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  • Should I really use a UITableView in this situation?

    - by mystify
    Imagine you have a view like this: At the top, there is an UISegmentedControl with two segments. It functions like a tab. Pressing one segment will activate this particular content below that UISegmentedControl. Below the UISegmentedControl are some switches. These modify the way how the content should be rendered. And finally, below those switches, there's a table. Imagine a table not in sense of UITableView, but just what it really is: A table. It shows little messages like twitter messages or chat messages for example, one below the other. Like you know it from skype and other chats. Basically they're just rows with some formatting. A label, some image views, some lines, a background. Pretty basic. The data comes from an array. No core data. The whole thing including the segmented control and setup switches must be scrollable. So what I did is: I put all this stuff in an UIScrollView. Now I have to make the decision if I would use a UITableView inside there for that table part, or if I would just print a lot of rows on to the scroll view (with -drawRect:). But some problems stick in my head: Can I put a UITableView inside a UIScrollView? I assume this makes a lot of problems. I don't want that the table part is separately scrollable. Again imagine that view: First there are some basic choice things (segmented control, switches). Then there comes the table. When you scroll, the whole thing scrolls. That's mainly because this first part with the settings can be pretty big, so you would want to scroll it away. The next thing is: Can I customize UITableView in such a way, that it consists of two parts? One for that settings part, and one for the actual data to display?

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  • Best way and problems when using ajax tabs with an MVC PHP project

    - by Jonathan
    Hi, I'm building an IMDB.com like website using PHP/jQuery and a MVC approach (no OOP). I have an index.php base controller to 'rule them all' :), a controllers folder with all the controllers, a models folder and a view folder. In some pages of the website I have tabbed navigation, when the visitor clicks on one of those tabs to get more information, jQuery gets that data using the $.post or $.get method and shows it on the tab container, obviously without refreshing the page. The problem is that those pages loaded by ajax are also generated using controllers, models, and views, and the things are getting a bit complicated for someone like me ( = 'no experience'). To dynamically get the data I some times need to include a model twice, include an include in an include in an include, send information multiple times, connect with the database again, and all sort of things like that and I'm sure there is a better and prettier way to do this. I'm searching for the best approach and common methods for this. I have no experience working with a big project like this. This is a personal project so I have full control and every answer is welcome. Thanks!!!

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  • Is starting to use CDATA a breaking change?

    - by kicsit
    For interaction with a customer's application we use XML documents. That is, we send an XML over HTTP and receive a response XML document the same way. The customer specified two XML schemata that describe the format of both the request and reply. All was working fine, until one day the customer started to use CDATA sections in the response XML. We set up our parser unmindful of CDATA sections, so we failed to interpret them. My question is: Who made a mistake here? I tried to find an answer in the XML standards, but I'm still not sure. I think I cannot prescribe using or not using CDATA's in an XSD, is that right? If so, is it not enough to agree upon an XSD, but a separate agreement has to be made about CDATA sections? Or one is obliged to be prepared to parse CDATA and regular text as well? I'm interested in both your personal views and official statements too. Thank you!

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  • Pass List of models to controller ASP.NET MVC 5

    - by user3697231
    I have a view where user can enter some data. But problem is this: Let's say you have 3 text box on view. Every time user can fill multiple times this 3 text boxes. To clarify, let's say user fills this 3 text boxes and press button which adds on form again these 3 text boxes. Now when user clicks submit this form is sent to controller, but how do I sent List of models as parameter. My architecture for this problem is something like this: MyModel public int ID { get;set; } public string Something { get; set; } /*This three textboxes can user set multiple times*/ /*Perhaps i Can create new model with these properties and then /*put List of that model as property here, but how to fill that list inside view ??*/ public string TextBoxOneValue { get; set; } public string TextBoxTwoValue { get; set; } public string TextBoxThreeValue { get; set; } Now, i was thinking that i Create PartialView with this 3 text boxes, and then when user clicks button on view another PartialView is loaded. And now, let's say I have Two partial views loaded, and user clicks submit, how that I pass list with values of these 3 text boxes to controller ??

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  • Designers, Expression or SharePoint Designer, and real source control

    - by David Lively
    I'm trying desperately to move from VSS to a real source control system. Options include TFS and SVN. My designers need to keep their ability to modify source files and instantly preview their changes in a browser without having to commit their changes. Using FPSE with VSS, this works flawlessly, since saving a file causes the copy in the working folder on the dev server to be updated, so they can just save and refresh their browser which is pointed at the dev server. The site in question consists of 350k+ lines of classic ASP code and some new ASP.NET MVC. They only need to be able to modify views within the MVC code, not C#. Though Expression includes a version of Cassini for local debugging, Cassini does not support classic ASP. Surely someone has solved this problem before. It can't be necessary to install IIS on each designer's machine (this is absolutely untenable). I need a way to have a common working folder on a dev webserver updated whenever someone saves a file locally, just like using FPSE. I'd rather not write an FPSE proxy that knows how to talk to TFS/SVN. Any suggestions? (I know I've asked this question in the past, but I haven't yet found a solution.)

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  • Bug on submitted app binary but not in the simulator - CALayer position contains NaN

    - by Jonathan Thurft
    I submitted my app to the App Store where is ready to download. I've since then received some interesting crash reports when people select an image from the ImagePicker in one of my views. This bug (see below) makes the app crash. I was wondering 2 things. Can anyone spot the problem in the code below? How do you deal with bugs that are only in the App Binary but do not show up when trying to recreate them on the dev environment? - I can make the app crash with the Binary that is on the app store but when I do the same on the simulator or on my test phone the app works perfectly.. The Crash report in BugSense CALayer position contains NaN: [798 nan] Class: CALayerInvalidGeometry 0x00120e99 -[imageCroppingViewController imagePickerController:didFinishPickingMediaWithInfo:] (imageCroppingViewController.m:126) + 163481 The Code - (void) imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingMediaWithInfo:(NSDictionary *)info { UIImage *image = [info objectForKey:UIImagePickerControllerOriginalImage]; imageView.image = image; CGRect rect; rect.size.width = image.size.width; rect.size.height = image.size.height; imageView.center = scrollView.center; [imageView setFrame:rect]; scrollView.contentSize = imageView.frame.size; self.navigationController.navigationBar.hidden = NO; [myPicker.view removeFromSuperview]; }

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  • Pitfalls of the Architecture - Database based HTTP Request/Response Parsing

    - by Sam
    We have a current eCommerce Site that runs on ASP.NET and we hired a consultant to develop an new site bases on SOA. The new site architecture is as follows Web Application : Single Page Web Application (built on javascript/jquery templates - do not use any MVVM frameworks) that uses some javascript thrown all over the place. Service Layer : Very very light Service Layer that does not do anything other than calling a single stored procedure and pass in the entire http request. Database : The entire site content is in the database. The database does the heavy lifting of parsing the request and based on the HTTP method and some input parameter calls the appropriate Store Procedures or views and renders the result in JSON/XML. We have been told by them that this is built on latest and greatest technologies. I have a lot of concerns and of them given are the few Load on the Database SEO concerns for single page application as this is a public facing website Scalablity? Is this SOA? Cross Browser compatability (Site does not work in < IE9) Realistic implementaion of Single page application I know something is not right but I just need to validate my concerns here. Please help me.

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  • Should a "script" tag be allowed to remove itself?

    - by Nischal
    We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation? Edit: Firefox, Opera, IE9 etc. do not remove the 'script' tag if I run the above code. But, document.getElementsByTagName('script').length returns 0! To understand what I mean, add alert(document.getElementsByTagName('script').length); before and after document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); in the code above.

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  • Building a calendar navigation in Rails (controller and view links)

    - by user532339
    Trying to get the next month when clicking the link_to. I've done the following in the view. <%= form_tag rota_days_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= hidden_field_tag(:next_month, @t1) %> <%= link_to 'Next Month', rota_days_path(:next_month => @next_month)%> </p> <% end %> class RotaDaysController < ApplicationController # GET /rota_days # GET /rota_days.json # load_and_authorize_resource respond_to :json, :html def index @rota_days = RotaDay.all @hospitals = Hospital.all @t1 = Date.today.at_beginning_of_month @t2 = Date.today.end_of_month @dates = (@t1..@t2) #Concat variable t1 + t2 together # @next_month = Date.today + 1.month(params[: ??? ] #Old if params[:next_month] # @next_month = Date.today >> 1 @next_month = params[:next_month] + 1.month @t1 = @next_month.at_beginning_of_month @t2 = @next_month.end_of_month @dates = (@t1..@t2) end @title = "Rota" respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @rota_days } end end I have identified that the reason why this may not be working is in because of the following in my controller @next_month = params[:next_month] + 1.month the last two called methods is defined only on time/date objects. but not on fixnum/string objects. I understand I am missing something from this Update I have found that the actual issue is that the `params[:next_month] is a string and I am trying to add a date to to it. Which means I need to convert the string to a date/time object. Console output: Started GET "/rota_days" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-12-14 22:14:36 +0000 Processing by RotaDaysController#index as HTML User Load (0.0ms) SELECT `users`.* FROM `users` WHERE `users`.`id` = 1 LIMIT 1 RotaDay Load (0.0ms) SELECT `rota_days`.* FROM `rota_days` Hospital Load (1.0ms) SELECT `hospitals`.* FROM `hospitals` Rendered rota_days/index.html.erb within layouts/application (23.0ms) Role Load (0.0ms) SELECT `roles`.* FROM `roles` INNER JOIN `roles_users` ON `roles`.`id` = `roles_users`.`role_id` WHERE `roles_users`.`user_id` = 1 AND `roles`.`name` = 'Administrator' LIMIT 1 Completed 200 OK in 42ms (Views: 39.0ms | ActiveRecord: 1.0ms)

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  • remove 2 subviews in one go.

    - by Pavan
    hi, I am trying to remove two viewcontrollers (that have been added on top of each other) with one method. I have made the views in interfacebuilder. they all have their own .h and .m files to go with it. Scenario I am in: I have a main menu which has the view2 header file imported. In a method I add the second view on top of the superview like so view2ViewController * view2 = [[view2ViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"view2ViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview:view2.view]; then in view 2 I have added the view 3 header file so i can add view 3 as a subview ontop of view2. i have another method which is connected again to interface builder to a UIButton so upon button press a method gets called in view2 which adds view 3 on top in exactly the same way like so: view3ViewController * view3 = [[view3ViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"view3ViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview:view3.view]; What im trying to solve: I have a button in view 3 which should remove view 3.... and then it should also remove view 2 aswell so the main screen is visible. How can this be achieved? What I have so far: [self.view removeFromSuperview]; This however only removes View 3... but leaves view 2 in place. What needs to be modified so that i can remove view 2 as well?? Any help is appreciated.

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  • Question about architecting asp.net mvc application ?

    - by Misnomer
    I have read little bit about architecture and also patterns in order to follow the best practices. So this is the architecture we have and I wanted to know what you think of it and any proposed changes or improvements to it - Presentation Layer - Contains all the views,controllers and any helper classes that the view requires also it containes the reference to Model Layer and Business Layer. Business Project - Contains all the business logic and validation and security helper classes that are being used by it. It contains a reference to DataAccess Layer and Model Layer. Data Access Layer - Contains the actual queries being made on the entity classes(CRUD) operations on the entity classes. It contains reference to Model Layer. Model Layer - Contains the entity framework model,DTOs,Enums.Does not really have a reference to any of the above layers. What are your thoughts on the above architecture ? The problem is that I am getting confused by reading about like say the repository pattern, domain driven design and other design patterns. The architecture we have although not that strict still is relatively alright I think and does not really muddle things but I maybe wrong. I would appreciate any help or suggestions here. Thanks !

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  • rails route question

    - by badnaam
    I am trying to build a search functionality which at a high level works like this. 1 - I have a Search model, controller with a search_set action and search views/partial to render the search. 2 - At the home page a serach form is loaded with an empty search object or a search object initialized with session[:search] (which contains user search preferences, zip code, proximity, sort order, per page etc). This form has a post(:put) action to search_set. 3 - When a registered user performs a set the params of the search form are collected and a search record is saved against that user. If a unregistered user performs a search then the search set action simply stores the params in the session[:search]. In either case, the search is executed with the given params and the results are displayed. At this point the url of in the location bar is something like.. http://localhost:3000/searches/search_set?stype=1 At this point if the user simply hits enter on the location bar, I get an error that says "No action responded to show" I am guessing because the URL contains search_set which uses a put method and even though I have a search_show (:get) action (which simply reruns the search in the session or saved in the database) does not get called. How can I handle this situation where I can route a user hitting enter into the location bar to a get method? If this does not explain the problem , please let me know I can share more details/code etc. Thanks!

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  • Android onFling not responding

    - by Kevin Moore
    I am new to android first of all so think of any newbie mistakes first I am trying to add a fling function in my code. public class MainGamePanel extends SurfaceView implements SurfaceHolder.Callback, OnGestureListener { private MainThread thread; private Droid droid; private Droid droid2; private static final String TAG = gameView.class.getSimpleName(); private GestureDetector gestureScanner; public MainGamePanel(Context context){ super(context); getHolder().addCallback(this); droid = new Droid(BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), R.drawable.playerbox2), 270, 300); droid2 = new Droid(BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), R.drawable.playerbox2), 50, 300); thread = new MainThread(getHolder(), this); setFocusable(true); gestureScanner = new GestureDetector(this); } public boolean onTouchEvent(MotionEvent event){ return gestureScanner.onTouchEvent(event); } @Override protected void onDraw(Canvas canvas){ canvas.drawColor(Color.BLACK); droid.draw(canvas); droid2.draw(canvas); } @Override public boolean onFling(MotionEvent e1, MotionEvent e2, float velocityX, float velocityY) { droid.setX(50); droid.setY(50); Log.d(TAG, "Coords: x=" + e1.getX() + ",y=" + e2.getY()); return true; } @Override public boolean onDown(MotionEvent e) { droid2.setX((int)e.getX()); droid2.setY((int)e.getY()); Log.d(TAG, "Coords: x=" + e.getX() + ",y=" + e.getY()); return false; } I got the gestureListener to work with: onDown, onLongPress, and onShowPress. But i can't get any response with onFling, onSingleTapUp, and onScroll. What mistake am I making? does it have to do with views? I don't know what code would be useful to see.... so any suggestions would be much appreciated. Thank You!

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  • Beginner having difficulty with SQL query

    - by Vulcanizer
    Hi, I've been studying SQL for 2 weeks now and I'm preparing for an SQL test. Anyway I'm trying to do this question: For the table: 1 create table data { 2 id int, 3 n1 int not null, 4 n2 int not null, 5 n3 int not null, 6 n4 int not null, 7 primary key (id) 8 } I need to return the relation with tuples (n1, n2, n3) where all the corresponding values for n4 are 0. The problem asks me to solve it WITHOUT using subqueries(nested selects/views) It also gives me an example table and the expected output from my query: 01 insert into data (id, n1, n2, n3, n4) 02 values (1, 2,4,7,0), 03 (2, 2,4,7,0), 04 (3, 3,6,9,8), 05 (4, 1,1,2,1), 06 (5, 1,1,2,0), 07 (6, 1,1,2,0), 08 (7, 5,3,8,0), 09 (8, 5,3,8,0), 10 (9, 5,3,8,0); expects (2,4,7) (5,3,8) and not (1,1,2) since that has a 1 in n4 in one of the cases. The best I could come up with was: 1 SELECT DISTINCT n1, n2, n3 2 FROM data a, data b 3 WHERE a.ID <> b.ID 4 AND a.n1 = b.n1 5 AND a.n2 = b.n2 6 AND a.n3 = b.n3 7 AND a.n4 = b.n4 8 AND a.n4 = 0 but I found out that also prints (1,1,2) since in the example (1,1,2,0) happens twice from IDs 5 and 6. Any suggestions would be really appreciated.

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  • auto_complete plugin error: Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_...

    - by bgadoci
    I have successfully set up this plugin before so I am curious as to what I am doing wrong here. I have built the ability for users to add tags to questions. I am not using tagging plugin here but that shouldn't matter for this. With respect to the auto complete, I am trying to have the form located in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file access the Tags table and display entries in the tags.tags_name column. When I begin to type in the field I get the following error message: Processing QuestionsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-31 15:22:20) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"a"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Question Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "questions" WHERE ("questions"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/application_controller.rb:15:in `init_data' For some reason I am actually passing the field name as the Question.id. The plugin set up is fairly simple as you add the following line to your controller: auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name and the following line in your routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have added the controller line to both my tags and questions controller and also mapped resources for both tags and questions in my routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } map.resources :questions, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have played around with removing either or of the above but can't seem to fix it. Any ideas what I am doing wrong here? UPDATE: My QuestionsController#show action is fishing posts by: @question = Question.find(params[:id])

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  • How to check Isavailablity in ajax?

    - by udaya
    Hi This is what i have in my view page <td width=""><input type="text" name="txtUserName" id="txtUserName" /></td> <td><input type="button" name="CheckUsername" id="CheckUsername" value="Check Availablity" onclick="Check_User_Name();"/></td> Onclick of the button the Check_User_Name function in my ajax.js loads This is the Check_User_Name function function Check_User_Name(source) { var UserName = document.getElementById('txtUserName').value; if(window.ActiveXObject) User_Name = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); else if(window.XMLHttpRequest) User_Name = new XMLHttpRequest(); var URL = newURL+"ssit/system/application/views/ssitAjax.php"; URL = URL +"?CheckUsername="+UserName; User_Name.onreadystatechange = User_Name_Fun; User_Name.open("GET",URL,true); User_Name.send(null); } function User_Name_Fun() { document.getElementById('User_div').innerHTML=User_Name.responseText; } Then I can have the value in echo username then the $result has all the user name Hows can i checkIsavailablity of username from here if(($_GET['CheckUsername']!="") || (isset($_GET['CheckUsername']))) { echo $UserName = $_GET['CheckUsername'];//echo username $_SESSION['state'] = $State; $queryres = "SELECT dUser_name FROM tbl_login WHERE dIsDelete='0'"; $result = mysql_query($queryres,$cn) or die("Selection Query Failed !!!");

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  • What is the best way to embed SQL in VB.NET.

    - by Amy P
    I am looking for information on the best practices or project layout for software that uses SQL embedded inside VB.NET or C#. The software will connect to a full SQL DB. The software was written in VB6 and ported to VB.NET, we want to update it to use .NET functionality but I am not sure where to start with my research. We are using Visual Studio 2005. All database manipulations are done from VB. Update: To clarify. We are currently using SqlConnection, SqlDataAdapter, SqlDataReader to connect to the database. What I mean by embed is that the SQL stored procedures are scripted inside our VB code and then run on the db. All of our tables, stored procs, views, etc are all manipulated in the VB code. The layout of our code is quite messy. I am looking for a better architecture or pattern that we can use to organize our code. Can you recommend any books, webpages, topics that I can google, etc to help me better understand the best way for us to do this.

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  • Is there a point to have multiple VS projects for an ASP.NET MVC application?

    - by mare
    I'm developing MVC application where I currently have 3 projects in solution. Core (it is supposed to be for Repositories, Business Classes, Models, HttpModules, HttpFilters, Settings, etc.) Data access (Data provider, for instance SqlDataProvider for working with SQL Server datastore - implements Repository interfaces, XmlDataProvider - also implements Repository interfaces but for local XML files as datastore) ASP.NET MVC project (all the typical stuff, UI, controllers, content, scripts, resources and helpers). I have no Models in my ASP.NET MVC project. I've just run into a problem because of that coz I want to use the new DataAnnotation feature in MVC 2 on my Bussiness class, which are, as said in Core, however I have I want to be able to localize the error messages. This where my problem starts. I cannot use my Resources from MVC project in Core. The MVC project references Core and it cannot be vice-versa. My options as I see them are: 1) Move Resources out but this would require correcting a whole bunch of Views and Controllers where I reference them, 2) Make a complete restructure of my app What are your thoughts on this? Also, Should I just move everything business related into Models folder in MVC project?? Does it even make any sense to have it structured like that, because we can just make subfolders for everything under MVC project? The whole Core library is not intended to ever be used for anything else, so there actually no point of compiling it to a separate DLL. Suggestions appreciated.

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  • MVC3 Custom view engine

    - by eth0
    I have a custom View Engine that derives from WebFormViewEngine. There's a lot of stuff going on in here, mostly caching. I want to be able to use WebFormViewEngine AND RazorViewEngine at the same time, is this possible? Ideally I'd like to do; ViewEngines.Add(new MyViewEngine<WebFormsViewEngine>()); ViewEngines.Add(new MyViewEngine<RazorViewEngine>()); if a .ascx/.aspx/.master file exists then use WebForms, otherwise use Razor is a .cshtml file exists. EDIT: I should of worded my question better. As my custom view engine derives from WebFormViewEngine it obviously uses WebForms, I can't derive from two classes. I can derive from RazorViewEngine but then I'll loose WebForms. I can duplicate my code entirely, derive from RazorViewEngine and edit the views file extensions, etc. but as I said I've got a lot of custom code in my view engine and would be duplicating hundreds of lines. WebFormViewEngine and RazorViewEngine derive from BuildManagerViewEngine which in turn implements IViewEngine. The problem with that is I have to implement methods CreatePartialView() and CreateView() but how would I know what to return (WebForms/Razor?) using generics?

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  • sortable list using jquery ui not passing updated list order

    - by Matthew Berman
    I am following the sortable lists railscast and got everything working except when I sort, the same (original) order gets passed to the update method each time, so it doesn't update the true order. Here's the code: In the view: %tbody#lineup{"data-update-url" => sort_lineups_url} - @lineup.pieces.each_with_index do |piece, index| = content_tag_for :tr, piece do = render 'piece', :piece => piece, :index => index and pieces.js.coffee: jQuery -> $('#lineup').sortable( axis: 'y' update: -> $.post($(this).data('update-url'), $(this).sortable('serialize')) ); sort and show methods of lineupscontroller: def show @lineup = Lineup.find_by_user_id(current_user.id) @pieces = @lineup.pieces.order("position") end def sort params[:piece].each_with_index do |id, index| current_user.lineup.pieces.update_all({position: index+1}, {id: id}) end render nothing: true end and the update request: Started POST "/lineups/sort" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-06-24 20:06:14 -0700 Processing by LineupsController#sort as */* Parameters: {"piece"=>["8", "2", "1", "4", "3", "7"]} User Load (0.4ms) SELECT `users`.* FROM `users` WHERE `users`.`id` = 2 LIMIT 1 Lineup Load (0.6ms) SELECT `lineups`.* FROM `lineups` WHERE `lineups`.`user_id` = 2 LIMIT 1 SQL (2.9ms) UPDATE `pieces` INNER JOIN `piece_lineups` ON `pieces`.`id` = `piece_lineups`.`piece_id` SET `position` = 1 WHERE `piece_lineups`.`lineup_id` = 3 AND `pieces`.`id` = 8 SQL (0.6ms) UPDATE `pieces` INNER JOIN `piece_lineups` ON `pieces`.`id` = `piece_lineups`.`piece_id` SET `position` = 2 WHERE `piece_lineups`.`lineup_id` = 3 AND `pieces`.`id` = 2 SQL (0.6ms) UPDATE `pieces` INNER JOIN `piece_lineups` ON `pieces`.`id` = `piece_lineups`.`piece_id` SET `position` = 3 WHERE `piece_lineups`.`lineup_id` = 3 AND `pieces`.`id` = 1 SQL (0.5ms) UPDATE `pieces` INNER JOIN `piece_lineups` ON `pieces`.`id` = `piece_lineups`.`piece_id` SET `position` = 4 WHERE `piece_lineups`.`lineup_id` = 3 AND `pieces`.`id` = 4 SQL (0.6ms) UPDATE `pieces` INNER JOIN `piece_lineups` ON `pieces`.`id` = `piece_lineups`.`piece_id` SET `position` = 5 WHERE `piece_lineups`.`lineup_id` = 3 AND `pieces`.`id` = 3 SQL (0.5ms) UPDATE `pieces` INNER JOIN `piece_lineups` ON `pieces`.`id` = `piece_lineups`.`piece_id` SET `position` = 6 WHERE `piece_lineups`.`lineup_id` = 3 AND `pieces`.`id` = 7 Rendered text template (0.0ms) so each time i drag+drop the list, it sends the same order again. what am I doing wrong that the params isn't passing the right, updated order? Completed 200 OK in 2757ms (Views: 1.0ms | ActiveRecord: 6.7ms)

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  • Rails - Update a single attribute : link with custom action or form with hidden fields?

    - by MrRuru
    Let's say I have a User model, with a facebook_uid field corresponding to the user's facebook id. I want to allow the user to unlink his facebook account. Do do so, I need to set this attribute to nil. I currently see 2 ways of doing this First way : create a custom action and link to it # app/controllers/users_controller.rb def unlink_facebook_account @user = User.find params[:id] # Authorization checks go here @user.facebook_uid = nil @user.save # Redirection go here end # config/routes.rb ressources :users do get 'unlink_fb', :on => :member, :as => unlink_fb end # in a view = link_to "Unlink your facebook account", unlink_fb_path(@user) Second way : create a form to the existing update action # app/views/user/_unlink_fb_form.html.haml = form_for @user, :method => "post" do |f| = f.hidden_field :facebook_uid, :value => nil = f.submit "Unlink Facebook account" I'm not a big fan of either way. In the first one, I have to add a new action for something that the update controller already can do. In the second one, I cannot set the facebook_uid to nil without customizing the update action, and I cannot have a link instead of a button without adding some javascript. Still, what would you recommend as the best and most elegant solution for this context? Did I miss a third alternative?

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  • form_form and custom parameter in path_prefix

    - by fguillen
    Hi people, I have this route: # config/routes.rb map.namespace :backshop, :path_prefix => '/:shop_id/admin' do |backshop| backshop.resources :items end And I want to use the form_for magic to reuse the same form on both: new and edit views: <% form_for [:backshop, @item] do |f| %> This used to works, and used to build a create url for the item or update url for the item depending on the status of the @item object. But this is not working on this case because the routes don't exists without the shop_id parameter, and I don't know how to say to the form_for something like this: <% form_for [:backshop, @item], :shop_id => @shop do |f| %> Because it tries to use the @item like the :shop_id parameter. Or like this <% form_for [:backshop, @shop, @item] do |f| %> Because it tries to build this url: backshop_shop_order_path I Know I can just to extract the form_for declaration from the partial and do different calls on depending if new or edit: <% form_for( @item, :url => backshop_items_path( @shop ) ) do |f| %> and <% form_for( @item, :url => backshop_item_path( @shop, @item ) ) do |f| %> But I just wanted don't do this because I have a bunch of models and is a few boring :) Thanks for any suggestion f.

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  • NoMethodError / undefined method `foobar_path' when using form_for

    - by user1850886
    I'm using form_for to create a chatroom and when I view the page I get the following error: NoMethodError in Chatrooms#new undefined method `chatrooms_path' for #<#<Class:0xa862b94>:0xa5307f0> Here's the code for the view, located in app/views/chatrooms/new.html.erb: <div class="center"> <%= form_for(@chatroom) do |f| %> <%=f.text_field :topic%> <br> <%=f.submit "Start a discussion", class: "btn btn-large btn-primary"%> <% end %> </div> Here's the relevant controller: class ChatroomsController < ApplicationController def new @chatroom = Chatroom.new end def show @chatroom = Chatroom.find(params[:id]) end end If I change the line <%= form_for(@chatroom) do |f| %> to <%= form_for(:chatroom) do |f| %> it works fine. I've searched around for similar questions but none of the solutions have worked for me. Help?

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  • memcached: which is faster, doing an add (and checking result), or doing a get (and set when returni

    - by Mike Sherov
    The title of this question isn't so clear, but the code and question is straightforward. Let's say I want to show my users an ad once per day. To accomplish this, every time they visit a page on my site, I check to see if a certain memcache key has any data stored on it. If so, don't show an ad. If not, store the value '1' in that key with an expiration of 86400. I can do this 2 ways: //version a $key='OPD_'.date('Ymd').'_'.$type.'_'.$user; if($memcache->get($key)===false){ $memcache->set($key,'1',false,$expire); //show ad } //version b $key='OPD_'.date('Ymd').'_'.$type.'_'.$user; if($memcache->add($key,'1',false,$expire)){ //show ad } Now, it might seem obvious that b is better, it always makes 1 memcache call. However, what is the overhead of "add" vs. "get"? These aren't the real comparisons... and I just made up these numbers, but let's say 1 add ~= 1 set ~= 5 get in terms of effort, and the average user views 5 pages a day: a: (5 get * 1 effort) + (1 set * 5 effort) = 10 units of effort b: (5 add * 5 effort) = 25 units of effort Would it make sense to always do the add call? Is this an unnecessary micro-optimization?

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  • Google Anlytics event not firing

    - by yar1
    I am not getting and event data in GA. I installed Google Analytics Debugger Chrome extension and I see nothing happening (same goes when looking at Network panel in developer tools). I Googled it and read many (many) other answers and it looks like I'm doing things right. Page views, etc. are registering correctly... I have this code as the last thing before my closing tag: <script> (function(i,s,o,g,r,a,m){i['GoogleAnalyticsObject']=r;i[r]=i[r]||function(){ (i[r].q=i[r].q||[]).push(arguments)},i[r].l=1*new Date();a=s.createElement(o), m=s.getElementsByTagName(o)[0];a.async=1;a.src=g;m.parentNode.insertBefore(a,m) })(window,document,'script','//www.google-analytics.com/analytics.js','ga'); ga('create', 'UA-MYREALCODE', 'mybna.net'); ga('send', 'pageview'); var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', 'UA-MYREALCODE']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']); </script> My event handlers are done using jQuery, all inside an external js file, loaded before the closing tag. For example: $(function () { $('#show-less').click(function (e) { pbr.showHideMore(e); _gaq.push(['_trackEvent', 'ShowMore', 'Hide', 'top button']); }); }); Any ideas anyone?

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