Search Results

Search found 15040 results on 602 pages for 'request servervariables'.

Page 253/602 | < Previous Page | 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260  | Next Page >

  • Parser Error Problem

    - by user177140
    Hi I have found a problem in Multilingual Asp.Net Web Application I have Created a Global.asax file and write the code private void Application_BeginRequest(Object source, EventArgs e) { string[] languages = HttpContext.Current.Request.UserLanguages; if (languages[0].ToLower() != null && languages[0].ToLower()!="") { System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = new System.Globalization.CultureInfo(languages[0].ToLower()); System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = System.Globalization.CultureInfo.CreateSpecificCulture(languages[0].ToLower()); } } and define Label Like this <asp:Label ID="Labeldg" runat="server" Text="<%$ Resources:Resource, Labeldg %>"</asp:Label> But it through Parser error like: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: The resource object with key 'LblUsrName_Login' was not found. Source Error: </div> <div class="impcLoginText_Login"> <asp:Label ID="LblUsrName" runat="server" Text="<%$ Resources:PageResource, LblUsrName_Login %>" "></asp:Label>

    Read the article

  • What is the meaning of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

    Read the article

  • Nginx Rails app can't deploy

    - by user3596718
    I have an issue with my rails application running with passenger and nginx hosted in Ubuntu 12.04. In the nginx.conf file below, my "example.com" (Regular HTML) and "redmine.example.com" (Rails app) are working perfectly, but my "crete.example.com" (Another Rails app) is showing "502 bad gateway". I have them both hosted in /var/data with the same permissions and ownerships, also tried different ports, I can't think of something else to try. worker_processes 1; events { worker_connections 1024; } http { passenger_root /usr/lib/ruby/vendor_ruby/phusion_passenger/locations.ini; include mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; sendfile on; keepalive_timeout 65; server{ listen 80; server_name example.com; root /opt/nginx/html; } server{ server_name redmine.example.com; root /var/data/redmine/public; passenger_enabled on; location ~ ^/<SUBURI>(/.*|$){ alias /var/data/redmine/public$1; passenger_base_uri /redmine; passenger_app_root /var/data/redmine; passenger_document_root /var/data/redmine/public; passenger_enabled on;} } server{ server_name crete.example.com; root /var/data/crete/public; passenger_enabled on; location ~ ^/<SUBURI>(/.*|$){ alias /var/data/crete/public$1; passenger_base_uri /crete; passenger_app_root /var/data/crete; passenger_document_root /var/data/crete/public; passenger_enabled on;} } } This are my Ruby and Rails versions: ruby 2.0.0p451 (2014-02-24 revision 45167) [x86_64-linux] Rails 4.1.0 My nginx error.log 2014/05/02 12:29:50 [error] 3343#0: *4 upstream prematurely closed connection while reading response header from upstream, client: xxx.xx.xx.xx, server: crete.example.com, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", upstream: "passenger:/tmp/passenger.1.0.3 323/generation-0/request:", host: "crete.example.com" Any other conf file you might need to solve this don't hesitate to ask.

    Read the article

  • Change post form data function into curl

    - by QLiu
    Hello Guys, In the old way in our website, when users clicks “logout” button. It runs a post form function; which will pass parameters (logout, sn) to external sites to execute “logout” function. Like: I do not want the users jump to the external site, therefore, i use curl to post data. (because we are in different domain, i guess Ajax request doesnot work ) Post the same data to execute logout function in external site. // create cURL resource $URL = "http://bswi.development.intra.local/"; //Initl curl $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $URL); // Load in the destination URL curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPAUTH, CURLAUTH_BASIC); //Normal HTTP request, not SSL curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, "logout=1"); // receive server response ... curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_exec ($ch); echo $content; curl_close ($ch); Do u think i am going in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • Relating text fields to check boxes in Java

    - by Finzz
    This program requires the user to login and request a database to access. The program then gets a connection object, searches through the database storing the column names into a vector for later use. The problem comes with implementing text fields to allow the user to search for specific values within the database. I can get the check boxes and text fields to appear using a gridlayout and add them to a panel. How do I relate the text fields to their appropriate check box? I've tried adding them to a vector, but then they can't also be added to the panel as well. I've searched for a way to name the text fields as the loop cycles through the column names, but it seems impossible to do without having them declared ahead of time. This can't be done either, as it's impossible to determine the attributes that the user will request. I just need to be able to know the names of the text fields so I can test to see if the user entered information and perform the necessary logic. Let me know if you have to see the rest of the code to give an answer, but hopefully you get the general idea of what I'm trying to accomplish. Picture of UI: try { ResultSet r2 = con.getMetaData().getColumns("", "", rb.getText(), ""); colNames1 = new Vector<String>(); columns1 = new Vector<JCheckBox>(); while (r2.next()) { colNames1.add(r2.getString(4)); JCheckBox cb = new JCheckBox(r2.getString(4)); JTextField tf = new JTextField(10); columns1.add(cb); p3.add(cb); p3.add(tf); } }

    Read the article

  • Web scrapping from a Google Chrome extension

    - by limoragni
    I've started to develop a Chrome extension to navigate and prform actions on a website. Until now the extension is able to receive a couple of parameters and check a set of radio-buttons, fill in a few inputs of a form and then submit it. What I want to do now is to repeat the process, but I'm stuck when the page is reloaded. And I don't know how can I do to make the script reacts to the finish of the request. The workflow I want to achieve is the following (is for automaticly copying a certain object): Popup side Enter the number of the Master object to copy Enter the base name of the copies (example Mod, so the I can iterate and add mod1, mod2, modn) Enter the number of copies Background side Select master Select standard options Fill in inputs Submit form Wait for the page to complete the request and continue to the next copy. (here I need help) The problem is on the repetition, the rest is taking care of. I assume that must be a way of dealing with requests. Any ideas? By the way I'm doing it all with the extension and tabs methods of google chrome plus javascript and jquery.

    Read the article

  • Single-entry implementation gone wrong

    - by user745434
    I'm doing my first single-entry site and based on the result, I can't see the benefit. I've implemented the following: .htaccess redirects all requests to index.php at the root Url is parsed and each /segment/ is stored as an element in an array First segment indicates which folder to include (e.g. "users" » "/pages/users/index.php"). index.php file of each folder parses the remaining elements in the segments array until array is empty. content.php file of each folder is included if there are no more elements in the segments array, indicating that the destination file is reached Sample File structure ( folders in [] ): [root] index.php [pages] [users] index.php content.php [profile] index.php content.php [edit] index.php content.php [other-page] index.php content.php Request: http://mysite.com/users/profile/ .htaccess redirects request to http://mysite.com/index.php URL is parsed and segments array contains: [1] users, [2] profile index.php maps [1] to "pages/users/index.php", so includes that file pages/users/index.php maps [2] to pages/users/profile/index.php, so includes that file Since no other elements in the segments array, the contents.php file in the current folder (pages/users/profile) is included. I'm not really seeing the benefit of doing this over having functions that include components of the site (e.g. include_header(), include_footer(), etc.), so I conclude that I'm doing something terribly wrong. I'm just not sure what it is.

    Read the article

  • What are your suggestions for best practises for regular data updates in a website database?

    - by bboyle1234
    My shared-hosting asp.net website must automatically run data update routines at regular times of day. Once it has finished running certain update routines, it can run update routines that are dependent on the previous updates. I have done this type of work before, using quite complicated setups. Some features of the framework I created are: A cron job from another server makes a request which starts a data update routine on the main server Each updater is loaded from web.config Each updater overrides a "canRunUpdate" method that determines whether its dependencies have finished updating Each updater overrides a "hasFinishedUpdate" method Each updater overrides a "runUpdate" method Updaters start and run in parallel threads The initial request from the cron job server started each updater in its own thread and then ended. As a result, the threads containing the updaters would be terminated before the updaters were finished. Therefore I had to give the updaters the ability to save partial results and continue the update job next time they are started up. As a result, the cron server had to call the updater many times to ensure the job is done. Sometimes the cron server would continue making update requests long after all the updates were completed. Sometimes the cron server would finish calling the update requests and leave some updates uncompleted. It's not the best system. I'm looking for inspiration. Any ideas please? Thank you :)

    Read the article

  • problem after uploading file to web host

    - by Alexander
    I have a .xml file in my App_Data folder, I can access it fine in my localhost, however after uploading it to my webhost I got the following: ASP.NET is not authorized to access the requested resource. Consider granting access rights to the resource to the ASP.NET request identity. ASP.NET has a base process identity (typically {MACHINE}\ASPNET on IIS 5 or Network Service on IIS 6) that is used if the application is not impersonating. If the application is impersonating via , the identity will be the anonymous user (typically IUSR_MACHINENAME) or the authenticated request user. To grant ASP.NET access to a file, right-click the file in Explorer, choose "Properties" and select the Security tab. Click "Add" to add the appropriate user or group. Highlight the ASP.NET account, and check the boxes for the desired access. So who should I grant access to read? There's 3 user in my web host and all seems to have read access set to them.. one is NETWORK_SERVICE, IUSR_MACHINENAME and my user. So what is wrong?

    Read the article

  • What's the point of indicating AllowMultiple=false on an abstract Attribute class?

    - by tvanfosson
    On a recent question about MVC attributes, someone asked whether using HttpPost and HttpDelete attributes on an action method would result in either request type being allowed or no requests being allowed (since it can't be both a Post and a Delete at the same time). I noticed that ActionMethodSelectorAttribute, from which HttpPostAttribute and HttpDeleteAttribute both derive is decorated with [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] I had expected it to not allow both HttpPost and HttpDelete on the same method because of this, but the compiler doesn't complain. My limited testing tells me that the attribute usage on the base class is simply ignored. AllowMultiple seemingly only disallows two of the same attribute from being applied to a method/class and doesn't seem to consider whether those attributes derive from the same class which is configured to not allow multiples. Moreover, the attribute usage on the base class doesn't even preclude your from changing the attribute usage on a derived class. That being the case, what's the point of even setting the values on the base attribute class? Is it just advisory or am I missing something fundamental in how they work? FYI - it turns out that using both basically precludes that method from ever being considered. The attributes are evaluated independently and one of them will always indicate that the method is not valid for the request since it can't simultaneously be both a Post and a Delete.

    Read the article

  • Jquery UI autocomplete event change

    - by Stenly.k
    Hi I got a problem with change event. By documntation there should be object ui.item After an item was selected; ui.item refers to the selected item. Always triggered after the close event. But when I try it ui.item is undefined :( I want unset s_town_id when input in autocomplete doesn't match with data from script. Thx for any help. <input id="s_town" type="text" name="s_town" /> <input type="text" id="s_town_id" name="s_town_id" /> $(function() { $("#s_town").autocomplete({ source: function(request, response) { $.ajax({ url: "/_system/_ajax/uiautocomplete.php", dataType: "json", data: { name: "s_town", term: request.term }, success: function(data) { response($.map(data, function(item) { return { label: item.whisper_name+ " [" + item.zip_code + " / " + item.lup_state + "]", value: item.whisper_name, id: item.whisper_id, zip_code: item.zip_code, lup_state: item.lup_state, stateid: item.stateid } })) } }) }, minLength: 2, select: function(event, ui) { $("#s_town_id").val(ui.item.id); }, change: function(event, ui) { // ui.item is undefined :( where is the problem? $("#s_town_id").val(ui.item.id); } }); });

    Read the article

  • Retrieve E-mail from server (pop3) by date for filtering on subject or body in C#

    - by Josh
    I have a piece of monitoring software I am writing which needs to retrieve e-mails sent to an address for a certain day so that I can filter them by a regex in the subject or body. I don't need to retrieve the entire message, only the subject and body for all messages on a given day so that I can evaluate them with a regular expression for a token. I looked at EAGetMail as a solution, but their implementation doesn't do what I need to to do. I can only get all information on mail, which only has the size and index. I would need it by subject, but even then I don't want to get everything in inbox. If I went with this solution I have to get all mail, and then retrieve each mail message individually to evaluate the subject and body. This is not ideal. I also looked at OpenPop.Net, but it too does not have a targeted retrieval for today's messages only. Can I even do what I want without looping through every single email on the server until I find a match? What is the best way to accomplish what I am trying to do? Am I going to have to build a custom web request to get the data I want? Also, I looked at Chilkat, but I am looking for a free solution, even if it means building the http request myself.

    Read the article

  • Execute client & server side code with one click?

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am not sure if my design have flaw but would like to know what others have to say, i am in a situation where i am trying to acheive two things in one click. using : asp.net web form i have a web form with few textbox and a gridview control and a button. if i click on the button i am executing two things 1) asynchronously get data from server to client (working great) and able to display the data in the textboxes. 2) same click i want to bind the gridview. <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="cphMaster" runat="server"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1' >Id:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtId" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" OnClientClick="LoadDataById();" runat="server" Text="Submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" /> <br /> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtPurpose" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <br /> <br /> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server"> </asp:GridView> </asp:Content> server side protected void btnSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { GridView1.DataSource = laodData(int.Parse(txtId.Text)); GridView1.DataBind(); } Jquery: function LoadVisitBasicByVisitId() { ContactServiceProxy.invoke({ serviceMethod: "GetDataById", data: { request: request }, callback: function(response) { processCompletedContactStore(response); }, error: function(xhr, errorMsg, thrown) { postErrorAndUnBlockUI(xhr, errorMsg, thrown); } }); return false; } recap: 1) jquery script execute asynchronously to get data from server to client and display in the textboxes 2) server side code to bind the gridview.

    Read the article

  • Python : How do you find the CPU consumption for a piece of code?

    - by Yugal Jindle
    Background: I have a django application, it works and responds pretty well on low load, but on high load like 100 users/sec, it consumes 100% CPU and then due to lack of CPU slows down. Problem : Profiling the application gives me time taken by functions. This time increases on high load. Time consumed may be due to complex calculation or for waiting for CPU. so, how to find the CPU cycles consumed by a piece of code ? Since, reducing the CPU consumption will increase the response time. I might have written extremely efficient code and need to add more CPU power OR I might have some stupid code taking the CPU and causing the slow down ? Any help is appreciated ! Update: I am using Jmeter to profile my webapp, it gives me a throughput of 2 requests/sec. [ 100 users] I get a average time of 36 seconds on 100 request vs 1.25 sec time on 1 request. More Info Configuration Nginx + Uwsgi with 4 workers No database used, using a responses from a REST API On 1st hit the response of REST API gets cached, therefore doesn't makes a difference. Using ujson for json parsing. Curious to Know: Python-Django is used by so many orgs for so many big sites, then there must be some high end Debug / Memory-CPU analysis tools. All those I found were casual snippets of code that perform profiling.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC3 ValueProvider drops string input to a double property

    - by Daniel Koverman
    I'm attempting to validate the input of a text box which corresponds to a property of type double in my model. If the user inputs "foo" I want to know about it so I can display an error. However, the ValueProvider is dropping the value silently (no errors are added to the ModelState). In a normal submission, I fill in "2" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submit the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=2, among other correct inputs. bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == 2, as expected. The bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 6 and bindingContext.ModelState["myDouble"].Errors.Count == 0. Everything is good and the model binds as expected. Then I fill in "foo" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submitted the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=foo, which is what I expected. However, bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == null and bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 5 (The exact number isn't important, but it's one less than before). Looking at the ValueProvider, is as if myDouble was never submitted and the model binding occurs as if it wasn't. This makes it difficult to differentiate between a bad input and no input. Is this the expected behavior of ValueProvider? Is there a way to get ValueProvider to report when conversion fails without implementing a custom ValueProvider? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Cookies NULL On Some ASP.NET Pages (even though it IS there!)

    - by DaveDev
    Hi folks I'm working on an ASP.NET application and I'm having difficulty in understanding why a cookie appears to be null. On one page (results.aspx) I create a cookie, adding entries every time the user clicks a checkbox. When the user clicks a button, they're taken to another page (graph.aspx) where the contents of that cookie is read. The problem is that the cookie doesn't seem to exist on graph.aspx. The following code returns null: Request.Cookies["MyCookie"]; The weird thing is this is only an issue on our staging server. This app is deployed to a production server and it's fine. It also works perfectly locally. I've put debug code on both pages: StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); foreach (string cookie in Request.Cookies.AllKeys) { sb.Append(cookie.ToString() + "<br />"); } this.divDebugOutput.InnerHtml = sb.ToString(); On results.aspx (where there are no problems), I can see the cookies are: MyCookie __utma __utmb __utmz _csoot _csuid ASP.NET_SessionId __utmc On graph.aspx, you can see there is no 'MyCookie' __utma __utmb __utmz _csoot _csuid ASP.NET_SessionId __utmc With that said, if I take a look with my FireCookie, I can see that the same cookie does in fact exist on BOTH pages! WTF?!?!?!?! (ok, rant over :-) ) Has anyone seen something like this before? Why would ASP.NET claim that a cookie is null on one page, and not null on another?

    Read the article

  • URL Rewrite ASP.net

    - by wandos
    i have an asp.net website where i need to use URL re-write so i have written an HTTP module and i have implemented it and it works correctly the only problem is when the page redirect to its corresponding address the images and the styles are not loaded. here is the http module: // Your BeginRequest event handler. private void Application_BeginRequest(Object source, EventArgs e) { HttpApplication application = (HttpApplication)source; string URL = application.Request.Url.ToString(); //int pid = Convert.ToInt32(application.Request.QueryString["pid"]); if ((URL.ToLower().Contains(".aspx")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".js")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".css")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".gif")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".png")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".jpeg")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".jpe")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".jpg")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".ashx"))) return; else { string mname = URL.Substring(URL.LastIndexOf("/") + 1).ToString(); Merchand ms = merchantDB.GetMerchant(mname); HttpContext context = application.Context; if (ms != null) { string url = "~/pages/Merchant.aspx?mid=" + ms.MerchandID + "&catid=" + ms.MainCategory + "&subcatid=0"; context.RewritePath(VirtualPathUtility.ToAppRelative(url)); } else { //(""); string url = "~/pages/default.aspx"; context.RewritePath(VirtualPathUtility.ToAppRelative(url)); } } } when i open the page from it normal URL it opens fine, but when i use the url rewrite it open but with out images or styles. when i open firebug i get an error that the css and the javascript are not found

    Read the article

  • i don't know how to solve this error

    - by wide
    in local it works. when i load server, i got this error. Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. (e.g. <head runat="server" />). Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. (e.g. <head runat="server" />). Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. (e.g. <head runat="server" />).] System.Web.UI.PageTheme.SetStyleSheet() +2458406 System.Web.UI.Page.OnInit(EventArgs e) +8699420 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +333 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +378

    Read the article

  • Built in background-scheduling system in .NET?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I ask though I doubt there is any such system. Basically I need to schedule tasks to execute at some point in the future (usually no more than a few seconds or possibly minutes from now), and have some way of cancelling that request unless too late. Ie. code that would look like this: var x = Scheduler.Schedule(() => SomethingSomething(), TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5)); ... x.Dispose(); // cancels the request Is there any such system in .NET? Is there anything in TPL that can help me? I need to run such future-actions from various instances in a system here, and would rather avoid each such class instance to have its own thread and deal with this. Also note that I don't want this (or similar, for instance through Tasks): new Thread(new ThreadStart(() => { Thread.Sleep(5000); SomethingSomething(); })).Start(); There will potentially be a few such tasks to execute, they don't need to be executed in any particular order, except for close to their deadline, and it isn't vital that they have anything like a realtime performance concept. I just want to avoid spinning up a separate thread for each such action.

    Read the article

  • How do browser cookie domains work?

    - by Vilx-
    Due to weird domain/subdomain cookie issues that I'm getting, I'd like to know how browsers handle cookies. If they do it in different ways, it would also be nice to know the differences. In other words - when a browser receives a cookie, that cookie MAY have a domain and a path attached to it. Or not, in which case the browser probably substitutes some defaults for them. Question 1: what are they? Later, when the browser is about to make a request, it checks its cookies and filters out the ones it should send for that request. It does so by matching them against the requests path and domain. Question 2: what are the matching rules? Added: The reason I'm asking this is because I'm interested in some edge cases. Like: Will a cookie for .example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for .example.com be available for example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for anotherexample.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for www2.example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for .com? Etc. Added 2: Also, could someone suggest how I should set a cookie so that: It can be set by either www.example.com or example.com; It is accessible by both www.example.com and example.com.

    Read the article

  • Two forms but only 1 jsp file

    - by joshft91
    Here's what I've got going on. I have one .jsp file. However, I have two forms with multiple inputs inside those forms. What is the best way to detect that one form was submitted but not the other? Here's an example: I have this form: <form name = "login" action="index.jsp" method="get"> Username: <input id="username" name="username" type="text"/><br/> Password: <input id="password" name="password" type="password"/> <input type="submit" Value="Login" ></input> </form> If that button is clicked, I'd like to run this code: String username = request.getParameter("username"); String password = request.getParameter("password"); if((username!= null && !username.trim().equals("")) && (password != null && !username.trim().equals(""))) { DBentry DBentry=new DBentry(); boolean flag = DBentry.isTaken(username); if(flag) {%><script type="text/javascript">alert("Login Successful!");</script><% } else { %><script type="text/javascript">alert("Unrecognized username. Please register!");</script><% } } else { %><script type="text/javascript">alert("Please enter both a username and password!");</script><% } Further down I would have something exactly like it but submitting a different form. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • curl run out very slowly.

    - by sabuj
    here is my code bellow: $url = "http://localhost/Test/post_output.php"; $post_data = array ( "foo" => "bar", "query" => "Nettuts", "action" => "Submit" ); $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // we are doing a POST request curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); // adding the post variables to the request curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $post_data); curl_setopt($ch, CURLINFO_HEADER_OUT, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, true); // some output will go to stderr / error_log curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt(CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 5); $output = curl_exec($ch); $errStr = curl_error($ch); $errNum = curl_errno($ch); $head = curl_getinfo($ch, CURLINFO_HEADER_OUT); $ci = curl_getinfo($ch); print_r(array($head, $errStr, $errNum, $ci)); exit; curl_close($ch); echo $output; This script outputs very slowly. Even outputs nothing... can anyone help out this. Thanks...

    Read the article

  • Bizarre C++ compiler problem

    - by Yassin
    Hi, I have the following C++ code: typedef istream_iterator<string> isi; // (1) vector<string> lineas(isi(cin), isi()); // (2) //vector<string> lineas; //copy(isi(cin), isi(), back_inserter(lineas)); typedef vector<string>::iterator vci; for (vci it = lineas.begin(); it != lineas.end(); ++it) cout &lt;&lt; *it &lt;&lt; endl; However, I get the error while compiling: test.cpp: In function 'int main(int, char**)': test.cpp:16: error: request for member 'begin' in 'lineas', which is of non-class type 'std::vector<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >, std::allocator<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > > >(main(int, char**)::isi, main(int, char**)::isi (*)())' test.cpp:16: error: request for member 'end' in 'lineas', which is of non-class type 'std::vector<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >, std::allocator<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > > >(main(int, char**)::isi, main(int, char**)::isi (*)())' However, if I replace (1) by (2), it compiles. I'm using g++ 4.4.0 What's wrong?

    Read the article

  • Disable a form and all contained elements until an ajax query completes (or another solution to prev

    - by Max Williams
    I have a search form with inputs and selects, and when any input/select is changed i run some js and then make an ajax query with jquery. I want to stop the user from making further changes to the form while the request is in progress, as at the moment they can initiate several remote searches at once, effectively causing a race between the different searches. It seems like the best solution to this is to prevent the user from interacting with the form while waiting for the request to come back. At the moment i'm doing this in the dumbest way possible by hiding the form before making the ajax query and then showing it again on success/error. This solves the problem but looks horrible and isn't really acceptable. Is there another, better way to prevent interaction with the form? To make things more complicated, to allow nice-looking selects, the user actually interacts with spans which have js hooked up to them to tie them to the actual, hidden, selects. So, even though the spans aren't inputs, they are contained in the form and represent the actual interactive elements of the form. Grateful for any advice - max. Here's what i'm doing now: function submitQuestionSearchForm(){ //bunch of irrelevant stuff var questionSearchForm = jQuery("#searchForm"); questionSearchForm.addClass("searching"); jQuery.ajax({ async: true, data: jQuery.param(questionSearchForm.serializeArray()), dataType: 'script', type: 'get', url: "/questions", success: function(msg){ //more irrelevant stuff questionSearchForm.removeClass("searching"); }, error: function(msg){ questionSearchForm.removeClass("searching"); } }); return true; }

    Read the article

  • selective UnknownHostException

    - by Stephan
    Hi everybody! I am getting said Exception in my program, but only in certain cases. First of all, I have the internet permission set:<uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" />, and I tried the two method of this and this thread (they don't work in my case). The scenario is the following: I send a GET request to a rest service (e.g. http://my.web.site/request.php?attr=blah) and I do get a correct xml back. Now, in this xml there are some resources described, one of which is an url to an image (e.g http://my.web.site/images/img.jpg). Here it's where it fails! Here I consistently receive a UnknownHostException. I find it weird, since it's the same domain and everything. Accessing the img url from browser works (both from the emulator browser and pc browser). I tried from a device too but it doesn't get the image anyway. Any idea on why this weird behavior? EDIT: all my tests were on emulator and device, but connected to a wifi network. I tried also using the internet connection of my provider on the phone (i.e. bypassing home network), and still the behavior is the same... I found this bug which I assume is the source of this problem, but still no solution (after more than 1.5years). Any ideas?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260  | Next Page >