Search Results

Search found 7651 results on 307 pages for 'execution plan'.

Page 255/307 | < Previous Page | 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262  | Next Page >

  • Testing approach for multi-threaded software

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a piece of mature geospatial software that has recently had areas rewritten to take better advantage of the multiple processors available in modern PCs. Specifically, display, GUI, spatial searching, and main processing have all been hived off to seperate threads. The software has a pretty sizeable GUI automation suite for functional regression, and another smaller one for performance regression. While all automated tests are passing, I'm not convinced that they provide nearly enough coverage in terms of finding bugs relating race conditions, deadlocks, and other nasties associated with multi-threading. What techniques would you use to see if such bugs exist? What techniques would you advocate for rooting them out, assuming there are some in there to root out? What I'm doing so far is running the GUI functional automation on the app running under a debugger, such that I can break out of deadlocks and catch crashes, and plan to make a bounds checker build and repeat the tests against that version. I've also carried out a static analysis of the source via PC-Lint with the hope of locating potential dead locks, but not had any worthwhile results. The application is C++, MFC, mulitple document/view, with a number of threads per doc. The locking mechanism I'm using is based on an object that includes a pointer to a CMutex, which is locked in the ctor and freed in the dtor. I use local variables of this object to lock various bits of code as required, and my mutex has a time out that fires my a warning if the timeout is reached. I avoid locking where possible, using resource copies where possible instead. What other tests would you carry out?

    Read the article

  • Is the REST support in Spring 3's MVC Framework production quality yet?

    - by glenjohnson
    Hi all, Since Spring 3 was released in December last year, I have been trying out the new REST features in the MVC framework for a small commercial project involving implementing a few RESTful Web Services which consume XML and return XML views using JiBX. I plan to use either Hibernate or JDBC Templates for the data persistence. As a Spring 2.0 developer, I have found Spring 3's (and 2.5's) new annotations way of doing things quite a paradigm shift and have personally found some of the new MVC annotation features difficult to get up to speed with for non-trivial applications - as such, I am often having to dig for information in forums and blogs that is not apparent from going through the reference guide or from the various Spring 3 REST examples on the web. For deadline-driven production quality and mission critical applications implementing a RESTful architecture, should I be holding off from Spring 3 and rather be using mature JSR 311 (JAX-RS) compliant frameworks like RESTlet or Jersey for the REST layer of my code (together with Spring 2 / 2.5 to tie things together)? I had no problems using RESTlet 1.x in a previous project and it was quite easy to get up to speed with (no magic tricks behind the scenes), but when starting my current project it initially looked like the new REST stuff in Spring 3's MVC Framework would make life easier. Do any of you out there have any advice to give on this? Does anyone know of any commercial / production-quality projects using, or having successfully delivered with, the new REST stuff in Spring 3's MVC Framework. Many thanks Glen

    Read the article

  • From Sinatra Base object. Get port of application including the base object

    - by Poul
    I have a Sinatra::Base object that I would like to include in all of my web apps. In that base class I have the configure method which is called on start-up. I would like that configure code to 'register' that service with a centralized database. The information that needs to be sent when registering is the information on how to contact this web-service... things like host and port. I then plan on having a monitoring service that will spin over all registered services and occasionally ping them to make sure they are still up and running. In the configure method I am having trouble getting the port information. The 'self.settings.port' variable doesn't seem to work in this method. a) any ideas on how to get the port? I have the host. b) is there a sinatra plug-in that already does something like this so I don't have to write it myself? :-) //in my Sinatra::Base code. lets call it register_me.rb RegisterMe < Sinatra::Base configure do //save host and port information to database end get '/check_status' //return status end //in my web service code require register_me //at this point, sinatra will initialize the RegisterMe object and call configure post ('/blah') //example of a method for this particular web service end

    Read the article

  • Correct way to do timer function in Python

    - by bwawok
    Hi. I have a GUI application that needs to do something simple in the background (update a wx python progress bar, but that doesn't really matter). I see that there is a threading.timer class.. but there seems to be no way to make it repeat. So if I use the timer, I end up having to make a new thread on every single execution... like : import threading import time def DoTheDew(): print "I did it" t = threading.Timer(1, function=DoTheDew) t.daemon = True t.start() if __name__ == '__main__': t = threading.Timer(1, function=DoTheDew) t.daemon = True t.start() time.sleep(10) This seems like I am making a bunch of threads that do 1 silly thing and die.. why not write it as : import threading import time def DoTheDew(): while True: print "I did it" time.sleep(1) if __name__ == '__main__': t = threading.Thread(target=DoTheDew) t.daemon = True t.start() time.sleep(10) Am I missing some way to make a timer keep doing something? Either of these options seems silly... I am looking for a timer more like a java.util.Timer that can schedule the thread to happen every second... If there isn't a way in Python, which of my above methods is better and why?

    Read the article

  • Scheduling algorithm optimized to execute during low usage periods.

    - by The Rook
    Lets say there is a Web Application serving mostly one country. Because of normal sleep habits website traffic follows a Sine wave, where 1 period lasts 24 hours and the lowest part of the wave is at about midnight. Is there a scheduling algorithm optimized to execute during low usage periods? I am thinking of this as a liquid that is "pored into" this sine wave to flatten out resource usage. A ideal algorithm would take the integral of this empty space. If the same tasks need to be run daily the amount of resources consumed by previous executions could be used to predict future usage by looking at the rate in which resource usage is increasing. By knowing the amount of resources required this algorithm could fill in this empty space while leaving as much buffer as possible on either side such that its interference was reduced as much as possible. It would also be possible to detect if there isn't enough resources before execution begins, this opens the door for a cloud to help out. Does anything like this exist? Or should I build it into an existing scheduler like quartz and make it open source?

    Read the article

  • Endianness and C API's: Specifically OpenSSL.

    - by Hassan Syed
    I have an algorithm that uses the following OpenSSL calls: HMAC_update() / HMAC_final() // ripe160 EVP_CipherUpdate() / EVP_CipherFinal() // cbc_blowfish These algorithm take a unsigned char * into the "plain text". My input data is comes from a C++ std::string::c_str() which originate from a protocol buffer object as a encoded UTF-8 string. UTF-8 strings are meant to be endian neutrial. However I'm a bit paranoid about how OpenSSL may perform operations on the data. My understanding is that encryption algorithms work on 8-bit blocks of data, and if a unsigned char * is used for pointer arithmetic when the operations are performed the algorithms should be endian neutral and I do not need to worry about anything. My uncertainty is compounded by the fact that I am working on a little-endian machine and have never done any real cross-architecture programming. My beliefs/reasoning are/is based on the following two properties std::string (not wstring) internally uses a 8-bit ptr and a the resulting c_str() ptr will itterate the same way regardless of the CPU architecture. Encryption algorithms are either by design, or by implementation, endian neutral. I know the best way to get a definitive answer is to use QEMU and do some cross-platform unit tests (which I plan to do). My question is a request for comments on my reasoning, and perhaps will assist other programmers when faced with similar problems.

    Read the article

  • Android Signal analysis + some filters.

    - by Profete162
    Hello, as the world cup is the main sport event and the Vuvuzelas are the most annoying sound in the world, I had an idea to remove them definitively by reading this new ( http://www.popsci.com/diy/article/2010-06/simple-software-can-filter-out-vuvuzela-whine) that told us that the sound has some frequencies at 233Hz + 466,932,1864Hz. I have already made a lot of Android application by myself but never touching the signal analysis and filtering part, so here are a few questions, I do not ask for precise answer but maybe links and tutorial to find something to work on. I guess that a new Android phone has the CPU and power to make real-time filtering. 1) How can I intercept the sound coming from the Jack microphone - Line-IN plug- ( I plan to link my TV to my phone with Jack to Jack plug). My question is totally software and coding, I have all the wires and adapters to plug a jack into my android phone Line IN. 2) Are there some Fourier analysis librairies, may I have a look to Java libraries on the web and import them to my Android project? I really apologize because my question seem not precise, but I think that would be something great. Thank you for your answers.

    Read the article

  • sybase - values from one table that aren't on another, on opposite ends of a 3-table join

    - by Lazy Bob
    Hypothetical situation: I work for a custom sign-making company, and some of our clients have submitted more sign designs than they're currently using. I want to know what signs have never been used. 3 tables involved: table A - signs for a company sign_pk(unique) | company_pk | sign_description 1 --------------------1 ---------------- small 2 --------------------1 ---------------- large 3 --------------------2 ---------------- medium 4 --------------------2 ---------------- jumbo 5 --------------------3 ---------------- banner table B - company locations company_pk | company_location(unique) 1 ------|------ 987 1 ------|------ 876 2 ------|------ 456 2 ------|------ 123 table C - signs at locations (it's a bit of a stretch, but each row can have 2 signs, and it's a one to many relationship from company location to signs at locations) company_location | front_sign | back_sign 987 ------------ 1 ------------ 2 987 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 876 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 456 ------------ 3 ------------ 4 123 ------------ 4 ------------ 3 So, a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location. What I want to try and find is how to query and get back that sign_pk 5 isn't at any location. Querying each sign_pk against all of the front_sign and back_sign values is a little impractical, since all the tables have millions of rows. Table a is indexed on sign_pk and company_pk, table b on both fields, and table c only on company locations. The way I'm trying to write it is along the lines of "each sign belongs to a company, so find the signs that are not the front or back sign at any of the locations that belong to the company tied to that sign." My original plan was: Select a.sign_pk from a, b, c where a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location and a.sign_pk *= c.front_sign group by a.sign_pk having count(c.front_sign) = 0 just to do the front sign, and then repeat for the back, but that won't run because c is an inner member of an outer join, and also in an inner join. This whole thing is fairly convoluted, but if anyone can make sense of it, I'll be your best friend.

    Read the article

  • CCNet exception during build of vs2010 project

    - by sonee
    We have two build machines. Lately, we've migrated our projects to vs2010 from vs2005. But the problem is that one of the machines occurs error during build. Another machine works well, but just one machine shows error. The differences between the machines are os and computer spec. The machine which is working well is installed windows server 2003 and the other is windows7. the error message is unhandled exception: System.NullReferenceException: Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.ThreadHelper.InvokeOnUIThread(InvokableBase invokable) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.ThreadHelper.Invoke(Action action)Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VS.Implementation.VSShellServices.InvokeOnUIThread(Action method) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VisualC.VCProjectEngine.ApartmentMarshaler.Invoke(Action method) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VisualC.VCProjectEngine.VCConfigBuildJob.BuildCompleted(BuildSubmission ar) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.Contracts.Implementation.BuildProjectBase.BuildCompletedCallbackManager.BuildCompleted(BuildSubmission buildSubmission) Microsoft.Build.Execution.BuildSubmission.<CheckForCompletion>b__0(Object state) System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state, Boolean ignoreSyncCtx) System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.System.Threading.IThreadPoolWorkItem.ExecuteWorkItem() System.Threading.ThreadPoolWorkQueue.Dispatch() System.Threading._ThreadPoolWaitCallback.PerformWaitCallback() Curiously enough, when I run building project in command line on the machine which occurs error, it works well. The machine just shows error when launched by ccnet. I've installed latest version of ccnet to all machines. Is there anybody who faced like this problem?

    Read the article

  • "Special case" records for foreign key constraints

    - by keithjgrant
    Let's say I have a mysql table, called foo with a foreign key option_id constrained to the option table. When I create a foo record, the user may or may not have selected an option, and 'no option' is a viable selection. What is the best way to differentiate between 'null' (i.e. the user hasn't made a selection yet) and 'no option' (i.e. the user selected 'no option')? Right now, my plan is to insert a special record into the option table. Let's say that winds up with an id of 227 (this table already has a number of records at this point, so '1' isn't available). I have no need to access this record at a database level, and it would act as nothing more than a placeholder that the foreign key in the foo table can reference. So do I just hard-code '227' in my codebase when I'm creating 'foo' records where the user has selected 'no option'? The hard-coded id seems sloppy, and leaves room for error as the code is maintained down the road, but I'm not really sure of another approach.

    Read the article

  • MySQL "OR MATCH" hangs (very slow) on multiple tables

    - by Kerry
    After learning how to do MySQL Full-Text search, the recommended solution for multiple tables was OR MATCH and then do the other database call. You can see that in my query below. When I do this, it just gets stuck in a "busy" state, and I can't access the MySQL database. SELECT a.`product_id`, a.`name`, a.`slug`, a.`description`, b.`list_price`, b.`price`, c.`image`, c.`swatch`, e.`name` AS industry, MATCH( a.`name`, a.`sku`, a.`description` ) AGAINST ( '%s' IN BOOLEAN MODE ) AS relevance FROM `products` AS a LEFT JOIN `website_products` AS b ON (a.`product_id` = b.`product_id`) LEFT JOIN ( SELECT `product_id`, `image`, `swatch` FROM `product_images` WHERE `sequence` = 0) AS c ON (a.`product_id` = c.`product_id`) LEFT JOIN `brands` AS d ON (a.`brand_id` = d.`brand_id`) INNER JOIN `industries` AS e ON (a.`industry_id` = e.`industry_id`) WHERE b.`website_id` = %d AND b.`status` = %d AND b.`active` = %d AND MATCH( a.`name`, a.`sku`, a.`description` ) AGAINST ( '%s' IN BOOLEAN MODE ) OR MATCH ( d.`name` ) AGAINST ( '%s' IN BOOLEAN MODE ) GROUP BY a.`product_id` ORDER BY relevance DESC LIMIT 0, 9 Any help would be greatly appreciated. EDIT All the tables involved are MyISAM, utf8_general_ci. Here's the EXPLAIN SELECT statement: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY a ALL NULL NULL NULL NULL 16076 Using temporary; Using filesort 1 PRIMARY b ref product_id product_id 4 database.a.product_id 2 1 PRIMARY e eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 database.a.industry_id 1 1 PRIMARY <derived2> ALL NULL NULL NULL NULL 23261 1 PRIMARY d eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 database.a.brand_id 1 Using where 2 DERIVED product_images ALL NULL NULL NULL NULL 25933 Using where I don't know how to make that look neater -- sorry about that UPDATE it returns the query after 196 seconds (I think correctly). The query without multiple tables takes about .56 seconds (which I know is really slow, we plan on changing to solr or sphinx soon), but 196 seconds?? If we could add a number to the relevance if it was in the brand name ( d.name ), that would also work

    Read the article

  • javascript error handeling

    - by pankaj
    I have a javascript function for checking errors which i am callin on OnClicentClick event of a button. Once it catch a error i want to stop execution of click event . But in my case it always it always executes the onclick event. Following is my function: function DisplayError() { if (document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length < 6 || document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length > 12) { document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Password length must be between 6 to 12 characters"; return false; } var str = <%=PhoneNumber()%>; if(str.length <10) { alert('<%=phoneNum%>'.length); document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Phone Number not in correct format"; return false; } } button html code: <asp:Button runat="server" Text="Submit" ID="btnSubmit" ValidationGroup="submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" OnClientClick="DisplayError()"/> It should not execute the button click event once it satisfies any of the IF condition in javascript function.

    Read the article

  • Framework or design pattern for mailing all users of a webapp

    - by Todd Owen
    My app takes care of user registration (with the option to receive email announcements), and can easily handle the actual template-based rendering of email for a given user. JavaMail provides the mail transport layer. But how should I design the application layer between the business objects (e.g. User) and the mail transport? The straightforward approach would be a simple, synchronous loop: iterate through the users, queue the emails, and be done with it. "Queue" might mean sending them straight to the MTA (mail server), or to an in-memory queue to be consumed by another thread. However, I also plan to implement features like throttling the rate of emails, processing bounced emails (NDRs), and maintaining status across application restarts. My intuition is that a good design would decouple this from both the business layer and the mail transport layer as much as possible. I wondered if others had solved this problem before, but after much searching I haven't found any Java libraries which seem to fit this problem. Standalone mail apps such as James or list servers are too large in scope; packages like Spring's MailSender or Commons Email are too small in scope (being basically drop-in replacements for JavaMail). For other languages I haven't found anything appropriate either. I'm curious about how other developers have gone about adding bulk mailing to their applications.

    Read the article

  • How do I display java.lang.* object allocations in Eclipse profiler?

    - by Martin Wickman
    I am profiling an application using the Eclipse profiler. I am particularly interested in number of allocated object instances of classes from java.lang (for instance java.lang.String or java.util.HashMap). I also want to know stuff like number of calls to String.equals() etc. I use the "Object Allocations" tab and I shows all classes in my application and a count. It also shows all int[], byte[], long[] etc, but there is no mention of any standard java classes. For instance, this silly code: public static void main(String[] args) { Object obj[] = new Object[1000]; for (int i = 0; i < 1000; i++) { obj[i] = new StringBuffer("foo" + i); } System.out.println (obj[30]); } Shows up in the Object Allocations tab as 7 byte[]s, 4 char[]s and 2 int[]s. It doesn't matter if I use 1000 or 1 iterations. It seems the profiler simply ignores everything that is in any of the java.* packages. The same applies to Execution Statistics as well. Any idea how to display instances of java.* in the Eclipse Profiler?

    Read the article

  • SqlCeResultSet Problem

    - by Vlad
    Hello, I have a SmartDevice project (.NetCF 2.0) configured to be tested on the USA Windows Mobile 5.0 Pocket PC R2 Emulator. My project uses SqlCe 3.0. Understanding that a SmartDevice project is "more carefull" with the device's memory I am using SqlCeResultSets. The result sets are strongly typed, autogenerated by Visual Studio 2008 using the custom tool MSResultSetGenerator. The problem I am facing is that the result set does not recognize any column names. The autogenerated code for the fields does not work. In the client code I am using InfoResultSet rs = new InfoResultSet(); rs.Open(); rs.ReadFirst(); string myFormattedDate = rs.MyDateColumn.ToString("dd/MM/yyyy"); When the execution on the emulator reaches the rs.MyDateColumn the application throws an System.IndexOutOfRangeException. Investigating the stack trace at System.Data.SqlServerCe.FieldNameLookup.GetOrdinal() at System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeDataReader.GetOrdinal() I've tested the GetOrdinal method (in my autogenerated class that inherits SqlCeResultSet): this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"); // throws an exception this.GetName(1); // returns "MyDateColumn" this.GetOrdinal(this.GetName(1)); //throws an exception :) [edit added] The table exists and it's filled with data. Using typed DataSets works like a charm. Regenerating the SqlCeResultSet does not solve the issue, the problem remains. The problem basically is that I am not able to access a column by it's name. The data can be accessed trough this.GetDateTime(1)using the column ordinal. The application fails executing this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"). Also I have updated Visual Studio 2008 to Service Pack 1. Additionaly I am developing the project on a virtual machine with Windows XP SP 2, but in my opinion if the medium is virtual or not should have no effect on the developing. Am I doing something wrong or am I missing something? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • CIE XYZ colorspace: do I have RGBA or XYZA?

    - by Tronic
    I plan to write a painting program based on linear combinations of xy plane points (0,1), (1,0) and (0,0). Such system works identically to RGB, except that the primaries are not within the gamut but at the corners of a triangle that encloses the entire gamut. I have seen the three points being referred to as X, Y and Z (upper case) somewhere, but I cannot find the page anymore (I marked them to the picture myself). My pixel format stores the intensity of each of those three components the same way as RGB does, together with alpha value. This allows using pretty much any image manipulation operation designed for RGBA without modifying the code. What is my format called? Is it XYZA, RGBA or something else? Google doesn't seem to know of XYZA. RGBA will get confused with sRGB + alpha (which I also need to use in the same program). Notice that the primaries X, Y and Z and their intensities have little to do with the x, y and z coordinates (lower case) that are more commonly used.

    Read the article

  • Personalized UIView created with Interface Builder

    - by Malox
    I need to project a personalized UIView with a UIImageView and 3 UILabel. I need to allocate more of this view because I want put it into a UIScrollView. I would avoid to generate the view programatically because it's difficult and boring design it. My idea is to create a new class that extends UIView and design it with interface builder. For example my Personalized View code is like that: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface PersonalizedPreview : UIView { IBOutlet UIImageView *image; IBOutlet UILabel *first_label; IBOutlet UILabel *second_label; IBOutlet UILabel *third_label; } -(void) setImage:(UIImage *)image; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIImageView *image; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UILabel *label; .... @end I would create an associated xib file for this view and initialize it simply specifing the xib file. Note that I don't want create a specific ViewController for this view and PersonalizedView is instantiate at runtime not when the app runs, moreover I don't know how many PersonalizedView I will instantiate, it depends on runtime execution. Anyone can help me? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • Java Play Mustache NPE Error

    - by zanedev
    We are getting a mustache play error in production (amazon linux EC2 AMI) but not in development (MACs) and we have tried upgrading the jvm, using the jdk instead, and changing from a tomcat deploy model to match our development environments as much as possible but nothing is working. Please any help would be greatly appreciated. We have lots of shared code in java and javascript using mustache and it would be a big deal to rewrite everything if we had to ditch mustache on the java side. 20:48:52,403 ERROR ~ @6al2dd0po Internal Server Error (500) for request GET /mystuff/people Execution exception (In {module:mustache-0.2}/app/play/modules/mustache/MustacheTags.java around line 32) NullPointerException occured : null play.exceptions.JavaExecutionException at play.templates.BaseTemplate.throwException(BaseTemplate.java:90) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.internalRender(GroovyTemplate.java:257) at play.templates.Template.render(Template.java:26) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.render(GroovyTemplate.java:187) at play.mvc.results.RenderTemplate.<init>(RenderTemplate.java:24) at play.mvc.Controller.renderTemplate(Controller.java:660) at play.mvc.Controller.renderTemplate(Controller.java:640) at play.mvc.Controller.render(Controller.java:695) at controllers.MyStuff.people(MyStuff.java:183) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeWithContinuation(ActionInvoker.java:548) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invoke(ActionInvoker.java:502) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeControllerMethod(ActionInvoker.java:478) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeControllerMethod(ActionInvoker.java:473) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invoke(ActionInvoker.java:161) at Invocation.HTTP Request(Play!) Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at play.modules.mustache.MustacheTags._template(MustacheTags.java:32) at play.modules.mustache.MustacheTags$_template.call(Unknown Source) at /app/views/User/people.html.(line:22) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.internalRender(GroovyTemplate.java:232) ... 13 more

    Read the article

  • Make an empty DIV height and width of its container

    - by Olly F
    My HTML currently contains a background image that stretches with the viewport. Within that, I plan to place a div that stretches to the height and width of the viewport and has black background colour at 50% opacity. I've set the div to be 100% width and height. The div is not stretching and I can't figure out why! HTML: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>Tester</title> <meta charset="UTF-8"/> <style type="text/css"> html { background: url(http://cjpstudio.com/wp-content/uploads/2011/12/cityrock1.jpg) no-repeat center center fixed; -webkit-background-size: cover; -moz-background-size: cover; -o-background-size: cover; background-size: cover; } #background-color { width: 100%; height: 100%; background-color: #000000; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="background-color"> </div> </body>

    Read the article

  • How to catch YouTube embed code and turn into URL

    - by Jonathan Vanasco
    I need to strip YouTube embed codes down to their URL only. This is the exact opposite of all but one question on StackOverflow. Most people want to turn the URL into an embed code. This question addresses the usage patttern I want, but is tied to a specific embed code's regex ( Strip YouTube Embed Code Down to URL Only ) I'm not familiar with how YouTube has offered embeds over the years - or how the sizes differ. According to their current site, there are 2 possible embed templates and a variety of options. If that's it, I can handle a regex myself -- but I was hoping someone had more knowledge they could share, so I could write a proper regex pattern that matches them all and not run into endless edge-cases. The full use case scenario : user enters content in web based wysiwig editor backend cleans out youtube & other embed codes; reformats approved embeds into an internal format as the text is all converted to markdown. on display, appropriate current template/code display for youtube or other 3rd party site is generated At a previous company, our tech-team devised a plan where YouTube videos were embedded by listing the URL only. That worked great , but it was in a CMS where everyone was trained. I'm trying to create a similar storage, but for user-generated-content.

    Read the article

  • PHP Cookie Warning...

    - by Nano HE
    Hi,I am new to PHP, I practised PHP setcookie() just now and failed. http://localhost/test/index.php <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <title></title> </head> <body> <?php $value = 'something from somewhere'; setcookie("TestCookie", $value); ?> </body> </html> http://localhost/test/view.php <?php // I plan to view the cookie value via view.php echo $_COOKIE["TestCookie"]; ?> But I failed to run index.php, IE warning like this. Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\test\index.php:9) in C:\xampp\htdocs\test\index.php on line 12 I enabled my IE 6 cookie no doubt. Is there anything wrong on my procedure above? Thank you. WinXP OS and XAMPP 1.7.3 used.

    Read the article

  • PHP file upload issue

    - by Varun
    I am working on a PHP based, ticket management system. While creating a ticket, one can upload an attachment. I want to put a limit (say 10 MB) per file upload. To implement this I plan the following- 1. In php.ini set post_max_size = 10M 2.In PHP script which receives the POST- Since the file is larger than post_max_size, $_FILES[] will be empty. But I can still check the content-length header and discard the upload, if size more than 10M. While testing this I tried uploading a file of 1 GB and analysed the http traffic and this is what I found. - the entire 1 GB data is first uploaded to a to the server temporarily and discarded once the http request completes. Though I couldn't exactly find out where the file was getting saved(as it was not there in the temporary directory in the server.), but my http traffic analyzer showed that the browser did send 1 GB data to the server. - the PHP script execution started only after completion of the http request(i.e after uploading the entire 1 GB) Now I have 2 concerns: a) People may exploit my server bandwidth by trying to upload large file, which I will have to discard anyways. b) Even worse, if someone starts uploading a huge file (say 100 GB), entire 100 GB data is first uploaded to the server temporarily, that means for that period, it will consume that much of memory on my server. What's the common solution for this. Am I missing something here?

    Read the article

  • Client-Side Dynamic Removal of <script> Tags in <head>

    - by merv
    Is it possible to remove script tags in the <head> of an HTML document client-side and prior to execution of those tags? On the server-side I am able to insert a <script> above all other <script> tags in the <head>, except one, and I would like to be able to remove all subsequent scripts. I do not have the ability to remove <script> tags from the server side. What I've tried: (function (c,h) { var i, s = h.getElementsByTagName('script'); c.log("Num scripts: " + s.length); i = s.length - 1; while(i > 1) { h.removeChild(s[i]); i -= 1; } })(console, document.head); However, the logged number of scripts comes out to only 1, since (as @ryan pointed out) the code is being executed prior to the DOM being ready. Although wrapping the code above in a document.ready event callback does enable proper calculation of the number of <script> tags in the <head>, waiting until the DOM is ready fails to prevent the scripts from loading. Is there a reliable means of manipulating the HTML prior to the DOM being ready? Background If you want more context, this is part of an attempt to consolidate scripts where no option for server-side aggregation is available. Many of the JS libraries being loaded are from a CMS with limited configuration options. The content is mostly static, so there is very little concern about manually aggregating the JavaScript and serving it from a different location. Any suggestions for alternative applicable aggregation techniques would also be welcome.

    Read the article

  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Using LINQ to map dynamically (or construct projections)

    - by CodeGrue
    I know I can map two object types with LINQ using a projection as so: var destModel = from m in sourceModel select new DestModelType {A = m.A, C = m.C, E = m.E} where class SourceModelType { string A {get; set;} string B {get; set;} string C {get; set;} string D {get; set;} string E {get; set;} } class DestModelType { string A {get; set;} string C {get; set;} string E {get; set;} } But what if I want to make something like a generic to do this, where I don't know specifically the two types I am dealing with. So it would walk the "Dest" type and match with the matching "Source" types.. is this possible? Also, to achieve deferred execution, I would want it just to return an IQueryable. For example: public IQueryable<TDest> ProjectionMap<TSource, TDest>(IQueryable<TSource> sourceModel) { // dynamically build the LINQ projection based on the properties in TDest // return the IQueryable containing the constructed projection } I know this is challenging, but I hope not impossible, because it will save me a bunch of explicit mapping work between models and viewmodels.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262  | Next Page >