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  • Subsonic 3.0.0.4 Does not Update

    - by geocine
    I tried 3 variants but doesn't seem to update (I am using Linq Templates and MSSQL) Luna.Data.GameDBDB db = new Luna.Data.GameDBDB(); db.Update<Luna.Record.TB_ITEM>() .Set(x => x.ITEM_DURABILITY == Convert.ToInt32(quantity)) .Where(x => x.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbdidx)) .Execute(); Here is the other one var db = new Luna.Data.GameDBDB(); var query = (from p in db.TB_ITEMS where p.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbidx) select p).Single(); query.ITEM_DURABILITY = Convert.ToInt32(quantity); db.tp TP_ITEM_UPDATE(); and the other one var db = new Luna.Data.GameDBDB(); var query = (from p in db.TB_ITEMS where p.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbidx) select p).Single(); query.ITEM_DURABILITY = Convert.ToInt32(quantity); db.Update<Luna.Data.TB_ITEM>(); However it worked using LINQ-to-SQL LunaDataContext db = new LunaDataContext(); var query = (from p in db.TB_ITEMs where p.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbidx) select p).Single(); query.ITEM_DURABILITY = Convert.ToInt32(quantity); db.SubmitChanges(); Is this a bug in 3.0.0.4, the database record couldn't be updated using Linq Templates and ActiveRecord.

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  • UINavigationController crash because of pushing and poping UIViewControllers

    - by Wayne Lo
    My question is related to my discovery of a reason for UINavigationController to crash. So I will tell you about the discovery first. Please bare with me. The issue: I have a UINavigationController as as subview of UIWindow, a rootViewController class and a custom MyViewController class. The following steps will get a Exc_Bad_Access, 100% reproducible.: [myNaviationController pushViewController:myViewController_1stInstance animated:YES]; [myNaviationController pushViewController:myViewController_2ndInstance animated:YES]; Hit the left back tapBarItem twice (pop out two of the myViewController instances) to show the rootViewController. After a painful 1/2 day of try and error, I finally figure out the answer but also raise a question. The Solutio: I declared many objects in the .m file as a lazy way of declaring private variables to avoid cluttering the .h file. For instance, #impoart "MyViewController.h" NSMutableString*variable1; @implement ... -(id)init { ... varialbe1=[[NSMutableString alloc] init]; ... } -(void)dealloc { [variable1 release]; } For some reasons, the iphone OS may loose track of these "lazy private" variables memory allocation when myViewController_1stInstance's view is unloaded (but still in the navigation controller's stacks) after loading the view of myViewController_2ndInstance. The first time to tap the back tapBarItem is ok since myViewController_2ndInstance'view is still loaded. But the 2nd tap on the back tapBarItem gave me hell because it tried to dealloc the 2nd instance. Executing [variable release] resulted in Exc_Bad_Access because it pointed randomly (loose pointer). To fix this problem is simple, declare variable1 as a @private in the .h file. Here is my Question: I have been using the "lazy private" variables for quite some time without any issues until they are involved in UINavigationController. Is this a bug in iPhone OS? Or there is a fundamental misunderstanding on my part about Objective C? Please help.

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  • Uploadify - Passing Information Back to The Original Form

    - by CccTrash
    I have an Send.aspx page that has an uploadify control on it. Upload.ashx handles the file upload. I am adding a file record to a sql database in the Upload.ashx file and I need to get the ID of that record back from Upload.aspx when it is done. Can't get it working with Sessions. =( Something to do with an Adobe bug? What would the best way to handle this be? Here is the uploadify control: <script type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ var contestID = $('[id$=HiddenFieldContestID]').val(); var maxEntries = $('[id$=HiddenFieldMaxEntries]').val(); var userID = $('[id$=HiddenFieldUserID]').val(); $(document).ready(function() { $('#fileInput').uploadify({ 'uploader': '../uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'script': '../uploadify/Upload.ashx', 'scriptData': { 'contestID': contestID, 'maxEntries': maxEntries, 'userID': userID }, 'cancelImg': '../uploadify/cancel.png', 'auto': true, 'multi': false, 'fileDesc': 'Image Files', 'fileExt': '*.jpg;*.png;*.jpeg', 'queueSizeLimit': 1, 'sizeLimit': 4000000, 'buttonText': 'Choose Image', 'folder': '/uploads', 'onAllComplete': function(event, queueID, fileObj, response, data) { document.getElementById('<%= ButtonCleanup.ClientID %>').click(); } }); }); // ]]></script> Edit: See Answer below... Video Tutorial from start to finish: http://casonclagg.com/articles/6/video-tutorial-uploadify-asp-net-c-sharp.aspx

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  • function to get the file name of an URL

    - by user262325
    Hello everyone I have some source code to get the file name of an url for example: http://www.google.com/a.pdf I hope to get a.pdf because the way to join 2 NSStrings I can get is 'appendString' which only for adding a string at right side, so I planned to check each char one by one from the right side of string 'http://www.google.com/a.pdf', when it reach at the char '/', stop the checking, return string fdp.a , after that I change fdp.a to a.pdf source codes are below -(NSMutableString *) getSubStringAfterH : originalString:(NSString *)s0 { NSInteger i,l; l=[s0 length]; NSMutableString *h=[[NSMutableString alloc] init]; NSMutableString *ttt=[[NSMutableString alloc] init ]; for(i=l-1;i>=0;i--) //check each char one by one from the right side of string 'http://www.google.com/a.pdf', when it reach at the char '/', stop { ttt=[s0 substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; if([ttt isEqualToString:@"/"]) { break; } else { [h appendString:ttt]; } } [ttt release]; //below are to change the sequence of char in h // txt.edcba -> abcde.txt NSMutableString *h1=[[[NSMutableString alloc] initWithFormat:@""] autorelease]; for (i=[h length]-1;i>=0;i--) { NSMutableString *t1=[[NSMutableString alloc] init ]; t1=[h substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; [h1 appendString:t1]; [t1 release]; } [h release]; return h1; } h1 can reuturn the coorect string a.pdf, but if it returns to the codes where it was called, after a while system reports 'double free * set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug' I checked a long time and foudn that if I removed the code ttt=[s0 substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; everything will be Ok (of course getSubStringAfterH can not returns the corrent result I expected.), no error reported. I try to fix the bug a few hours, but still no clue. Welcome any comment Thanks interdev

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  • Changes in resolving .resx in Visual Studio 2010?

    - by MADMap
    Hi, I'm working on a quite simple Webpage (MVC2), using localisation based on ResourceFiles. I have the MVC2 Project and the Resources in a seperate Assembly. The Resources contains 3 languages (Resource.resx, Resource.de.resx, Resource.en.resx, Resource.ja.resx) and I'm querying them via the ResourceManager. Call from the .aspx <% Resources.Res resman = new Resources.Res(); %> <%=resman.GetString("String1", new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("en")) %><br /> <%=resman.GetString("String1", new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("ja")) %><br /> <%=resman.GetString("String1", new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("de")) %><br /> ResourceManager: public class Res { private readonly ResourceManager Manager = Resources.Resource1.ResourceManager; public string GetString(string id, CultureInfo info) { return Manager.GetString(id, info); } } And for the compiled Version in VS2008 I get smth like this: String1EN String1JA String1DE Compiled in Visual Studio 2008, this works fine: but I'm having Troubles if I compile the Solution in Visual Studio 2010 (also 3.5 as TargetFramework). There the result shows smth like: String1DEFAULT String1JA String1DEFAULT I don't know what it can be: is this still a bug from the VS2010 RC or am I doing smth. wrong here?

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  • Updating textfield in doctrine produces an exception

    - by james-murphy
    I have a textfield that contains say for example the following text:- "A traditional English dish comprising sausages in Yorkshire pudding batter, usually served with vegetables and gravy." This textfield is in a form that simply updates an item record using it's ID. If I edit part of the textfield and replace "and gravy." with "humous." So that the textfield now contains "A traditional English dish comprising sausages in Yorkshire pudding batter, usually served with vegetables and humous." I get the following exception:- Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Doctrine_Query_Exception' with message 'Unknown component alias humous' in C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php:780 Stack trace: C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(767): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-getQueryComponent('humous') C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Set.php(58): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-getAliasDeclaration('humous') C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(2092): Doctrine_Query_Set-parse('i.details = 'A ...') C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query.php(1058): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-_processDqlQueryPart('set', Array) C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(971): Doctrine_Query-getSqlQuery(Array) C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(1030): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-_execute(Array) C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\appl in C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php on line 780 I'm using Doctrine 1.0.6 hooked into CodeIgniter 1.7.0 if anyone is interested. My doctrine query that actually performs the update looks as follows:- public function updateItems($id, $arrayItem) { $query = new Doctrine_Query(); $query->update('Item i'); foreach($arrayItem as $key => $value) { $query->set('i.'.$key, "'".$value."'"); } $query->where('i.id = ?', $id); return $query->execute(); } This seems bizarre because if i replace the entire string "A traditional English dish comprising sausages in Yorkshire pudding batter, usually served with vegetables and humous." with something completely different like just "test" it doesn't throw an exception and works just fine. This baffles me... is it a bug in Doctrine or have I missed something?

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  • Problem with Java Applet <--> Javascript communication

    - by davr
    I'm having trouble getting a Java Applet to communicate with the Javascript code on the page the applet is hosted on. It works sometimes, but othertimes it throws an obscure exception, that googling for has not turned up any useful information, besides a few Java bug reports that were never resolved (thanks Sun). Here is the code I am using: JSObject win = JSObject.getWindow(this); Object[] args = new Object[1]; args[0] = "test argument"; String result = (String) win.call("testJSfunc", args); // XXX Here is the exception I get on the line marked // XXX. Note that it is intermittent. Often it works, but sometimes it does not, using the same exact code. Reloading the page repeatedly will produce the error pretty quickly. netscape.javascript.JSException: No registered plugin for applet ID 1 at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.newJSException(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.waitForReply(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.call(Unknown Source) at TestApplet.testCallJS(TestApplet.java:159) at TestApplet.init(TestApplet.java:139) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager$AppletExecutionRunnable.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Is there another more stable way of communicating between Java and Javascript that I should be using?

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  • Linq-to-sql Compiled Query returns object NOT belonging to submitted DataContext ?

    - by Vladimir Kojic
    Compiled query: public static class Machines { public static readonly Func<OperationalDataContext, short, Machine> QueryMachineById = CompiledQuery.Compile((OperationalDataContext db, short machineID) => db.Machines.Where(m => m.MachineID == machineID).SingleOrDefault() ); public static Machine GetMachineById(IUnitOfWork unitOfWork, short id) { Machine machine; // Old code (working) //var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); //machine = machineRepository.Find(m => m.MachineID == id).SingleOrDefault(); // New code (making problems) machine = QueryMachineById(unitOfWork.DataContext, id); return machine; } It looks like compiled query is returning result from another data context [TestMethod] public void GetMachinesTest() { using (var unitOfWork = IoC.Get<IUnitOfWork>()) { // Compile Query var machine = Machines.GetMachineById(unitOfWork, 3); } using (var unitOfWork = IoC.Get<IUnitOfWork>()) { var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); // Get From Repository var machineFromRepository = machineRepository.Find(m => m.MachineID == 2).SingleOrDefault(); var machine = Machines.GetMachineById(unitOfWork, 2); VerifyHuskyHostMachine(machineFromRepository, 2, "Machine 2", "222222", "H400RS", "MachineIconB.xaml", false, true, LicenseType.Licensed, InterfaceType.HuskyHostV2, "10.0.97.2:8080", "10.0.97.2", 8080, "4.0"); VerifyHuskyHostMachine(machine, 2, "Machine 2", "222222", "H400RS", "MachineIconB.xaml", false, true, LicenseType.Licensed, InterfaceType.HuskyHostV2, "10.0.97.2:8080", "10.0.97.2", 8080, "4.0"); Assert.AreSame(machineFromRepository, machine); // FAIL } } If I run other (complex) unit tests I'm getting as expected: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. Another Important information is that this test is under TransactionScope! UPDATE: It looks like next link is describing similar problem (is this bug solved ?): http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/linqprojectgeneral/thread/9bcffc2d-794e-4c4a-9e3e-cdc89dad0e38

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  • Google Maps API DirectionsRendererOptions not working?

    - by YWE
    I am trying to use DirectionsRenderer to display a DirectionsResult without the route list. According to the API version 3 documentation, there is a "hideRouteList" property of the DirectionsRendererOptions object that when set to true should hide the route list. I cannot get it to work. Is this a bug or am I just not coding this correctly? Following is my code. <html> <head> <title>Driving Directions</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false"> </script> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- function initialize() { var dirService = new google.maps.DirectionsService(); var dirRequest = { origin: "350 5th Ave, New York, NY, 10118", destination: "1 Wall St, New York, NY", travelMode: google.maps.DirectionsTravelMode.DRIVING, unitSystem: google.maps.DirectionsUnitSystem.IMPERIAL, provideTripAlternatives: true }; dirService.route(dirRequest, showDirections); } function showDirections(dirResult, dirStatus) { if (dirStatus != google.maps.DirectionsStatus.OK) { alert('Directions failed: ' + dirStatus); return; } var rendererOptions = { hideRouteList: true }; var dirRenderer = new google.maps.DirectionsRenderer(rendererOptions); dirRenderer.setPanel(document.getElementById('dir-container')); dirRenderer.setDirections(dirResult); } --> </script> </head> <body onLoad="initialize();"> <div id="dir-container"></div> </body> </html>

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  • Android Camera without Preview

    - by eyurdakul
    I am writing an android 1.5 application which starts just after boot-up. This is a service and should take a picture without preview. This app will log the light density in some areas whatever. I was able to take a picture but the picture was black. After googling like crazy, i came across a bug thread about it. If you don't generate a preview, the image will be black since android camera needs preview to setup exposure and focus. I've created a surfaceview and listener but the onSurfaceCreated event never gets fired. I guess the reason is, the surface is not being created visually. I've also seen some examples of calling the camera statically with MediaStore.CAPTURE_OR_SOMETHING which takes a picture and saves in the desired folder with two lines of code but it doesn't take a picture too. Do i need to use ipc and bindservice to call this function or do you have any suggestion to achieve my goal (taking a picture without preview) and if so, would you give me a small piece of code as example?

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  • IPhone SDK - Transition to NavigationController display problem

    - by Steblo
    Hi, I am nearly finished with my first IPhone app and everything works fine - except of one very little display bug: My starscreen is an UIView (Fullscreen) without Navigationbar or Toolbar. If I tap on a start button, there is an UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromRight animation that flips to the main navigation controller: -(IBAction) switchViewToMainMenu { [UIView beginAnimations:@"Flip View" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.25]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; [UIView setAnimationTransition: UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromRight forView:self.window cache:YES]; [self.navController viewWillAppear:YES]; [self.startScreenViewController viewWillDisappear:YES]; [self.startScreenViewController.view removeFromSuperview]; [self.window addSubview:navController.view]; [self.startScreenViewController viewDidDisappear:YES]; [self.navController viewDidAppear:YES]; [UIView commitAnimations]; self.startScreenViewController=nil; [startScreenViewController release]; } This works fine except of one little problem: When the navigation controller view appears (flips in), the Navigationbar on top is some pixels too high (the is a white bar where the Navigationbar should be). When the animation finished, the Navigationbar drops down to the right position. This doesn't look very beautiful... Any ideas how to fix that problem ?

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  • UIAlertViewDelegate method didDismissWithButtonIndex gets called while the phone is sleeping/locked.

    - by Rob
    I have a UIAlertView who's didDismissWithButtonIndex delegate method calls pops the view controller (same class, it's the alertview delegate and the viewcontroller) to return the user to the previous screen. The issue is that when you lock the phone before the [alert show]; is called, something is calling didDismissWithButtonIndex while the phone is locked. Since the response to that is to pop the view controller, which releases and deallocs it, I crash on the callback. What is causing this phantom button press? Seems like a framework bug, but I hate jumping to that conclusion. I'm definitely not hitting the button, because I hit a breakpoint in my code right before it's displayed. Then I lock the phone. Then I continue. I see it do the show, return to the event loop, and then, while the phone is still locked, hit my breakpoint in didDismissWithButtonIndex. There are a few internet/forum postings about similar spurious delegate calls, but no concrete answers. This is on the simulator, and the device, both OS 2.2 and OS 3.0. I'm assuming I'm missing something, but what? Update: Yeah, I created a simple project with just two view controllers, where when the 2nd view controller displays it creates the alert, and shows it. Then I NSLog in the delegate method, and when the phone is locked, it fires once while locked, and then again when it's unlocked and the button is clicked...2 log messages. But when not locked, there's only one. I guess I'll open an issue, but it seems awfully obvious to have survived this long without anyone complaining. :-) I'm going to try and work around it by making an isActive flag value when the willResignActive/didBecomeActive notifications arrive, and if the app isn't active skipping the delegate body. Update I went ahead in July after I posted this and created radar 7097363 for this issue. There's been no response. The workaround in practice works quite well, checking the active status when processing the delegate, and skipping the action if the the app is inactive.

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  • Firefox -- Dynamically embedding <svg> element in SVG

    - by zourtney
    I am trying dynamically to append an <svg> element within an existing SVG island on an XHTML page (Firefox 3.6.3). Done manually, this works as expected: <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> ... </svg> </svg> However, if you dynamically add this element using JavaScript, the browser crashes. Simple example: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:svg="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> <head> <title>SVG island example</title> <script type="text/javascript"><![CDATA[ function crash( ) { svgs = document.getElementsByTagNameNS( "http://www.w3.org/2000/svg", "svg" ); for ( var i = 0; i < svgs.length; i++ ) { var e = document.createElementNS( "http://www.w3.org/2000/svg", "svg" ); svgs[i].appendChild( e ); } } ]]></script> </head> <body> <svg id="mySVG" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> </svg> <button onclick="crash()">Crash Firefox</button> </body> </html> Interestingly, if I do a getElementById, it works fine. Interesting, but not particularly helpful in my situation since I'm storing pointers to SVGDocuments. Example: function doesntCrash( ) { var svg = document.getElementById( "mySVG" ); var e = document.createElementNS( "http://www.w3.org/2000/svg", "svg" ); svg.appendChild( e ); } As far as I can tell, this is a Firefox bug. Does anyone have any insight into this matter?

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  • Explicit behavior with checks vs. implicit behavior

    - by Silviu
    I'm not sure how to construct the question but I'm interested to know what do you guys think of the following situations and which one would you prefer. We're working at a client-server application with winforms. And we have a control that has some fields automatically calculated upon filling another field. So we're having a field currency which when filled by the user would determine an automatic filling of another field, maybe more fields. When the user fills the currency field, a Currency object would be retrieved from a cache based on the string introduced by the user. If entered currency is not found in the cache a null reference is returned by the cache object. Further down when asking the application layer to compute the other fields based on the currency, given a null currency a null specific field would be returned. This way the default, implicit behavior is to clear all fields. Which is the expected behavior. What i would call the explicit implementation would be to verify that the Currency object is null in which case the depending fields are cleared explicitly. I think that the latter version is more clear, less error prone and more testable. But it implies a form of redundancy. The former version is not as clear and it implies a certain behavior from the application layer which is not expressed in the tests. Maybe in the lower layer tests but when the need arises to modify the lower layers, so that given a null currency something else should be returned, i don't think a test that says just that without a motivation is going to be an impediment for introducing a bug in upper layers. What do you guys think?

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  • Partial specialization with reference template parameter fails to compile in VS2005

    - by Blair Holloway
    I have code that boils down to the following: template struct Foo {}; template & I struct FooBar {}; //////// template struct Baz {}; template & I struct Baz< FooBar { static void func(FooBar& value); }; //////// struct MyStruct { static const Foo s_floatFoo; }; // Elsewhere: const Foo MyStruct::s_floatFoo; void callBaz() { typedef FooBar FloatFooBar; FloatFooBar myFloatFooBar; Baz::func(myFloatFooBar); } This compiles successfully under GCC, however, under VS2005, I get: error C2039: 'func' : is not a member of 'Baz' with [ T=FloatFooBar ] error C3861: 'func': identifier not found However, if I change const Foo<T>& I to const Foo<T>* I (passing I by pointer rather than by reference), and defining FloatFooBar as: typedef FooBar FloatFooBar; Both GCC and VS2005 are happy. What's going on? Is this some kind of subtle template substitution failure that VS2005 is handling differently to GCC, or a compiler bug? (The strangest thing: I thought I had the above code working in VS2005 earlier this morning. But that was before my morning coffee. I'm now not entirely certain I wasn't under some sort of caffeine-craving-induced delirium...)

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  • How can I debug why this click handler never fires?

    - by tixrus
    I am going to be excrutiatingly detailed here. I am using Firefox 3.6.3 on Max OSX with Firebug 1.5.3. I have two versions of a project, one which works and one with a bug. One I downloaded and one I typed by hand. Take a guess which one doesn't work. They should be the same except that mine uses a newer version of jQuery and the files are named differently. jQuery version is not the issue. I made mine use the older jquery and I made the working one use the newer jquery. Either way, mine still broke and the downloaded one still works. I've busted my eyes trying to see how these projects are different. The only thing I don't want to do is copy the working code to the busted code because I need to be able to figure this stuff out when it is my own unique code causing similar issues. There are no errors that I can see in Firebug in my code, in fact, 2/3 of it works just fine. just the second button does nothing. So I wanted to step through. These are always eyeball errors and I really suck at seeing them. I put it on a public server. http://colleenweb.com/jqtests/ex71.html And I want to debug ex71.js If you firebug the working one and set a break point at line 13 in ex71.js the variable json has the expected values when you click on the second button. But If you firebug this one, it never gets there. I've been over the html and all the names of everything seem to match up. I also wonder why the buttons aren't right justified but that's a css thing. Please tell me what I'm missing, and more importantly, what tool/technique I could use to find these types of bugs.

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  • javascript removeChild(this) from input[type="submit"] onclick breaks future use of form.submit() un

    - by maximumduncan
    I have come across some strange behaviour, and I'm assuming a bug in firefox, when removing a input submit element from the DOM from within the click event. The following code reproduces the issue: <form name="test_form"> <input type="submit" value="remove me" onclick="this.parentNode.removeChild(this);" /> <input type="submit" value="submit normally" /> <input type="button" value="submit via js" onclick="document.test_form.submit();" /> </form> To reproduce: Click "remove me" Click "submit via js". Note that the form does not get submitted, this is the problem. Click "submit normally". Note that the form still gets submitted normally. It appears that, under Firefox, if you remove a submit button from within the click event it puts the form in an invalid state so that any future calls to form.submit() are simply ignored. But it is a javascript-specific issue as normal submit buttons within this form still function fine. To be honest, this is such a simple example of this issue that I was expecting the internet to be awash with other people exeriencing it, but so far searching has yealded nothing useful. Has anyone else experienced this and if so, did you get to the bottom of it? Many thanks

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  • is it possible to add DataRelation to DataSet if child table contains rows that have no parent in pa

    - by matti
    If I fill the DataSet with DataAdapters that select all rows from Orders and Customers and call: private void CreateRelation() { // Get the DataColumn objects from two DataTable objects // in a DataSet. Code to get the DataSet not shown here. DataColumn parentColumn = DataSet1.Tables["Customers"].Columns["CustID"]; DataColumn childColumn = DataSet1.Tables["Orders"].Columns["CustID"]; // Create DataRelation. DataRelation relCustOrder; relCustOrder = new DataRelation("CustomersOrders", parentColumn, childColumn); // Add the relation to the DataSet. DataSet1.Relations.Add(relCustOrder); } (from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.data.datarelation.aspx) there will be a runtime error if there is orders that do not have customers. This might happen when a buggy program has not deleted customer's orders when customer was deleted. What can I do except put Orders select string a additional where-condition: CUSTID IN (SELECT DISTINCT CUSTID FROM CUSTOMERS) OR: is it really that way (that all children have to have parents)? My code might have a bug also. The exception occurs when IN MY CODE I add the relation to filled DataSet. The exception is: An unhandled exception of type 'System.ArgumentException' occurred in System.Data.dll Additional information: This constraint cannot be enabled as not all values have corresponding parent values. Thanks & Best Regards - Matti

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  • Whats wrong with this HQL query?

    - by ManBugra
    did i encounter a hibernate bug or do i have an error i dont see: select enty.number from EntityAliasName enty where enty.myId in ( select cons.myId from Consens cons where cons.number in ( select ord.number from Orders ord where ord.customer = :customer and ord.creationDate < ( select max(ord.creationDate) from Orders ord where ord.customer = :customer ) ) ) what i do get is the following: org.hibernate.util.StringHelper.root(StringHelper.java:257) Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at org.hibernate.util.StringHelper.root(StringHelper.java:257) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.getSubclassPropertyTableNumber(AbstractEntityPersister.java:1391) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.BasicEntityPropertyMapping.toColumns(BasicEntityPropertyMapping.java:54) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.toColumns(AbstractEntityPersister.java:1367) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.FromElement.getIdentityColumn(FromElement.java:320) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.IdentNode.resolveAsAlias(IdentNode.java:154) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.IdentNode.resolve(IdentNode.java:100) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.FromReferenceNode.resolve(FromReferenceNode.java:117) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.FromReferenceNode.resolve(FromReferenceNode.java:113) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.HqlSqlWalker.resolve(HqlSqlWalker.java:854) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.propertyRef(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:1172) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.propertyRefLhs(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:5167) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.propertyRef(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:1133) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.selectExpr(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:1993) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.selectExprList(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:1932) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.selectClause(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:1476) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.query(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:580) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.selectStatement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:288) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.statement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:231) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.analyze(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:254) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.doCompile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:185) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.compile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:136) at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.<init>(HQLQueryPlan.java:101) at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.<init>(HQLQueryPlan.java:80) at org.hibernate.engine.query.QueryPlanCache.getHQLQueryPlan(QueryPlanCache.java:94) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.checkNamedQueries(SessionFactoryImpl.java:484) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.<init>(SessionFactoryImpl.java:394) at org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration.buildSessionFactory(Configuration.java:1341) using: Hibernate 3.3.2.GA / postgresql

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  • Setting up multiple channel types (AMF/AMFX) for Flex/BlazeDs

    - by Fergal
    We've configured our Flex client to have two channels for calling our services via BlazeDS. One channel is configured to use AMFChannel and the other for HTTPChannel. Here's the services-config.xml <channel-definition id="my-amf" class="mx.messaging.channels.AMFChannel"> <endpoint url="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/data/messagebroker/amf" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.AMFEndpoint" /> <properties> <polling-enabled>false</polling-enabled> </properties> </channel-definition> <channel-definition id="my-amfx" class="mx.messaging.channels.HTTPChannel"> <endpoint url="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/data/messagebroker/amfx" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.HTTPEndpoint" /> <properties> <polling-enabled>false</polling-enabled> </properties> </channel-definition> Our flex client is written to use either AMF or AMFX depending on how we configure it. The problem is that although the client can switch between channels it sends an AMF binary payload when attempting to call services via AMFX (expecting XML). The funny thing is that we can write services-config.xml to use either AMF or AMFX individually but Flex doesn't seem to want to let us use both. Is this a bug in Flex? If not how can we get it to use the correct protocol?

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  • Why does ICEfaces send dispose-window request on page unload when using view-scoped bean?

    - by woflrevo
    in our application ICEfaces always sends a dispose-window request just before navigating to another JSF Page. as much as i understand this should not happen when having org.icefaces.lazyWindowScope set to true and there is no window-scoped bean involved in current request. but it happens on each link and makes our UI less responsive. but we don't have any window-scoped bean in our application. is that a bug in icefaces that the dispose request is sent when using view-scoped beans? Is it possible to disable? ViewScope is defined in JSF not in ICEfaces, it should work without this dispose request i guess... @ManagedBean(name="viewScopeBean") @ViewScoped public class ViewScopeBean { public void doSomething(){ // } } And here the example jsf: <ice:form> <ice:commandButton value="doSomething" action="#{viewScopeBean.doSomething}"/> <h:link outcome="index" value="Link to same page"/> </ice:form> To reproduce do the following using the code above: open firebug's net tab and activate persist option click doSomething-Button click "link to same page" = dispose-window will be send before navigation Dispose Request Parameters: ice.submit.type=ice.dispose.window ice.window=4guthcbue javax.faces.ViewState=-8138151632882151449%3A-6709064564386098402 Environment: ICEfaces-EE 2.0.0.GA ICEpush-EE 2.0.0.GA Mojarra 2.1.1 JRockit 1.6.0_22 WebLogic Server 10.3.4.0 ICEfaces Configuration: org.icefaces.render.auto: true [default] org.icefaces.autoid: true [default] org.icefaces.aria.enabled: true [default] org.icefaces.blockUIOnSubmit: false [default] org.icefaces.compressDOM: false [default] org.icefaces.compressResources: true [default] org.icefaces.connectionLostRedirectURI: /pages/main.jsf org.icefaces.deltaSubmit: false [default] org.icefaces.lazyPush: true [default] org.icefaces.sessionExpiredRedirectURI: /pages/main.jsf org.icefaces.standardFormSerialization: false [default] org.icefaces.strictSessionTimeout: false [default] org.icefaces.windowScopeExpiration = 1000 [default] org.icefaces.mandatoryResourceConfiguration: null [default] org.icefaces.uniqueResourceURLs: true [default] org.icefaces.lazyWindowScope: true [default] org.icefaces.disableDefaultErrorPopups: false [default]

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  • PHP - Plus sign with GET query

    - by Nate Shoffner
    I have a PHP script that does basic encryption of a string through the method below: <?php $key = 'secretkey'; $string = $_GET['str']; if ($_GET['method'] == "decrypt") { $output = rtrim(mcrypt_decrypt(MCRYPT_RIJNDAEL_256, md5($key), base64_decode($string), MCRYPT_MODE_CBC, md5(md5($key))), "\0"); } if ($_GET['method'] == "encrypt") { $output= base64_encode(mcrypt_encrypt(MCRYPT_RIJNDAEL_256, md5($key), $string, MCRYPT_MODE_CBC, md5(md5($key)))); } echo $output; ?> An example of a URL to encrypt a string would look like this: Encrypt.php?method=encrypt&str=the quick fox Which would return this as the encrypted string: LCuT/ieVa6cl3/4VtzE+jd9QPT3kvHYYJFqG6tY3P0Q= Now to decrypt the string all you have to do is change the "method" query to "decrypt", like so: Encrypt.php?method=decrypt&str=LCuT/ieVa6cl3/4VtzE+jd9QPT3kvHYYJFqG6tY3P0Q= The only problem is that when that encrypted string is decrypted it returns this: ¬ƒ§rYV}̳5Äš·nßì(ñïX8Þ;b I have narrowed down the problem to the plus sign that is in the encrypted string. PHP's GET method seems to translate a plus sign into a blank space. I have searched this bug and found out that it has already been filed here. I have tried different methods listed on that page and others with no success. The closest I got is by using this: $fixedstring = str_replace(" ", "+", $string); and then using $fixedstring in the encryption methods, the problem is, upon decryption, all blank spaces are converted to plus signs. Any ideas?

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  • ASP.NET MVC 4 async child action

    - by ShadowChaser
    I have an ASP.NET MVC 4 application targeting .NET 4.5. One of our child actions makes a call out to a web service using HttpClient. Since we're blocking on IO waiting for the HttpClient response, it makes a great deal of sense to convert the code to the async/await pattern. However, when MVC 4 attempts to execute the child action, we get the following error message: HttpServerUtility.Execute blocked while waiting for an asynchronous operation to complete. At first glance, it appears as though MVC 4 does not support async/await within a child action. The only remaining option is to run using synchronous code and force a "Wait" on the async task. As we all know, touching .Result or .Wait() on an async task in an ASP.NET context will cause an immediate deadlock. My async logic is wrapped in a class library, so I can't use the "await blah.ConfigureAwait(false)" trick. Remember, tagging "async" on the child action and using await causes an error, and that prevents me from configuring the await. I'm painted into a corner at this point. Is there any way to consume async methods in an MVC 4 child action? Seems like a flat out bug with no workarounds.

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  • Indy IdSMTP and attachments in Thunderbird

    - by Lobuno
    Hello! Using the latest snapshot of Indy tiburon on D2010. A very simple project like: var stream: TFileStream; (s is TidSMTP and m is TidMessage) begin s.Connect; Stream := TFileStream.Create('c:\Test.zip', fmOpenRead or fmShareExclusive); try with TIdAttachmentMemory.Create(m.MessageParts, Stream) do begin ContentType := 'application/x-zip-compressed'; Name := ExtractFilePath('C:\'); //' FileName := 'Test.zip'; end; finally FreeAndNil(Stream); end; s.Send(m); s.Disconnect(); end; Everything works Ok in Outlook, The bat!, OE, yahoo, etc... but in Thunderbird the attachment is not shown. Looking at the source of the message in Thunderbird, the attachment is there. The only difference I can find between messages send by indy and other clients is that Indy messages have this order: Content-Type: multipart/mixed; boundary="Z\=_7oeC98yIhktvxiwiDTVyhv9R9gwkwT1" MIME-Version: 1.0 while any other clients have the order: MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/mixed; boundary="Z\=_7oeC98yIhktvxiwiDTVyhv9R9gwkwT1" Don't know if THAT is the source of the problem, but if so: is this a bug on Thunderbird or is this a problem with indy which "malforms" the headers of the messages? Is this order a problem? Does that matter anyway?

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  • Pylons error "No object (name: request) has been registered for this thread" with debug = false

    - by Evgeny
    I'm unable to access the request object in my Pylons 0.9.7 controller when I set debug = false in the .ini file. I have the following code: def run_something(self): print('!!! request = %r' % request) print('!!! request.params = %r' % request.params) yield 'Stuff' With debugging enabled this works fine and prints out: !!! request = <Request at 0x9571190 POST http://my_url> !!! request.params = UnicodeMultiDict([... lots of stuff ...]) If I set debug = false I get the following: !!! request = <paste.registry.StackedObjectProxy object at 0x4093790> Error - <type 'exceptions.TypeError'>: No object (name: request) has been registered for this thread The stack trace confirms that the error is on the print('!!! request.params = %r' % request.params) line. I'm running it using the Paste server and these two lines are the very first lines in my controller method. This only occurs if I have yield statements in the method (even though the statements aren't reached). I'm guessing Pylons sees that it's a generator method and runs it on some other thread. My questions are: How do I make it work with debug = false ? Why does it work with debug = true ? Obviously this is quite a dangerous bug, since I normally develop with debug = true, so it can go unnoticed during development.

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