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  • Cannot rollback ransaction with Entity Framework

    - by Luca
    I have to do queries on uncommitted changes and I tried to use transactions, but I found that it do not work if there are exceptions. I made a simple example to reproduce the problem. I have a database with only one table called "Tabella" and the table has two fields: "ID" is a autogenerated integer, and "Valore" is an integer with a Unique constraint. Then I try to run this code: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { Db1Container db1 = new Db1Container(); try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 1 }); db1.SaveChanges(); } catch { } try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 1 }); db1.SaveChanges(); //Unique constraint is violated here and an exception is thrown } catch { } try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 2 }); db1.SaveChanges(); } catch { } //scope.Complete(); //NEVER called } //here everything should be rolled back Now if I look into the database it should contain no records because the transaction should rollback, instead I find two records!!!! One with Valore=1 and one with Valore=2. I am missing something? It looks like the second call to SaveChanges method rollback its own changes and "deletes" the transaction, then the third call to SaveChanges commits the changes of the first and the third insert (at this point it is like the transaction not exists). I also tried to use SaveChanges(false) method (even without calling AcceptAllChanges method), but with no success: I have the same behaviour. I do not want the transaction to be rolled back automatically by SaveChanges, because I want to correct the errors (for example by user interaction in the catch statement) and make a retry. Can someone help me with this? It seems like a "bug", and it is giving me a really big headache...

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  • How to catch an expected (and intended) 302 response code with generic XmlHttpRequest?

    - by Anthony
    So, if you look back at my previous question about Exchange Autodiscover, you'll see that the easiet way to get the autodiscover URL is to send a non-secure, non-authenticated GET request to the server, ala: http://autodiscover.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml The server will respond with a 302 redirect with the correct url in the Location header. I'm trying out something really simple at first with a Chrome extension, where I have: if (req.readyState==4 && req.status==302) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } With another ajax call set up with the full XML Post and the user credentials, But instead Chrome hangs at this point, and a look at the developer panel shows that it is not returning back the response but instead is acting like no response was given, meanwhile showing a Uncaught Error: NETWORK_ERR: XMLHttpRequest Exception 101 in the error log. The way I see it, refering to the exact response status is about the same as "catching" it, but I'm not sure if the problem is with Chrome/WebKit or if this is how XHR requests always handle redirects. I'm not sure how to catch this so that I can get still get the headers from the response. Or would it be possible to set up a secondary XHR such that when it gets the 302, it sends a totally different request? Quick Update I just changed it so that it doesn't check the response code: if (req.readyState==4) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } and instead when I alert out the value it's null. and there is still the same error and no response in the dev console. SO it seems like it either doesn't track 302 responses as responses, or something happens after that wipes that response out?

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  • Jquery cookie plugin - conditional content determined by cookie being set

    - by Dave
    Hello I have a sign up form that is displayed to all new site visitors. If a user fills out the form, the next time they visit the site, I would like to display a "welcome back" message where the form would usually sit. I am trying to do this via the jquery cookie plugin (http://plugins.jquery.com/project/Cookie). My form would look like this: <div id="sign_up_form_wrapper"><form id="sign_up" action="" method="POST" name="form"> <input type="checkbox" name="checkbox" id="checkbox" value="1">&nbsp; I accept the terms and conditions</a> <br /><br /><input type="submit" value="ENTER"> </form></div> And I am setting my cookie here: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $().ready(function() { $('#sign_upm').submit(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); if ($('#sign_up input[name=checkbox]').is(':checked')) { $.cookie('agreed_to_terms', '1', { path: '/', expires: 999999 }); } }); }); </script> That will set the cookie when a user has checked the box, but now I need to do somehting like this: if the cookie has been set, do this: <div id="sign_up_form_wrapper"> <p>Welcome back, John</p> </div> otherwise do this: <div id="sign_up_form_wrapper"> <!-- full form code here --> </div> Any ideas or pointers would be very appreciated, thanks.

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  • using text and ntext SQL Datatypes in RPG

    - by David Stratton
    I'll preface this with saying that I'm a .NET developer, and am NOT an RPG developer. I'm working with one of our RPG developers to come up with a solution, so any suggestions you provide will get passed to him. We have a scenario where we want our iSeries to read from a SQL Server database. One of the columns is a TEXT column. IN RPG, there is no equivalent data type to use for this. We've gone back and forth on this, and our current plan is to change course, and have our SQL Server write out a text file, which the iSeries can pick up and parse. This is, however, a last resort option, as the data in the file is sensitive, and we'd like to avoid the additional security overhead. We've already got the SQL Server locked down as tight as possible (one user only has read access to this, and that user is an iSeries user.) We don't want to have to worry about transferring files back and forth. However, at this point, we see no other option. We have no in-house Java developers, and need to do this in RPG. So I'm wondering if there are any RPG developers out there who have faced this situation and have any advice.

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  • Which pattern should be used for editing properties with modal view controller on iPhone?

    - by Matthew Daugherty
    I am looking for a good pattern for performing basic property editing via a modal view on the iPhone. Assume I am putting together an application that works like the Contacts application. The "detail" view controller displays all of the contact's properties in a UITableView. When the UITableView goes into edit mode a disclosure icon is displayed in the cells. Clicking a cell causes a modal "editor" view controller to display a view that allows the user to modify the selected property. This view will often contain only a single text box or picker. The user clicks Cancel/Save and the "editor" view is dismissed and the "detail" view is updated. In this scenario, which view is responsible for updating the model? The "editor" view could update the property directly using Key-Value Coding. This appears in the CoreDataBooks example. This makes sense to me on some level because it treats the property as the model for the editor view controller. However, this is not the pattern suggested by the View Controller Programming Guide. It suggests that the "editor" view controller should define a protocol that the "detail" controller adopts. When the user indicates they are done with the edit, the "detail" view controller is called back with the entered value and it dismisses the "editor" view. Using this approach the "detail" controller updates the model. This approach seems problematic if you are using the same "editor" view for multiple properties since there is only a single call-back method. Would love to get some feedback on what approach works best.

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  • Python - Help with multiprocessing / threading basics.

    - by orokusaki
    I haven't ever used multi-threading, and I decided to learn it today. I was reluctant to ever use it before, but when I tried it out it seemed way to easy, which makes me wary. Are there any gotchas in my code, or is it really that simple? import uuid import time import multiprocessing def sleep_then_write(content): time.sleep(5) f = open(unicode(uuid.uuid4()), 'w') f.write(content) f.close() if __name__ == '__main__': for i in range(3): p = multiprocessing.Process(target=sleep_then_write, args=('Hello World',)) p.start() My primary purpose of using threading would be to offload multiple images to S3 after re-sizing them, all at the same time. Is that a reasonable task for Python's multiprocessing? I've read a lot about certain types of tasks not really getting any gain from using threading in Python due to the GIL, but it seems that multiprocessing completely removes that worry, yes? I can imagine a case where 50 users hit the system and it spawns 150 Python interpreters. I can also imagine that wouldn't be good on a production server. How can something like that be avoided? Finally (but most important): How can I return control back to the caller of the new processes? I need to be able to continue with returning an HTTP response and content back to the user and then have the processes continue doing there work after the user of my website is done with the transaction.

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  • online quiz using ASP dot NET

    - by wacky_coder
    Hii, I need to develop an online quiz website that would be having MCQs. I would want to have one question appearing per page with a Numeric Pager so that the user can go back and forth. I tried using the FormView for displaying the questions and RadioButtons. I created a class QANS that would hold the answer selected by the user for the questions that he did answer so that I can later sum up the total Score. Now, the problem I'm facing is as below: Let the user select a RadioButton, say R, on a PageIndex, say I, and then go to some other page, say K. When the user returns back to page I, none of the RadioButtons is selected. I tried adding code for setting the Checked property of the RadioButton true in the Page_Load(), but it didn't help. I also tried the same with the PageIndexChanged and PageIndexChanging event, but the RadioButton doesn't get checked. The RadioButton that was selected for a particular question has been stored and I am able to print which one it was using Response.Write() but I'm not able to keep the RadioButton Checked. How shall this be done?

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  • Symfony forms question (restoring selected value of a dynamically populated sfWidgetFormSelect widge

    - by Stick it to THE MAN
    I am using Symfony 1.3.2 with Propel ORM on Ubuntu 9.10. I have developed a form that dynamically populates a select widget with cities in a selected country, using AJAX. Before the data entered on the form is saved, I validate the form. If validation fails, the form is presented back to the user for correction. However, because the country list is dynamically generated, the form that is presented for correction does not have a valid city selected (it is empty, since the country widget has not changed yet). This is inconvenient for the user, because it means they have to select ANOTHER country (so the change event is fired), and then change back to the original country they selected, then FINALLY select the city which they had last selected. All of this is forced on the user because another (possibly unrelated) field did not vaildate. I tried $form-getValue('widget_name'), called immediately after $form-bind(), but it seems (infact, IIRC, if form fails to validate, all the values are reset to null) - so that does not work. I am currently trying a nasty hack which involves the use of directly accesing the input (i.e. tainted) data via $_POST, and setting them into a flash variable - but I feel its a very nasty hack) What I'm trying to do is a common use case scenario - is there a better way to do this, than hacking around with $_POST etc?

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  • The Date type and the Android database

    - by cdonner
    I understand that SQLite stores dates as long integers. When I read rows into a cursor using the standard method (i.e. using the query() method that reads data into a cursor), the result is a date string that includes the time. If I want a different format, I have to parse the string back into a date - possible, but a bit backwards. By using a ViewBinder (as suggested in this question), I can pretty much do anything I want, but the date is already a string at the time the method executes. The accepted answer to the above question also suggests that storing dates as longs would help avoid this problem. I don't want to do that, just in case I want to interpret my data with something else than this application. Maybe I want to expose it via a provider. Is there a way to handle this in the database adapter instead, i.e. controlling the date format that the cursor contains, so that I don't have to change the schema, and don't have to parse the default output back into a Date type?

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  • Virtual Earth (Bing) Pin "moves" when zoom level changes

    - by Ali
    Hi guys, Created a Virtual Earth (Bing) map to show a simple pin at a particular point. Everything works right now - the pin shows up, the title and description pop up on hover. The map is initially fully zoomed into the pin, but the STRANGE problem is that when I zoom out it moves slightly lower on the map. So if I started with the pin pointing somewhere in Toronto, if I zoom out enough the pin ends up i the middle of Lake Ontario! If I pan the map, the pin correctly stays in its proper location. When I zoom back in, it moves slightly up until it's back to its original correct position! I've looked around for a solution for a while, but I can't understand it at all. Please help!! Thanks a lot! import with javascript: http://ecn.dev.virtualearth.net/mapcontrol/mapcontrol.ashx?v=6.2 $(window).ready(function(){ GetMap(); }); map = new VEMap('birdEye'); map.SetCredentials("hash key from Bing website"); map.LoadMap(new VELatLong(43.640144 ,-79.392593), 1 , VEMapStyle.BirdseyeHybrid, false, VEMapMode.Mode2D, true, null); var pin = new VEShape(VEShapeType.Pushpin, new VELatLong(43.640144 ,-79.392593)); pin.SetTitle("Goes to Title of the Pushpin"); pin.SetDescription("Goes as Description."); map.AddShape(pin);

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  • onPause/onResume activity issues

    - by Josh
    I have a small test application I am working on which has a timer that updates a textview to countdown from 100 to 0. That works fine, but now I am trying to pause the application if the user presses the back button on the phone and then restart the timer from where they left off when they reopen the app. Here is the code I am using: @Override public void onPause() { if(this._timer_time_remaining > 0) { this.timer.cancel(); } super.onPause(); Log.v("Pausing", String.format("Pausing with %d", this._timer_time_remaining)); } @Override public void onResume() { super.onResume(); Log.v("Resuming", String.format("Resuming with %d", this._timer_time_remaining)); if(this._timer_time_remaining > 0) { setContentView(R.layout.in_game); start_timer(this._timer_time_remaining); } } The start_timer() method creates a CountDownTimer which updates the textview in the onTick method and updates the this._timer_time_remaining int variable. CountDownTimer and _timer_time_remaining are both declared at the class level like this: private CountDownTimer timer; private int _timer_time_remaining; From the Log.v() prints I see that the _timer_time_remaining variable has the correct number of seconds stored when onPause is called, but it is set back to 0 when onResume starts. Why does the variable get reset? I thought that the application would continue to run in the background with the same values. Am I missing something? This is all declared in a class that extends Activity. Thanks in advance!

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  • Encoding a email address that can be used as part of a URL in codeigniter

    - by freedayum
    Is there a way to encode a email address that can be used as a part of a url in codeigniter?. I need to decode back the email address from the url. What I am trying to do is just a -forgotten password recovery- thing. I send a confirmation link to the user's email address, the link needs to be like ../encodedEmail/forgottenPasswordCode (with the forgottenPasswordCode updated in the db for the user with the submitted email). When the user visits that link, I decode the email(if the email - forgottenPasswordCode pair is in the table), i allow them to reset their password (and i reset forgottenPasswordCode back to null). I could just do a loop -checking the table with a select query- (or) -set that forgottenPasswordCode column unique, so i keep generating on a insert failure(would that be a lot faster ?)- until I generate a forgottenPasswordCode that doesn't already exist in the table. But the guy I do this for would not accept it this way:). He wants the checking be done with the user's email, he thinks its much faster. I am working with codeigniter, I used its encode() function, it seems to produce characters like '-slashes-' at times that breaks the encoded-email-string. Any other ideas?

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  • Maintaining ISAPI Rewrite Path with the ASP.NET tilde (~)

    - by Adam
    My team is upgrading from ASP.NET 3.5 to ASP.NET 4.0. We are currently using Helicon ISAPI Rewrite to map http://localhost/<account-name>/default.aspx to http://localhost/<virtual-directory>/default.aspx?AccountName=<account-name> where <account-name> is a query string variable and <virtual-directory> is a virtual directory (naturally). Before the upgrade the tilde (~) resolved to http://localhost/<account-name>/... (which I want it to do) and after the upgrade the tilde resolves to http://localhost/<virtual-directory>/... which results in an error because the <account-name> query string is required. I'd like to avoid going down the road of replacing everything with relative paths because there are several features in our system that use the entire URL instead of just the relative path. For what it's worth I'm using IIS7 in Windows 7, Visual Studio 2010 with ASP.NET 4.0 and the 64 bit Helicon ISAPI Rewrite. If I switch back to the ASP.NET 3.5 version then it still works fine (leading me to believe nothing changed in IIS unless it's within the 4.0 app pool - when I switch back and forth between 3.5 and 4.0 I have to change the app pool in IIS). Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

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  • What do you do when your team leader doesn't know something simple?

    - by leppie
    What do you do when your team leader does not know why the following is wrong: a.SomeProp = a.SomeProp; // no funny side-effects, plain old property He claims 15 years of programming experience, and 7 years of C#/.NET. To me, someone of 3-6 months experience should know this. What I have done: Tried to make him understand why it is wrong. He told me not to criticize him. Told him it's not about criticism, but project risk. He got upset with me. I have addressed the risk of this person with our manager (few weeks back). I have addressed my concerns with this person with our manager several times, since 1 month after I started there (7 months now). Currently, I just feel like just not going back to work... I hardly have any nails left, and this is really just the tip of the iceberg. As nothing has changed after I have spoken to the manager for the last 6 months, I feel like I need to make some sort of ultimatum. Do you have any suggestions? PS: Please do not make this subjective. I have no need for arguing. The level of incompetence is pretty clear. I just need some advice before going insane. Update: Thanks for all the answers (trying to update before close, buggers). I think I will forward this thread to our manager :) Update 2: I sent my manager another mail with my concerns, and a link to this question. Awaiting response.

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  • Java+DOM: How do I convert a DOM tree without namespaces to a namespace-aware DOM tree?

    - by java.is.for.desktop
    Hello, everyone! I receive a Document (DOM tree) from a certain API (not in JDK). Sadly, this Document is not namespace-aware. As far as I know DOM, once generated, namespace-awareness can't be "added" afterwards. When converting this Document using a Transformer to a string, the XML is correct. Elements have xmlns:... attributes and name prefixes. But from the DOM point of view, there are no namespaces and no prefixes. I need to be able to convert this Document into a new Document which is namespace-aware. Yes, I could do this by just converting it to a string and back to DOM with namespaces enabled. But: nodes of the original tree have user-objects set. Converting to string and back would make a mapping of these user-objects to the new Document very complicated, if not impossible. So I really need a way to convert non-namespace DOM to namespace DOM. Are there any more-or-less straightforward solutions for this? Worst case (what I'm hoping to avoid) would be to manually iterate through old Document tree and create new namespace-aware Node for each old Node. Doing so, one had to manually "parse" namespace prefixes, watch out for xmlns-attributes, and maintain a mapping between prefixes and namespace-URIs. Lots of things to go wrong.

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  • How Can i reload data in tableview in view controller in iphone

    - by Pugal Devan
    Hi, I am new to iphone development. I have created 5 buttons in the view. On clicking the buttons it navigates to the corresponding views. On clicking the "News" button it navigates and displayed the parsing details in the table view.(This table view, I have created View controller and added table view using Interface Builder and i have set all the properties.) and i go to another button and comes back to the "News" button, every time parsing will happened.How to avoid the multiple parsing when i come back to the button. i have tried this one and my code is, - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; static int i; if(i == 0) { NSString * path = @"http://www.AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA.com"; [self parseXMLFileAtURL:path]; i++; } [self.newsTable reloadData]; } } Now the parsing is happened only time but the datas are doesnt displayed. My problem is the tableview doesnot reload. newsTable is the instance of the Tableview. How can i achieve this. Please help me out. Thanks.

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  • Application Errors vs User Errors in PHP

    - by CogitoErgoSum
    So after much debate back and forth, I've come up with what I think may be a valid plan to handle Application/System errors vs User Errors (I.e. Validation Issues, Permission Issues etc). Application/System Errors will be handled using a custom error handler (via set_error_handler()). Depending on the severity of the error, the user may be redirected to a generic error page (I.e. Fatal Error), or the error may simply be silently logged (i.e E_WARNING). These errors are ones most likely caused by issues outside the users control (Missing file, Bad logic, etc). The second set of errors would be User Generated ones. These are the ones may not automatically trigger an error but would be considered one. In these cases i"ve decided to use the trigger_error() function and typically throw a waning or notice which would be logged silently by the error handler. After that it would be up to the developer to then redirect the user to another page or display some sort of more meaningful message to the user. This way an error of any type is always logged, but user errors still allow the developer freedom to handle it in their own ways. I.e. Redirect them back to their form with it fully repopulated and a message of what went wrong. Does anyone see anything wrong with this, or have a more intuitive way? My approach to error handling is typically everyone has their own ways but there must be a way instituted.

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  • VBA-Sorting the data in a listbox, sort works but data in listbox not changed

    - by Mike Clemens
    A listbox is passed, the data placed in an array, the array is sort and then the data is placed back in the listbox. The part that does work is putting the data back in the listbox. Its like the listbox is being passed by value instead of by ref. Here's the sub that does the sort and the line of code that calls the sort sub. Private Sub SortListBox(ByRef LB As MSForms.ListBox) Dim First As Integer Dim Last As Integer Dim NumItems As Integer Dim i As Integer Dim j As Integer Dim Temp As String Dim TempArray() As Variant ReDim TempArray(LB.ListCount) First = LBound(TempArray) ' this works correctly Last = UBound(TempArray) - 1 ' this works correctly For i = First To Last TempArray(i) = LB.List(i) ' this works correctly Next i For i = First To Last For j = i + 1 To Last If TempArray(i) > TempArray(j) Then Temp = TempArray(j) TempArray(j) = TempArray(i) TempArray(i) = Temp End If Next j Next i ! data is now sorted LB.Clear ! this doesn't clear the items in the listbox For i = First To Last LB.AddItem TempArray(i) ! this doesn't work either Next i End Sub Private Sub InitializeForm() ' There's code here to put data in the list box Call SortListBox(FieldSelect.CompleteList) End Sub Thanks for your help.

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  • Adding a navigation bar to a web view in a tab bar app

    - by Henrik Erlandsson
    I've built the tab bar application in IB, with three tabs. The third tab happily displays a UIWebview where you can browse. The only thing missing is a back button, as not all web pages supply such a link. I need a navigation bar hooked up properly to the correct classes. I'm still a bit unsure about exactly how the hierarchy should look in interface builder and how to hook it up properly. Currently, the third tab is hooked up to a referencing outlet called 'webnews' in the class 'thirdviewcontroller', and the UIWebView (under a normal IUView in the hierarchy, which in turn is under the third tab bar controller) is connected to the webnews outlet. How do I make the navbar control the webview, and do I add code to the thirdviewcontroller.m that lets the navbar on the view control the webview 'back' function? What do I hook up as the delegate for it? Currently I have an app delegate, but that's hooked up to the tab bar. I'm not really after specific code as much as a general 'how it works' clue :) (Unless I can just add the navbar dynamically to the functioning app... but I don't think addSubView on viewWillAppear {} in thirdviewcontroller.m will create the proper functionality?) If I were to guess at the simplest solution, I'd guess create a navbarcontroller.h/.m, slap a navbar on the view in IB, connect the third tab to navbarcontroller, connect the navbar to the webview (?) and move the webnews outlet to navbarcontroller.h, and connect the webview to it. But I don't quite have the nerve to try, better to ask advice first.

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  • Update a single field from a single entity with ria-services

    - by TimothyP
    There are situations where I only want to update a specific field of a single entity in the database. I loaded the entities of that type into my silverlight application, and I know they are constantly changing on the server... but there is one field which has to be set by the silverlight client... the server will only read it. How can I just send the new data for that field to the server? Example an Entity called "TextField". I have a list of TextFields loaded in the silverlight application and every now and then the user will update the Preload (string) property of an entity and that has to go back to the server without changing anything else on the server. I tried adding a simple SetPreloadText(...) method to the DomainService but that just makes Silverlight crash with some odd error code. Is there a way to this? Am I working against the idea of Silverlight here? I really don't want to send the entire object back because know that at any given time the version on the client will most likely be out of date. (which is ok for this specific application)

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  • Winforms MVP with Castle Windsor - DI for subforms?

    - by Paul Kirby
    I'm building a winforms app utilizing passive-view MVP and Castle Windsor as an IoC container. I'm still a little new to dependency injection and MVP, so I'm looking for some clarity... I have a main form which contains a number of user controls, and also will bring up other dialogs (ex. Login, options, etc) as needed. My first question is...should I use constructor injection to get the presenters for these other views into the main view, or should I go back to a Service Locator-type pattern? (which I've been told is a big nono!) Or something else? Second question...the user controls need to communicate back to the main form when they are "completed" (definition of that state varies based on the control). Is there a standard way of hooking these up? I was thinking perhaps just wiring up events between the main presenter and the child presenters, but I'm not sure if this is proper thinking. I'd appreciate any help, it seems that the combination of MVP and IoC in winforms isn't exactly well-documented.

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  • IE History Tracking, IFRAMES, and Cross Domain error...

    - by peiklk
    So here's the deal. We have a Flash application that is running within an HTML file. For one page we call a legacy reporting system in ASP.NET that is within an IFRAME. This page then communicates back to the Flash application using cross-domain scripting (document.domain = "domain" is set in both pages. THIS ALL WORKS. Now the kicker. Flash has history tracking enabled. This loads the history.js file that created a div tag to store page changes so the back and forward buttons work in the browser. Which works for Firefox and Chrome as they create a div tag. HOWEVER In Internet Explorer, history.js creates another IFRAME (instead of a DIV) called ie_historyFrame. When the ScriptResource.axd code attempts to access this with: var frameDoc = this._historyFrame.contentWindow.document; we get an "Access is Denied" error message. ARGH! We've tried getting a handle to this IFRAME and inserting the document.domain code. FAIL. We've tried editing the historytemplate.html file that flex also uses to include document.domain... FAIL. I've tried to edit the underlying ASP.NET page to disable history tracking in the ScriptManager control. FAIL. At my wit's end on this one. We have users who need to use IE to access this site. They are big clients who we cannot tell to just use Firefox. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Why are floating point values so prolific?

    - by Kibbee
    So, title says it all. Why are floating point values so prolific in computer programming. Due to problems like rounding errors, and not being able to even accurately represent numbers such as 0.1, I really can't see how they got as far as they did. I understand that the computation is faster with floating point numbers, however, I can think of only a few cases that they actually the right data type would be using. If you sat back and think about every time you used a floating point value, how many times did you say, well, some error would be ok, as long as the result was a few microseconds faster. It really makes me think because Jeff was talking about NP completeness, and how heuristics give an answer that is kind of right. And well, computers shouldn't do that. They should give you the answer that is correct. Yet we see floating point values used in many applications where they are completely not valid. What really bugs me, isn't that floating point exists, but that in many languages, there isn't even a viable alternative, non-floating point, decimal value. A lot of programmers when doing financial applications have to fall back to storing the number of cents in an integer field. Which brings with it all kinds of other problems. Why do floats continue to be so prolific, even though they can't represent the real answer, and we expect computers to be accurate? [EDIT] Just to clarify, I was talking about Base 2 floating points, and not base 10 floating points. .Net offers the Decimal data type, which is a base 10 floating point value which offers a much better representation of the numbers we deal with on a daily basis in most computer programs. I find it hard to believe that even modern languages like Java don't support base 10 floating point values, unless you want to move into the realm of things like BigDecimal, which isn't really the right answer either in a lot of situations.

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  • Cocos2D Director Pause/Resume Issue

    - by Aditya
    I am trying to play a .gif animation in cocos2D. For this i am using the library glgif. Now, to display the animation i am pausing the Director, adding a subview to show the animation and after the animation is done i am resuming the Director. However, I am not able to resume the state of the Director and it shows blank. So I tried this without pausing and resuming this Director and it still did not work.I also tried detaching the director before tha animation and adding it back afterwards and even that did not work. So is there a way to pause/suspend the Director in the application and properly restore is back? Thanks. Code sample: [[Director sharedDirector] pause]; [[Director sharedDirector] detach]; AppDelegate *del = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [del.window addSubview:del.viewController.view]; [del.window makeKeyAndVisible]; // this is code to call glgif class and start anim. //code to resume the director AppDelegate *del = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [[Director sharedDirector] resume]; [[Director sharedDirector] attachInView:del.window]; MScene *m = [MScene node]; [[Director sharedDirector] replaceScene:m];

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  • spring security login pages?

    - by es11
    I have some confusion with how spring security works: In my application, I need to have a login page for users after which they are redirected back the page from where they came. I went through a few spring security tutorials and read some articles, and the examples work by securing a certain page on a site (managed by the <intercept url ..> tag). Then Spring security will generate a login page (or you can specify your own) in order to access the secured page. I am confused because I don't want to necessary secure a given page on my site: I want a login page for users to log into after which they have access to elevated features of the site (through spring security's authorization features). My question is: given what I described, what would be the strategy to create this login page which, after login, would grant the logged in user the appropriate authorities? The hack I thought of would be to create a simple JSP page who's only function is to redirect back to the previous page. Then I would use Spring Security to secure that JSP page. But it seems like there should be a better way of doing this... Thanks

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