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  • Possible to write an Extension Method for ASP.NET's Html.ActionLink() method?

    - by Pretzel
    Right now, I'm trying to work around an IE6/7 bug which requires the wrapping of the </a closing tag with this IE specific comment to make some drop-down menu work: <!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]--> Unfortunately, I cannot inject this directly into my View page code like this: <%= Html.ActionLink("LinkName<!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]-->","Action","Controller") %> As Html.ActionLink will do the safe thing and filter out the comment to prevent a Javascript injection attack. Ok, cool. I'm fine with that. Good design decision. What I'd like to do is write an Extension Method to this, but the process is eluding me as I haven't done this before. I thought this would work, but Intellisense doesn't seem to be picking up this Extension method that I've written. public static class MyLinkExtensions { public static string ActionLinkIE(this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string linkText, string actionName, string controllerName) { return LinkExtensions.ActionLink(htmlHelper, linkText, actionName, controllerName). Replace(@"</a>", @"<!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]-->"); } } Any suggestions?

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  • Applying fine-grained security to an existing application

    - by Mark
    I've inherited a reasonably large and complex ASP.NET MVC3 web application using EF Code First on SQL Server. It uses ASP.NET Membership roles with database authentication. The controller actions are secured with attributes derived from AuthorizeAttribute that map roles to actions. There are extension methods for the finer points, such as showing a particular widget to particular roles. This is works great and I have a good understanding of the current security model. I've been asked to provide finer grained security at the data level. For example a 'Customer' user can only see data (throughout the database) associated with themselves and not other Customers. The problem is that 'Customer' is only 1 of 5 different types with their own specific restrictions (each of the 9 roles is one of these 5 types). The best thing I can think of is to go through all the data repositories and extend each and every LINQ statements/query with a filter for every user type. Even if I had time for that it doesn't seem like the most elegant way. Any suggestions? I really don't know where to start with this so anything could be helpful. Many thanks.

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  • How to generate a PDF from a view using media=print for styles

    - by Riderman de Sousa Barbosa
    Most of the questions in stackoverflow or in other forums, show how to generate views and sends them by email. But my goal is to generate a PDF from a view with the media=print format and sends it in attachment by email. I have a view that displays a report. I use CSS Print to display this report in a print format. (Basically I display some elements and hide others). How can I generate a PDF from this view (with format media=print) and send it by e-mail in attachment. I am using ActionMailer to send emails and iTextSharp to generate PDFs

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  • Convert SQL to LINQ in MVC3 with Ninject

    - by Jeff
    I'm using MVC3 and still learning LINQ. I'm having some trouble trying to convert a query to LINQ to Entities. I want to return an employee object. SELECT E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName, MAX(EO.EmployeeOperationDate) AS "Last Operation" FROM Employees E INNER JOIN EmployeeStatus ES ON E.EmployeeID = ES.EmployeeID INNER JOIN EmployeeOperations EO ON ES.EmployeeStatusID = EO.EmployeeStatusID INNER JOIN Teams T ON T.TeamID = ES.TeamID WHERE T.TeamName = 'MyTeam' GROUP BY E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName ORDER BY E.FirstName, E.LastName What I have is a few tables, but I need to get only the newest status based on the EmployeeOpertionDate. This seems to work fine in SQL. I'm also using Ninject and set my query to return Ienumerable. I played around with the group by option but it then returns IGroupable. Any guidance on converting and returning the property object type would be appreciated. Edit: I started writing this out in LINQ but I'm not sure how to properly return the correct type or cast this. public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamName == "MyTeam" group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G; return q; } Edit2: This seems to work for me public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations.OrderByDescending(eo => eo.EmployeeOperationDate) on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamID == teamID group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G.FirstOrDefault(); return q; }

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  • Linq to Entities custom ordering via position mapping table

    - by Bigfellahull
    Hi, I have a news table and I would like to implement custom ordering. I have done this before via a positional mapping table which has newsIds and a position. I then LEFT OUTER JOIN the position table ON news.newsId = position.itemId with a select case statement CASE WHEN [position] IS NULL THEN 9999 ELSE [position] END and order by position asc, articleDate desc. Now I am trying to do the same with Linq to Entities. I have set up my tables with a PK, FK relationship so that my News object has an Entity Collection of positions. Now comes the bit I can't work out. How to implement the LEFT OUTER JOIN. I have so far: var query = SelectMany (n => n.Positions, (n, s) => new { n, s }) .OrderBy(x => x.s.position) .ThenByDescending(x => x.n.articleDate) .Select(x => x.n); This kinda works. However this uses a INNER JOIN so not what I am after. I had another idea: ret = ret.OrderBy(n => n.ShufflePositions.Select(s => s.position)); However I get the error DbSortClause expressions must have a type that is order comparable. I also tried ret = ret.GroupJoin(tse.ShufflePositions, n => n.id, s => s.itemId, (n, s) => new { n, s }) .OrderBy(x => x.s.Select(z => z.position)) .ThenByDescending(x => x.n.articleDate) .Select(x => x.n); but I get the same error! If anyone can help me out, it would be much appreciated!

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  • How to disable server-side caching on IIS 7.5 (asp net mvc3)

    - by troebr
    I'm struggling with my IIS setup regarding caching, here's a brief description of my problem: I'm making a site for mobile and non-mobile, sharing the same controllers. IE: mysite/page will serve either mysite/page.cshtml, or mysite/M/page.cshtml, depending on the device. Here's the catch, it worked fine with my local and integration environment (cassiini and iis 6), but on another machine (2008r2/iis 7.5), apparently there is an aggressive server-side caching policy: If I access the website from a desktop machine, I have the correct pages (desktop version) If now I use my mobile phone to access the site, I will have the desktop version, (which implies a server-side cache, my phone is not using the same network). On the contrary, if I were to restart the server and access the site using my phone first, then I will get the mobile version on my desktop (only for the pages I already visited of course). I tried 2 solutions so far: Disabling OutputCache from my Web.config: <httpModules> [..] <remove name="OutputCache" /> </httpModules> And unchecking "Enable output cache" in "Output Caching" for my site in IIS. What's bugging me is that I do not have this problem with my other server (iis 6.0), although caching is enabled on this one, which leads me to think it is related to iis 7 caching addition. My question is simple: how does one disable server-side caching on IIS 7.5? Thanks in advance for your iis lights!

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  • OpenExeConfiguration Path Issue

    - by Harry
    I'm trying to load an web.config from a server. Its placed at: \server\folders\web.config when i try this: ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(@"\\server\folders\web.config"); it searches for: web.config.config and fails. ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(@"\\server\folders\web"); it fails, because there is no folder \server\folders\web\ So i tried several things and it seems as its checking wether the file the path is pointing on exists, and afterwards it appliers a .config and gets the config file. Just for fun i created an web.loaders file, and a web.loaders.config file. with ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(@"\\server\folders\web.local"); it loads the \server\folders\web.local.config perfectly, but throws Exceptions without the web.local file. So there a many ways to get this small thing loaded, but isn't there a more nice one than using a temp .web file or something? Any help i highly appreciated, yours Harry

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  • A controller method that calls a different method on the same controller

    - by justSteve
    I have a controller method: public ActionResult Details(int id) { Order order = OrderFacade.Instance.Load(id); return View(order); } that is used for 95% of possible invocations. For the other 5% i need to manipulate the value of id before passing to the facade. I'd like to create a separate method within this same controller that executes that manipulation and then calls this (Details) method. What would the signature of that method look like? What is the syntax to call the main Details method? public ??? ManipulatorMethod(int id) { [stuff that manipulates id] [syntax to call Details(manipulatedID)] } mny thx

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  • How to dynamically set validation messages on properties with a class validation attribute

    - by Dan
    I'm writing Validation attribute that sits on the class but inspects the properties of the class. I want it to set a validation message on each of the properties it finds to be invalid. How do I do this? This is what I have got so far: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public class LinkedFieldValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { private readonly string[] _properiesToValidate; public LinkedFieldValidationAttribute(params string[] properiesToValidate) { _properiesToValidate = properiesToValidate; } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); foreach (var propertyName in _properiesToValidate) { var propertyValue = properties.Find(propertyName, false).GetValue(value); //if value is invalid add message from base } //return validity } }

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  • With ASP .NET, how do I display a side submenu depending on what user picked from the main menu?

    - by Ole Media
    Hello, I come from PHP side, but I'm in need to develop a site using ASP .NET So far I manage to create a master page. Now I'm dealing with menus and submenus What I'm trying to do is, if the user picks "About Us" from the main menu, under the about us page I want to display a submenu with the options "who we are, what we do, contact us" If the user picks "Our Products" from the main menu, then under the products page I want to display a submenu with the options "product 1, product 2, product 3" Is this possible with only one master page? I read something about menu control but not sure that is what I need. So far I found how to display a sitemap, but not specific sections of a sitemap, if this is the way to do things. Any links, sample code, point of reference will be appreciated. Thanks

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  • Trouble with Code First DatabaseGenerated Composite Primary Key

    - by Nick Fleetwood
    This is a tad complicated, and please, I know all the arguments against natural PK's, so we don't need to have that discussion. using VS2012/MVC4/C#/CodeFirst So, the PK is based on the date and a corresponding digit together. So, a few rows created today would be like this: 20131019 1 20131019 2 And one created tomorrow: 20131020 1 This has to be automatically generated using C# or as a trigger or whatever. The user wouldn't input this. I did come up with a solution, but I'm having problems with it, and I'm a little stuck, hence the question. So, I have a model: public class MainOne { //[Key] //public int ID { get; set; } [Key][Column(Order=1)] [DatabaseGenerated(DatabaseGeneratedOption.None)] public string DocketDate { get; set; } [Key][Column(Order=2)] [DatabaseGenerated(DatabaseGeneratedOption.None)] public string DocketNumber { get; set; } [StringLength(3, ErrorMessage = "Corp Code must be three letters")] public string CorpCode { get; set; } [StringLength(4, ErrorMessage = "Corp Code must be four letters")] public string DocketStatus { get; set; } } After I finish the model, I create a new controller and views using VS2012 scaffolding. Then, what I'm doing is debugging to create the database, then adding the following instead of trigger after Code First creates the DB [I don't know if this is correct procedure]: CREATE TRIGGER AutoIncrement_Trigger ON [dbo].[MainOnes] instead OF INSERT AS BEGIN DECLARE @number INT SELECT @number=COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[MainOnes] WHERE [DocketDate] = CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE()) INSERT INTO [dbo].[MainOnes] (DocketDate,DocketNumber,CorpCode,DocketStatus) SELECT (CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE ())),(@number+1),inserted.CorpCode,inserted.DocketStatus FROM inserted END And when I try to create a record, this is the error I'm getting: The changes to the database were committed successfully, but an error occurred while updating the object context. The ObjectContext might be in an inconsistent state. Inner exception message: The object state cannot be changed. This exception may result from one or more of the primary key properties being set to null. Non-Added objects cannot have null primary key values. See inner exception for details. Now, what's interesting to me, is that after I stop debugging and I start again, everything is perfect. The trigger fired perfectly, so the composite PK is unique and perfect, and the data in other columns is intact. My guess is that EF is confused by the fact that there is seemingly no value for the PK until AFTER an insert command is given. Also, appearing to back this theory, is that when I try to edit on of the rows, in debug, I get the following error: The number of primary key values passed must match number of primary key values defined on the entity. Same error occurs if I try to pull the 'Details' or 'Delete' function. Any solution or ideas on how to pull this off? I'm pretty open to anything, even creating a hidden int PK. But it would seem redundant. EDIT 21OCT13 [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(MainOne mainone) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { var countId = db.MainOnes.Count(d => d.DocketDate == mainone.DocketNumber); //assuming that the date field already has a value mainone.DocketNumber = countId + 1; //Cannot implicitly convert type int to string db.MainOnes.Add(mainone); db.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(mainone); } EDIT 21OCT2013 FINAL CODE SOLUTION For anyone like me, who is constantly searching for clear and complete solutions. if (ModelState.IsValid) { String udate = DateTime.UtcNow.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd"); mainone.DocketDate = udate; var ddate = db.MainOnes.Count(d => d.DocketDate == mainone.DocketDate); //assuming that the date field already has a value mainone.DocketNumber = ddate + 1; db.MainOnes.Add(mainone); db.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); }

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  • How do I protect my website from javascript injection attacks when using rich text editors?

    - by VJ
    Hi all I am using the markitup editor to get the value for one of my fields and storing it a sql server 2008 db. Now I guess the problem is people having script tags and javascript in the editor and injecting malicious scripts and I have my validate input turned false. So can anyone suggest me a way to write a custom validation method that maybe checks for script tags and removes them...or just guide me through the steps i need to do ?...also are there other things also that I should be worried about..?

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  • Moq.Mock<T> - how to setup a method that takes an expression

    - by Paul
    I am Mocking my repository interface and am not sure how to setup a method that takes an expression and returns an object? I am using Moq and NUnit Interface: public interface IReadOnlyRepository : IDisposable { IQueryable<T> All<T>() where T : class; T Single<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) where T : class; } Test with IQueryable already setup, but don't know how to setup the T Single: private Moq.Mock<IReadOnlyRepository> _mockRepos; private AdminController _controller; [SetUp] public void SetUp() { var allPages = new List<Page>(); for (var i = 0; i < 10; i++) { allPages.Add(new Page { Id = i, Title = "Page Title " + i, Slug = "Page-Title-" + i, Content = "Page " + i + " on page content." }); } _mockRepos = new Moq.Mock<IReadOnlyRepository>(); _mockRepos.Setup(x => x.All<Page>()).Returns(allPages.AsQueryable()); //Not sure what to do here??? _mockRepos.Setup(x => x.Single<Page>() //---- _controller = new AdminController(_mockRepos.Object); }

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  • Model-binding an object from the repository by several keys

    - by Anton
    Suppose the following route: {region}/{storehouse}/{controller}/{action} These two parameters region and storehouse altogether identify a single entity - a Storehouse. Thus, a bunch of controllers are being called in the context of some storehouse. And I'd like to write actions like this: public ActionResult SomeAction(Storehouse storehouse, ...) Here I can read your thoughts: "Write custom model binder, man". I do. However, the question is How to avoid magic strings within custom model binder? Here is my current code: public class StorehouseModelBinder : IModelBinder { readonly IStorehouseRepository repository; public StorehouseModelBinder(IStorehouseRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public object BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { var region = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("region").AttemptedValue; var storehouse = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("storehouse").AttemptedValue; return repository.GetByKey(region, storehouse); } } If there was a single key, bindingContext.ModelName could be used... Probably, there is another way to supply all the actions with a Storehouse object, i.e. declaring it as a property of the controller and populating it in the Controller.Initialize.

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  • nullable bool is being passed to the controller null all the time regardless of the value

    - by user1807954
    I'm trying to pass a nullable bool to my controller. But when I pass the bool value from my view to the controller, it's being passed null all the time regardless of the value it has in my view. Here is my view: @model Cars.Models.Car @using (Html.BeginForm("Index", "Home", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "CategoryFormID"})) { <label>Convertible:</label> <input type="checkbox" id="ConvertibleID" name="convertible"/> <button type="submit" name="submit" value="search" id="SubmitID">Search</button> } And my controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(bool? convertible){ var cars = from d in db.Car select d; if (convertible.HasValue) { cars = cars.Where(x => x.Convertible == convertible); } return View("SearchResult", cars); } I also have other fields such as drop down lists and text fields, but they're being passed flawless. Any help would be really appreciated. Update: Thank you for your fast responds. However, I did try giving it a value="True" as you guys suggested. There is only 2 options now: null and true. But my intention is to use nullable bool to have three options: null (when user doesn't touch the checkbox), true(checked) and false(unchecked). I know it sounds not smart and silly, but I'm just trying to figure out how nullable bool is working, and what is the intention of having such a thing in C# (I'm new with C#). I was wondering if it is possible to do so with just checkbox and without the use of dropdownlist or radio buttons.

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  • Different users get the same cookie - value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

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  • ContentNegotiatingViewResolver Issue

    - by Jay
    How to map a url of this kind "/myapp/sample" to map to the default MarshallingView instead of a JSTLView. @RequestMapping("/vets") public ModelMap vetsHandler() { Vets vets = new Vets(); vets.getVetList().addAll(this.clinic.getVets()); return new ModelMap(vets); } The above code works fine. When i tried to use http://.../vets.xml, I was able to download the xml. But, @RequestMapping("/myapp/vets") public ModelMap vetsHandler() { Vets vets = new Vets(); vets.getVetList().addAll(this.clinic.getVets()); return new ModelMap(vets); } doesn't resolve to the XML MarshalView, instead it resolves to JSTLView. Any thoughts? below is the spring v 3 configuration from the petclinic example, that i'm using. <bean id="vets" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.xml.MarshallingView"> <property name="contentType" value="application/vnd.springsource.samples.petclinic+xml"/> <property name="marshaller" ref="marshaller"/> </bean> <bean id="test" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.xml.MarshallingView"> <property name="contentType" value="application/vnd.springsource.samples.petclinic+xml"/> <property name="marshaller" ref="marshaller"/> </bean> <oxm:jaxb2-marshaller id="marshaller"> <oxm:class-to-be-bound name="org.springframework.samples.petclinic.Vets"/> <oxm:class-to-be-bound name="org.springframework.samples.petclinic.Test1"/> </oxm:jaxb2-marshaller>

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  • INSERT stored procedure does not work?

    - by vikitor
    Hello, I'm trying to make an insertion from one database called suspension to the table called Notification in the ANimals database. My stored procedure is this: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[spCreateNotification] -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here @notRecID int, @notName nvarchar(50), @notRecStatus nvarchar(1), @notAdded smalldatetime, @notByWho int AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; -- Insert statements for procedure here INSERT INTO Animals.dbo.Notification values (@notRecID, @notName, @notRecStatus, null, @notAdded, @notByWho); END The null inserting is to replenish one column that otherwise will not be filled, I've tried different ways, like using also the names for the columns after the name of the table and then only indicate in values the fields I've got. I know it is not a problem of the stored procedure because I executed it from the sql server management studio and it works introducing the parameters. Then I guess the problem must be in the repository when I call the stored procedure: public void createNotification(Notification not) { try { DB.spCreateNotification(not.NotRecID, not.NotName, not.NotRecStatus, (DateTime)not.NotAdded, (int)not.NotByWho); } catch { return; } } It does not record the value in the database. I've been debugging and getting mad about this, because it works when I execute it manually, but not when I automatize the proccess in my application. Does anyone see anything wrong with my code? Thank you

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  • ASP.NET client side validation with dataannotations - javascript minimumlength zero

    - by Kordonme
    Hi! I'm doing client side validation on a project I'm working on. Everything works, except for the minimumlength property of the StringLength attribute (it works when submitting and a serverside validation is done): [StringLength(50, MinimumLength = 6)] The javascript generated by Html.EnableClientValication(); is the following: // snip {"FieldName":"User.Password","ReplaceValidationMessageContents":true,"ValidationMessageId":"User_Password_validationMessage","ValidationRules":[{"ErrorMessage":"The field Password must be a string with a minimum length of 6 and a maximum length of 50.","ValidationParameters":{"minimumLength":0,"maximumLength":50},"ValidationType":"stringLength"}]}],"FormId":"form0","ReplaceValidationSummary":false}) The important thing is here: {"minimumLength":0,"maximumLength":50} It produces javascript with the wrong minimumproperty. You guys have a hint? Is this a possible bug?

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