a fact that this works in other apps I have coded, and I dont know why this has stopped working. I have tried compiling the code under 2.0, 2.0.1 and 2.1, and it always appears. I can make my app runnable again by getting boolean values like this: myBool= (DBresult.getString(0).equals("true")); but that is both ugly and not optimized. Any suggestions on what is causing this behaviour is welcome. Cheers,

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  • How to build a simulation of a login hardware token in .Net

    - by Michel
    Hi, i have a hardware token for remote login to some citrix environment. When i click the button on the device, i get an id and i can use that to login to the citrix farm. I can click the button as much as i like, and every time a new code gets generated, and they all work. Now i want to secure my private website likewise, but not with the hardware token, but with a 'token app' on my phone. So i run an app on my phone, generate a key, and use that to (partly) authenticate myself on the server. But here's the point: i don't know how it works! How can i generate 1, 2 or 100 keys at one time which i can see (on the server) are all valid, but without the server and the phone app having contact (the hardware token also is an 'offline' solution). Can you help me with a hint how i would do this? This is what i thought of so far: the phone app and the server app know (hardcoded) the same encryption key. The phone app encrypts the current time. The server app decrypts the string to the current time and if the diff between that time and the actual server time is less than 10 minutes it's an ok. Difficult for other users to fake a key, but encryption gives such nasty strings to enter, and the hardware token gives me nice things like 'H554TU8' And this is probably not how the real hardware token works, because the server and the phone app must 'know' the same encryption key. Michel

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