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• Develop multiple very similar projects at once

  - by Raveren

  I am developing a semi-complicated site that is available in several countries at once. Much effort has been put in to make the code bases as similar as possible to one another and ultimately only the config file and some representational data will differ between them. Each project has its own SVN repository which maps directly to a live test site. That part is handled by the IDE we use to work. Now I am in need to create a some sort of system to keep all these projects in sync. The best theoretical solution so far is to create a local hook script that would fire on committing and Merge the committed files from the project that is being committed to all other projects Optionally upload them to the live site, replacing previous files The first problem is that I don't know how I would do the merging - I guess it would be like applying a SVN patch or something. The second is if I do not want to upload the changes to the live server, how would I go about synching the live and local code bases (replace older files?). I am posting this question, not going through the potentially huge trouble of solving the aforementioned problems myself is that I believe this is a pretty common situation and someone would already have a solution and others may benefit from the answers in the future. Lastly, I'm on windows7, develop PHP and use tortoiseSVN.

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• Why null reference exception in SetMolePublicInstance?

  - by OldGrantonian

  I get a "null reference" exception in the following line: MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(stub, receiverType, objReceiver, name, null); The program builds and compiles correctly. There are no complaints about any of the parameters to the method. Here's the specification of SetMolePublicInstance, from the object browser: SetMolePublicInstance(System.Delegate _stub, System.Type receiverType, object _receiver, string name, params System.Type[] parameterTypes) Here are the parameter values for "Locals": + stub {Method = {System.String <StaticMethodUnitTestWithDeq>b__0()}} System.Func<string> + receiverType {Name = "OrigValue" FullName = "OrigValueP.OrigValue"} System.Type {System.RuntimeType} objReceiver {OrigValueP.OrigValue} object {OrigValueP.OrigValue} name "TestString" string parameterTypes null object[] I know that TestString() takes no parameters and returns string, so as a starter to try to get things working, I specified "null" for the final parameter to SetMolePublicInstance. As already mentioned, this compiles OK. Here's the stack trace: Unhandled Exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.ExtendedReflection.Collections.Indexable.ConvertAllToArray[TInput,TOutput](TInput[] array, Converter`2 converter) at Microsoft.Moles.Framework.Moles.MoleRuntime.SetMole(Delegate _stub, Type receiverType, Object _receiver, String name, MoleBindingFlags flags, Type[] parameterTypes) at Microsoft.Moles.Framework.Moles.MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(Delegate _stub, Type receiverType, Object _receiver, String name, Type[] parameterTypes) at DeqP.Deq.Replace[T](Func`1 stub, Type receiverType, Object objReceiver, String name) in C:\0VisProjects\DecP_04\DecP\DeqC.cs:line 38 at DeqPTest.DecCTest.StaticMethodUnitTestWithDeq() in C:\0VisProjects\DecP_04\DecPTest\DeqCTest.cs:line 28 at Starter.Start.Main(String[] args) in C:\0VisProjects\DecP_04\Starter\Starter.cs:line 14 Press any key to continue . . . To avoid the null parameter, I changed the final "null" to "parameterTypes" as in the following line: MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(stub, receiverType, objReceiver, name, parameterTypes); I then tried each of the following (before the line): int[] parameterTypes = null; // if this is null, I don't think the type will matter int[] parameterTypes = new int[0]; object[] parameterTypes = new object[0]; // this would allow for various parameter types All three attempts produce a red squiggly line under the entire line for SetMolePublicInstance Mouseover showed the following message: The best overloaded method match for 'Microsoft.Moles.Framework.Moles.MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(System.Delegate, System.Type, object, string, params System.Type[])' has some invalid arguments. I'm assuming that the first four arguments are OK, and that the problem is with the params array.

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• rbind.zoo doesn't seem create consistent zoo object

  - by a-or-b

  I want to rbind.zoo two zoo object together. When I was testing I came across the following issue(?)... Note: The below is an example, there is clearly no point to it apart from being illustrative. I have an zoo object, call it, 'X'. I want to break it into two parts and then rbind.zoo them together. When I compare it to the original object then all.equal gives differences. It appears that the '$class' attribute differs, but I can't see how or why. Is I make these xts objects then the all.equal works as expected. i.e. ..... X.date <- as.POSIXct(paste("2003-", rep(1:4, 4:1), "-", sample(1:28, 10, replace = TRUE), sep = "")) X <- zoo(matrix(rnorm(24), ncol = 2), X.date) a <- X[c(1:3), ] # first 3 elements b <- X[c(4:6), ] # second 3 elements c <- rbind.zoo(a, b) # rbind into an object of 6 elements d <- X[c(1:6), ] # all 6 elements all.equal(c, d) # are they equal? ~~~~ all.equal gives me the following difference: "Attributes: < Component 3: Attributes: < Length mismatch: comparison on first 1 components "

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• Creating a floating button

  - by Robert Smith

  Hey all, I'm working on a Firefox extension and am out of ideas on how to implement a floating button. I need a button that is overlayed on my page that I can show/hide and dynamically position just about anywhere on my page. I thought I could do something like a fancy CSS tool-tip except replace it with button functionality, but that idea failed because I couldn't pull my example apart well enough to understand what all I need to include, need to change, etc. I've thought about using jQuery(though wouldn't mind avoiding, unless it makes this painfully easy) but will be looking more into that as a possibility now. If anyone can offer a tutorial link, ideas, sample code, anything to help get me moving in the right direction I will greatly appreciate it! Thanks! Edit: Clarification I'm not entirely sure how to actually create the overlayed button. I tried to create a a floating div with some text in it, and nothing showed up, but I got no errors, which means I'm doing something wrong, but I have no idea what that is. http://www.fijiwebdesign.com/blog/css-tooltips-floating-html-elements.html If you take a look at that webpage you see that there is that floating "feedback" button, I would like to create something similar, only it wouldn't be anchored to the sides, but I could position it over text, etc. #floatingBtn { position: absolute; z-index: 10000; top: 50%; left: 50%; } Thats the CSS I used to try and float my div. I don't know if I'm creating the div in the wrong place or... I thought if I could get a floating div with some text, I could turn that into my button.

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• Java for loop with multiple incrementers

  - by user2517280

  Im writing a program which combines the RGB pixel values for 3 images, e.g. red pixel of image 1, green pixel of image 2 and blue pixel of image 3 and I want to then create a final image of it. Im using the code below, but this seems to be incrementing x2 and x3 whilst x1 is the same, i.e. not giving the right pixel value for same co-ordinate for each image. for (int x = 0; x < image.getWidth(); x++) { for (int x2 = 0; x2 < image2.getWidth(); x2++) { for (int x3 = 0; x3 < image3.getWidth(); x3++) { for (int y = 0; y < image.getHeight(); y++) { for (int y2 = 0; y2 < image2.getHeight(); y2++) { for (int y3 = 0; y3 < image3.getHeight(); y3++) { So I was wondering if anyone can tell me how to iterate through each of the 3 images on the same co-ordinate, so for example read 1, 1 of each image and record the red, green and blue value accordingly. Apologies if it doesnt make complete sense, its a bit hard to explain. I can iterate the values for one image fine but when I add in another, things start to go a bit wrong as obviously its quite a bit more complicated! I was thinking it might be easier to create an array and replace the according values in that just not sure how to do that effectively either. Thanks

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• Redirect in codeigniter after login

  - by edelweiss

  Trying to do a redirect after a successful login. The login info is sent using ajax to the controller. My controller code as below public function login_controller_function() { $this->load->model('login_model'); if ($this->input->is_ajax_request()) { $user_name=$this->input->post('username'); $user_password = $this->input->post('password'); $this->load->helper('url'); $result = $this->login_model->verify_user($user_name,$user_password); // echo 'user_logged_in'; if(strcmp($result,'user_logged_in')==0) { redirect('welcome'); } } } But it is not working at all. Anyone knows whats wrong? Hi my html as requested. i am using twitter bootstrap as well <li class="divider-vertical"></li> <li><a href="#" id="login_btn">Login</a></li> <li><a href="<?php echo base_url('register'); ?>">Register</a></li> for the buttons so when i click the login button, a modal window will appear and ask for login info. so when i click on the login button, my js code will send an ajax request my js code as below /*Attempt register user jquery ajax*/ $('#login').click(function(){ var user_name = $('#loginHere').find('#user_name').val(); var user_password = $('#loginHere').find('#login_pwd').val(); if(user_name==""||user_password=="") return; var login_data = { username:user_name, password:user_password}; $.ajax({ type: "POST", dataType: "json", async: false, url:"login_register/login_controller_function", data: login_data, success: function(data) { if(data.login) { alert(data.redirect); window.location.replace(data.redirect); } else if(!data.login) { alert('data login not true'); } }, error:function(data){ alert('ajax error'); } }); }); });

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• Problem consuming a dataset via a .NET web service from Flex-ActionScript

  - by DEH

  Hi, I am returning a .NET dataset to Flex Actionscript via a web service. Actionscript snippet as follows: var websvc:WebService = new WebService(); websvc.useProxy=false; websvc.wsdl = "http://localhost:13229/test/mysvc.asmx?WSDL"; websvc.loadWSDL(); var operation:Operation = new Operation(null, "GetData"); operation.arguments.command="xx_gethierdata_"+mode+"_"+identifier; operation.addEventListener(ResultEvent.RESULT, onResultHandler, false, 0, true); operation.addEventListener(FaultEvent.FAULT, onFaultHandler, false, 0, true); operation.resultFormat="object"; websvc.operations = [operation]; operation.send(); Once in the onResultHandler function I have access to the datatable - I then want to grab the column names. The following code outputs my column names: for each (var tcolumn:Object in datatable.Columns){trace('Column:'+tcolumn);} This works ok, but the column names are encoded, so a column name that is actually "1-9" is output as "_x005B_1-9_x005D_" Anyone know the best way to decode the column name? I could replace all the encoding strings, but surely there is a better way? Thanks

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• Using placeholders/variables in a sed command

  - by jesse_galley

  I want to store a specific part of a matched result as a variable to be used for replacement later. I would like to keep this in a one liner instead of finding the variable I need before hand. when configuring apache, and use mod_rewrite, you can specificy specific parts of patterns to be used as variables,like this: RewriteRule ^www.example.com/page/(.*)$ http://www.example.com/page.php?page=$1 [R=301,L] the part of the pattern match that's contained inside the parenthesis is stored as $1 for use later. So if the url was www.example.com/page/home, it would be replaced with www.example.com/page.php?page=home. So the "home" part of the match was saved in $1 because it was the part of the pattern inside the parenthesis. I want something like this functionality with a sed command, I need to automatically replace many strings in a SQL dump file, to add drop table if exist commands before each create table, but I need to know the table name to do this, so if the dump file contains something like: ... CREATE TABLE `orders` ... I need to run something like: cat dump.sql | sed "s/CREATE TABLE `(.*)`/DROP TABLE IF EXISTS $1\N CREATE TABLE `$1`/g" to get the result of: ... DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `orders` CREATE TABLE `orders` ... I'm using the mod_rewrite syntax in the sed command as a logical example of what I'm trying to do. Any suggestions?

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• Issue with the Entity Manager and phpunit in Symfony 2

  - by rgazelot

  I have an issue with my Entity Manager in phpunit. This is my test : public function testValidChangeEmail() { $client = self::createAuthClient('user','password'); $crawler = $client->request('GET', '/user/edit/30'); $crawler = $client->submit($crawler->selectButton('submit')->form(array( 'form[email]' => '[email protected]', ))); /* * With this em, this work perfectly * $em = $client->getContainer()->get('doctrine.orm.entity_manager'); */ $user = self::$em->getRepository('MyBundle:User')->findUser('[email protected]'); die(var_dump($user->getEmail())); } and this is my WebTestCase which extends original WebTestCase : class WebTestCase extends BaseWebTestCase { static protected $container; static protected $em; static protected function createClient(array $options = array(), array $server = array()) { $client = parent::createClient($options, $server); self::$em = $client->getContainer()->get('doctrine.orm.entity_manager'); self::$container = $client->getContainer(); return $client; } protected function createAuthClient($user, $pass) { return self::createClient(array(), array( 'PHP_AUTH_USER' => $user, 'PHP_AUTH_PW' => $pass, )); } As you can see, I replace the self::$em when I created my client. My issue : In my test, the die() give me the old email and not the new email ([email protected]) which has registered in the test. However in my database, I have the [email protected] correctly saved. When I retrieve my user in the database, I use sefl::$em. If I use the $em in comments, I retrieve the right new email. I don't understand why in my WebTestCase, I can access to the new Entity Manager...

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• Micrsoft Silverlight 3 cannot create service reference to localhost:port

  - by Monte

  Windows Server 2003 (IIS 6) Visual Studio 2008 .NET FrameWork 3.5 SP1 I am a .NET developer for a living and I have over 40 hours in the problem Project type = "Silverlight Navigation Application", "APS.NET Web Site" (when I tried it as "ASP.NET Web Application Project" I could not copy it to the production web site - well I could copy it but I could not make it run) Created a service.cs on the .Web side of the application. Created a reference to that service.cs on the Silverlight side. For a time all is good as I can reference the service as localhost:port (e.g. localhost:1374) in Visual Studio and debug both Silverlight side and service.cs To access the application in production mode (from IE) I update the service refrence and replace localhost:port with the IP address. The problem with the IP address is I cannot debug the service.cs so I have to change it back to localhost:port to debug. Now to the problem. After a period of time localhost:port just plain breaks. I get an error message no service at the other end Yes I know the port can change - that is not the problem - the port on the service side just plain breaks! For example from Visual Studio from the Silverlight side of the project right click "Service Reference", "Add Service Reverence". It finds 1 service in the application on a port. But when I click that service under "Services:" in the modal dialog box "Add Service Reference" I get an error: There was an error downloading 'http://localhost:1377/SehaleCSS.Web/Service.svc'. The request failed with the error message: -- Could not load file or assembly 'App_Web_tipnndfq, If I go back to the IP address the service is repsponding (with the right answer) The service just plain goes a while responding to localhost:port and then fails Even making NO change to service.cs it go a while then fails as a localhost:port It is not IIS environmental as I can go back to a prior saved version of the code and it works Something is happening that the .web side of the application is failing. It still works as an IP and it still exposes itself as a localhost:port but it fails to properly repsonde as a localhost:port.

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• [C#] How to receive uncrackable data or so ? ;P

  - by Prix

  Hi, I am working on an C# application to communicate with my website and retrieve some information from it, using SSL which is working just fine. Now what i want/need is a way to receive encrypted or codified or obfuscated data that if some one cracks my application they will not be able to decrypt the data because it needs something from the server (api, website) but yet the application needs to decrypt it in order to use it... initally i was thinking of an inside RSA pair or keys, to send and receive the encrypt data but let's consider that someone has cracked the application, they could just replace those keys for keys they have made, so i was looking into some methods but havent found or been able to think of any way to harder this... I was learning about RSA, encryption and such and started developing this as a self learning and got involved with it and now i am trying to figure out a way to receive data like that... I have considered obfuscating and compiling my code with packers and etc but this is not about packing it etc... i am more interested in knowing a better way to secure what i described i know it may or is impossible but yet i am looking forward to some approch. I would appreciate advices, suggestions and C# code samples, if you need more information or anything please let me know.

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• jQuery code not executing when DOM is ready

  - by Ben

  I have written a simple jQuery script that changes the hash tag of a link. I do this because I am using IntenseDebate comments in Wordpress but the comment link still links replaced id of the old comments. I'm using jQuery so that if javascript is enabled, the user can click on the comments link and it will take them to the IntenseDebate comments. If its not enabled it will take them to the traditional comments (because IntenseDebate requires javascript to function). The issue I'm having lies in this script to change the hash tag at the end of the link. Currently the URL "someurl.com/#respond" but I need the script to change it to "someurl.com/#comments". What is happening is that the script doesn't work, however I believe my syntax is correct so I decided to try copying and pasting the code into Firebug's console and the code executed perfectly. I could see that the link I was trying to change was now correct, and I could click on it and it worked as I desired. So what I don't understand is why the code is not executing when it is supposed to. I am using $(document).ready() and I have other jQuery on the page that executes just fine. I even tested it on a simple HTML page away from all the problems that might be caused by Wordpress and I received the same result. Does anyone know why this might be happening? Here is my code (I am using noConflict because Wordpress makes use of other frameworks): jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("a[href$='respond']").each(function() { this.href = this.href.replace("respond", "comments"); }); })(jQuery); Thanks very much for your help!

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• jquery autosuggest: what is wrong with this code?

  - by Abu Hamzah

  i have been struggling to make it work my autosugest/autocomplete and its acting strange unless i am doing completely silly here. please have a look 1) does not do anything, does not work or nor fire the event. <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Scripts/jquery.autocomplete.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#<%=txtHost.UniqueID %>").autocomplete("HostService.asmx/GetHosts", { dataType: 'json' , contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8" , parse: function(data) { var rows = Array(); debugger for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { rows[i] = { data: data[i], value: data[i].LName, result: data[i].LName }; } return rows; } , formatItem: function(row, i, max) { return data.LName + ", " + data.FName; } }); }); </script> 2) this works if i remove the above code and replace with this code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#txtHost").autocomplete("lazy blazy crazy daisy maisy ugh".split(" ")); }); </script> any help ?

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• Strange compiler complaint when using similar code

  - by Jason

  For a project, I have to ask the user for a file name, and I'm reading it in character by character using getchar. From the main, I call the function char *coursename= introPrint(); //start off to print the usage directions and get the first bit of input. That function is defined as char *introPrint(){ int size= 20; int c; int length=0; char buffer[size]; //instructions printout, cut for brevity //get coursename from user and return it while ( (c=getchar()) != EOF && (c != '\n') ){ buffer[length++]= c; if (length==size-1) break; } buffer[length]=0; return buffer; } This is basically identical code I wrote to ask the user for input, replace the character echo with asterisks, then print out the results. Here, though, I'm getting a function returns address of local variable warning for the return statement. So why am I getting no warnings from the other program, but trigger one for this code?

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• Unit-testing a directive with isolated scope and bidirectional value

  - by unludo

  I want to unit test a directive which looks like this: angular.module('myApp', []) .directive('myTest', function () { return { restrict: 'E', scope: { message: '='}, replace: true, template: '<div ng-if="message"><p>{{message}}</p></div>', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { } }; }); Here is my failing test: describe('myTest directive:', function () { var scope, compile, validHTML; validHTML = '<my-test message="message"></my-test>'; beforeEach(module('myApp')); beforeEach(inject(function($compile, $rootScope){ scope = $rootScope.$new(); compile = $compile; })); function create() { var elem, compiledElem; elem = angular.element(validHTML); compiledElem = compile(elem)(scope); scope.$digest(); return compiledElem; } it('should have a scope on root element', function () { scope.message = 'not empty'; var el = create(); console.log(el.text()); expect(el.text()).toBeDefined(); expect(el.text()).not.toBe(''); }); }); Can you spot why it's failing? The corresponding jsFiddle Thanks :)

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• Mixing together Connect by, inner join and sum with Oracle

  - by François

  Hey there, I need help with a oracle query. Excuse me in advance for my english. Here is my setup: I have 2 tables called respectively "tasks" and "timesheets". The "tasks" table is a recursive one, that way each task can have multiple subtasks. Each timesheet is associated with a task (not necessarily the "root" task) and contains the number of hours worked on it. Example: Tasks id:1 | name: Task A | parent_id: NULL id:2 | name: Task A1 | parent_id: 1 id:3 | name: Task A1.1 | parent_id: 2 id:4 | name: Task B | parent_id: NULL id:5 | name: Task B1 | parent_id: 4 Timesheets id:1 | task_id: 1 | hours: 1 id:2 | task_id: 2 | hours: 3 id:3 | task_id:3 | hours: 1 id:5 | task_id:5 | hours:1 ... What I want to do: I want a query that will return the sum of all the hours worked on a "task hierarchy". If we take a look at the previous example, It means I would like to have the following results: task A - 5 hour(s) | task B - 1 hour(s) At first I tried this SELECT TaskName, Sum(Hours) "TotalHours" FROM ( SELECT replace(sys_connect_by_path(decode(level, 1, t.name), '~'), '~') As TaskName, ts.hours as hours FROM tasks t INNER JOIN timesheets ts ON t.id=ts.task_id START WITH PARENTOID=-1 CONNECT BY PRIOR t.id = t.parent_id ) GROUP BY TaskName Having Sum(Hours) > 0 ORDER BY TaskName And it almost work. THe only problem is that if there are no timesheet for a root task, it will skip the whole hieararchy... but there might be timesheets for the child rows and it is exactly what happens with Task B1. I know it is the "inner join" part that is causing my problem but I'm not sure how can I get rid of it. Any idea how to solve this problem? Thank you

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• Why are argument substitutions not replaced during rescanning?

  - by James McNellis

  Consider the following macro definitions and invocation: #define x x[0] #define y(arg) arg y(x) This invocation expands to x[0] (tested on Visual C++ 2010, g++ 4.1, mcpp 2.7.2, and Wave). Why? Specifically, why does it not expand to x[0][0]? During macro replacement, A parameter in the replacement list...is replaced by the corresponding argument after all macros contained therein have been expanded. Before being substituted, each argument’s preprocessing tokens are completely macro replaced (C++03 §16.3.1/1). Evaluating the macro invocation, we take the following steps: The function-like macro y is invoked with x as the argument for its arg parameter The x in the argument is macro-replaced to become x[0] The arg in the replacement list is replaced by the macro-replaced value of the argument, x[0] The replacement list after substitution of all the parameters is x[0]. After all parameters in the replacement list have been substituted, the resulting preprocessing token sequence is rescanned...for more macro names to replace (C++03 §16.3.4/1). If the name of the macro being replaced is found during this scan of the replacement list...it is not replaced. Further, if any nested replacements encounter the name of the macro being replaced, it is not replaced (C++03 §16.3.4/2). The replacement list x[0] is rescanned (note that the name of the macro being replaced is y): x is identified as an object-like macro invocation x is replaced by x[0] Replacement stops at this point because of the rule in §16.3.4/2 preventing recursion. The replacement list after rescanning is x[0][0]. I have clearly misinterpreted something since all of the preprocessors I've tested say I am wrong. In addition, this example is a piece of a larger example in the C++0x FCD (at §16.3.5/5) and it too says that the expected replacement is x[0]. Why is x not replaced during rescanning? C99 and C++0x effectively have the same wording as C++03 in the quoted sections.

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• help date format in vb.net

  - by bachchan

  Dim Con As OleDb.OleDbConnection Dim Sql As String = Nothing Dim Reader As OleDb.OleDbDataReader Dim ComboRow As Integer = -1 Dim Columns As Integer = 0 Dim Category As String = Nothing Dim oDatumMin As Date Dim column As String column = Replace(TxtDateMax.Text, "'", "''") 'oDatumMin = Convert.ToDateTime(TxtDateMin.Text) oDatumMin = DtpMin.Value Dim oPath As String oPath = Application.StartupPath ' Select records. Con = New OleDb.OleDbConnection("Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=" & oPath & "\trb.accdb;") Dim cmd As New OleDb.OleDbCommand 'Dim data_reader As OleDbDataReader = cmd.ExecuteReader() Sql = ("SELECT * FROM " & cmbvalue & " WHERE Datum>='" & oDatumMin & "'") cmd = New OleDb.OleDbCommand(Sql, Con) Con.Open() Reader = cmd.ExecuteReader() Do While Reader.Read() Dim new_item As New ListViewItem(Reader.Item("Datum").ToString) new_item.SubItems.Add(Reader.Item("Steleks i krpe za cišcenje-toal papir-ubrusi-domestos").ToString) new_item.SubItems.Add(Reader.Item("TEKUCINA ZA CIŠCENJE PLOCICA").ToString) new_item.SubItems.Add(Reader.Item("KESE ZA SMECE").ToString) new_item.SubItems.Add(Reader.Item("OSTALO-džoger-spužva za laminat").ToString) new_item.SubItems.Add(Reader.Item("PAPIR").ToString) LvIzvjestaj.Items.Add(new_item) Loop ' Close the connection.strong text Con.Close()`` when i select table,(cmbvalue) from combobox and when i select date from datetime picker (dtp) or in last case from texbox converted to date and time sql looks like this "SELECT * FROM Uprava WHERE Datum='2.6.2010 10:28:14'" and all query looks ok but am geting Data type mismatch in criteria expression. error for date (oDatumMin) when excute column in access is also set to date i have no idea what else to try

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• dynamic inheritance without touching classes

  - by Jasper

  I feel like the answer to this question is really simple, but I really am having trouble finding it. So here goes: Suppose you have the following classes: class Base; class Child : public Base; class Displayer { public: Displayer(Base* element); Displayer(Child* element); } Additionally, I have a Base* object which might point to either an instance of the class Base or an instance of the class Child. Now I want to create a Displayer based on the element pointed to by object, however, I want to pick the right version of the constructor. As I currently have it, this would accomplish just that (I am being a bit fuzzy with my C++ here, but I think this the clearest way) object->createDisplayer(); virtual void Base::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } virtual void Child::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } This works, however, there is a problem with this: Base and Child are part of the application system, while Displayer is part of the GUI system. I want to build the GUI system independently of the Application system, so that it is easy to replace the GUI. This means that Base and Child should not know about Displayer. However, I do not know how I can achieve this without letting the Application classes know about the GUI. Am I missing something very obvious or am I trying something that is not possible?

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• Changing the href attribute on hover with jQuery

  - by AverageJoe

  Ok, I have an html page that is loaded into another html page via PHP (ok so its a PHP page, whatever). The page that is loaded is a list of hyperlinks. I need to change the href attribute to make the hyperlinks relative to the location of the stored images they refer too. When i load the page containing the hyperlinks the links are relative to the web host server, not the server that the page is actually hosted from. Somthing like this: <div #screenshots) <p><a href="image1.htm">Image1</a></p> <p><a href="image2.htm">Image2</a></p> <p><a href="image3.htm">Image3</a></p> <p><a href="image4.htm">Image4</a></p> <p><a href="image5.htm">Image5</a></p> </div> When I mouse over the links, the status bar shows the reference as "http://webHostServer.com/image1.htm". If I click it I get a 404 error. I need the href to change to something like this when I mouse over it: "http://www.actualImageHostServerIPaddress/image1.htm" I looked at this for assitance and came out with the following jQuery code, but for some reason none of it works: $(document).ready(function(){ $("button").click(function() { $("#screenshots a").addClass('ss'); }); $(".ss").each(function() { $(this).data("oldHref", $(this).attr("href")); orig = $(this).attr("href"); over = "http://208.167.244.33/208.167.244.33/"; $(this).hover(function() { $(this).attr("href", $(this).attr("href").replace(orig, over+orig)); }, function() { $(this).attr("href", $(this).data("oldHref")); }); }); When I click the button it dosen't add the class to the anchor tags, so when I hover over them nothing changes. Any help here would be great.

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• When clicking on ajax.actionlink in its oncomplete function I can't update the html of a div whith requested data

  - by Milka Salkova

  In one partial view I've got some ajax.ActionLinks which when clicked update the div 'importpartupdate' (they just updates the div whith new ajax.actionLinks with other routevalues). The problem is that when this update is competed I have to update another div - depending on which link is clicked . That's why in my OnComplete function of my ajax.ActionLink I make an ajax request to the action'GridViewLanguage' which returns me the partial view which should uodate this other div which claass .floatLanguage. So the first time when I click a link eeverything works correctly and my two divs are correctly updated. But the second time I click a new link it seems the the floatlanguuage div is not updated like somehow the browser is caching the previous info I don't know. \i tried with cache:false- nothing worked. @model MvcBeaWeb.GroupMenu <nav class="sidebar-nav"> <div class="divLeftShowMenu"> <ul> @{ if (Model != null) { foreach (MvcBeaDAL.WebServiceBeaMenu item in Model.MenuLeft) { <li> @Ajax.ActionLink(@item.SpecialWord, "ImportShow", new { id = Model.LanguageName, menuID = item.ID, articlegroupID = item.ArticlegroupID, counter = 1 }, new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "importPartUpdate", HttpMethod = "GET", InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace, OnComplete = "success("[email protected]+")" }, new { id=item.ID}) </li> } } } </ul> </div> </nav> <script> function success(ids) { var nocache = new Date().getTime(); jQuery.ajax({ url: '@Url.Action("GridLanguageView")/?menuID='+ids }).done(function (data) { $(".floatLanguage").replaceWith(data); alert(data); }); } </script>

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• Which CSS identifier is used for the selected tab in tabbed tables in browsers other than IE?

  - by David Navarre

  When you have a table on a form in Notes, you can choose to display only one row at a time (via the Special Table Row Display parameter on the Table Rows tab of the Table properties). In a Notes document displayed using Internet Explorer that contains such a table, a row is displayed with a cell for each "tab". The TD that serves as the tab for the selected "Notes table row" is assigned <td class="dominoSelTopTab">, while the other tabs get <td class="dominoTopTab">. However, when using other browsers, it's not nearly as simple. In Firefox, each "tab" ends up as a single-celled-single-row-table within the table with very little to identify it. <td><table border="1" cellpadding="2"> <tr><td><div align="center"><b>Tab 2</b></div></td></tr> </table></td> A non-selected tab would show as follows: <td><table border="1" cellpadding="2"> <tr><td><div align="center"><a name="1." href="/Projects/MyCSS.nsf/0c3b9489476440c085257a62006d97d6/d482a1767a4af77f85257a62006db064?OpenDocument&amp;TableRow=1.0#1." target="_self">Tab 1</a></div></td></tr> </table></td> So, the question is, how do I identify the selected tabs and the non-selected tabs when not using IE? Note: For those who are not Notes developers, the HTML is auto-generated from the visual design as laid out in the Notes designer client. I would replace it all with manual HTML, except there is so much of it that doing so would consume far too much time.

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• connecting to mysql from excel: ODBC driver does not support the requested properties.

  - by every_answer_gets_a_point

  i am trying to add data to mysql from excel. i am getting the above error on this line: rs.Open strSQL, oConn, adOpenDynamic, adLockOptimistic here is my code: Dim oConn As ADODB.Connection Private Sub ConnectDB() Set oConn = New ADODB.Connection oConn.Open "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver};" & _ "SERVER=localhost;" & _ "DATABASE=employees;" & _ "USER=root;" & _ "PASSWORD=some_pass;" & _ "Option=3" End Sub Function esc(txt As String) esc = Trim(Replace(txt, "'", "\'")) End Function Private Sub InsertData() Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Set rs = New ADODB.Recordset ConnectDB With wsBooks For rowCursor = 2 To 11 strSQL = "INSERT INTO tutorial (author, title, price) " & _ "VALUES ('" & esc(.Cells(rowCursor, 1)) & "', " & _ "'" & esc(.Cells(rowCursor, 2)) & "', " & _ esc(.Cells(rowCursor, 3)) & ")" rs.Open strSQL, oConn, adOpenDynamic, adLockOptimistic Next End With End Sub whats wrong with rs.Open strSQL, oConn, adOpenDynamic, adLockOptimistic ? why am i getting the odbc error?

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• Jquery tooltip absolute position above a link which is inside paragraph text?

  - by BerggreenDK

  I am trying to retrieve the position of an HTML element inside a paragraph. Eg. a span or anchor. I would also like the width of the element. So that when I hover the object, I can activate/build/show a sort of toolbar/tooltip above the element dynamically. I need it to be dynamically added to exisiting content, so somekinda "search-replace" jQuery thingy that scans the elements within eg. a DIV and then does this for all that matches this "feature". Main problem/question is: How do I retrieve the "current absolute" position of the element I am hovering with the mouse. I dont want the toolbar/tooltip to be following the mouse, but instead it must "snap" to the element its hovering. so I was thinking: "place BOX -20px from current element. Match width.... Possible? is there a jQuery plugin for this already - or? Sample code: <div class="helper"> <h1>headline</h1> <p>Here is some sample text. But <a href="somewhere.htm" class="help help45">this is with an explanation you can hover</a>. <a href="somewhereelse.htm">And this isnt.</a> <ul> <li>We could also do it <a href="somewhere.htm" class="help help32">inside a bullet list</a></li> </ul> </div> The .help is the class triggering the "help" and the .help45 or .help32 is the helpsection needed to be shown (but thats another task later, as I am hoping to retreive the "id" from the "help45" so a serverlookup for id=45 can load the text needed to be shown. Nb. if the page scrolls etc. the helptip still needs to follow the item on the page until closed/hidden.

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• rendering a TextView in a Bitmap for an android widget

  - by foke

  I'm building a widget which displays some text. By widget I mean the kind which lies on the desktop. The problem is that I want to change text's font at runtime. There is several textview I would like, at runtime, to set the first as bold, the second blue and italic for example, etc. I came up with this : TextView tv = new TextView(context); tv.setText(stringToDisplay); tv.setTextColor(0xa00050ff); // example tv.setTextSize(30); // example Bitmap b = loadBitmapFromView(tv); updateViews.setImageViewBitmap(R.id.id_of_the_imageview, b); with private static Bitmap loadBitmapFromView(View v) { Bitmap b = Bitmap.createBitmap(v.getLayoutParams().width, v.getLayoutParams().height, Bitmap.Config.ARGB_8888); Canvas c = new Canvas(b); v.layout(0, 0, v.getLayoutParams().width, v.getLayoutParams().height); v.draw(c); return b; } but it wont work (NullPointerException on first line of loadBitmap), until I replace v.getLayoutParams().width, v.getLayoutParams().height by fixed sizes like 250, 50 Bitmap b = Bitmap.createBitmap(250, 50, Bitmap.Config.ARGB_8888); // ... v.layout(0, 0, 250, 50); But that's not a good solution ... so I tried this : LayoutInflater li = (LayoutInflater) context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); View row = li.inflate(R.layout.widget_text, null); TextView tv = (TextView) row.findViewById(R.id.id_of_the_textview); widget_text being a layout similar to the displayed one but with TextViews instead of ImageViews, in the hope to get some size information out of it .. but it's not working and I get this exception : 01-02 17:35:06.001: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(11025): Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: width and height must be > 0 on the call to Bitmap.createBitmap() so, someone could point me in the right direction?

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