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  • Link Button on asp.net user control not firing

    - by andyriome
    Hi I have a user control, which is added to another user control. The nested user control is built up of a gridview, an image button and a link button. The nested user control is added to the outer control as a collection object based upon the results bound to the gridview. The problem that I have is that my link button doesn't work. I click on it and the event doesn't fire. Even adding a break point was not reached. As the nested user control is added a number of times, I have set image button to have unique ids and also the link button. Whilst image button works correctly with its java script. The link button needs to fire an event in the code behind, but despite all my efforts, I can't make it work. I am adding the link button to the control dynamically. Below is the relevant code that I am using: public partial class ucCustomerDetails : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected override void CreateChildControls( ) { base.CreateChildControls( ); string strUniqueID = lnkShowAllCust.UniqueID; strUniqueID = strUniqueID.Replace('$','_'); this.lnkShowAllCust.ID = strUniqueID; this.lnkShowAllCust.Click += new EventHandler(this.lnkShowAllCust_Click); this.Controls.Add(lnkShowAllCust); } protected override void OnInit (EventArgs e) { CreateChildControls( ); base.OnInit(e); } protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.EnsureChildControls( ); } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (IsPostBack) { CreateChildControls( ); } } protected void lnkShowAllCust_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.OnCustShowAllClicked(new EventArgs ( )); } protected virtual void OnCustShowAllClicked(EventArgs args) { if (this.ViewAllClicked != null) { this.ViewAllClicked(this, args); } } public event EventHandler ViewAllClicked; } I have been stuggling with this problem for the last 3 days and have had no success with it, and I really do need some help. Can anyone please help me?

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  • jquery autosuggest: what is wrong with this code?

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i have been struggling to make it work my autosugest/autocomplete and its acting strange unless i am doing completely silly here. please have a look 1) does not do anything, does not work or nor fire the event. <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Scripts/jquery.autocomplete.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#<%=txtHost.UniqueID %>").autocomplete("HostService.asmx/GetHosts", { dataType: 'json' , contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8" , parse: function(data) { var rows = Array(); debugger for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { rows[i] = { data: data[i], value: data[i].LName, result: data[i].LName }; } return rows; } , formatItem: function(row, i, max) { return data.LName + ", " + data.FName; } }); }); </script> 2) this works if i remove the above code and replace with this code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#txtHost").autocomplete("lazy blazy crazy daisy maisy ugh".split(" ")); }); </script> any help ?

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  • Is is possible to do an end-run around generics covariance in C# < 4 in this hypothetical situation?

    - by John Feminella
    Suppose I have a small inheritance hierarchy of Animals: public interface IAnimal { string Speak(); } public class Animal : IAnimal { public Animal() {} public string Speak() { return "[Animal] Growl!"; } } public class Ape : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Ape] Rawrrrrrrr!"; } } public class Bat : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Bat] Screeeeeee!"; } } Next, here's an interface offering a way to turn strings into IAnimals. public interface ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal { T Transmogrify(string s); } And finally, here's one strategy for doing that: public class Transmogrifier<T> : ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal, new() { public T Transmogrify(string s) { T t = default(T); if (typeof(T).Name == s) t = new T(); return t; } } Now, the question. Is it possible to replace the sections marked [1], [2], and [3] such that this program will compile and run correctly? If you can't do it without touching parts other than [1], [2], and [3], can you still get an IAnimal out of each instance of a Transmogrifier in a collection containing arbitrary implementations of an IAnimal? Can you even form such a collection to begin with? static void Main(string[] args) { var t = new Transmogrifier<Ape>(); Ape a = t.Transmogrify("Ape"); Console.WriteLine(a.Speak()); // Works! // But can we make an arbitrary collection of such animals? var list = new List<Transmogrifier< [1] >>() { // [2] }; // And how about we call Transmogrify() on each one? foreach (/* [3] */ transmogrifier in list) { IAnimal ia = transmogrifier.Transmogrify("Bat"); } } }

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  • Perform function in attr() callback?

    - by Jared
    Hello, Not sure if I am doing this correctly or not. Here is my JS: var currentIMG; $( '.leftMenuProductButton' ).hover ( function () { currentIMG = $("#swapImg").attr("src"); var swapIMG = $(this).next(".menuPopup").attr("id"); $("#swapImg").css("opacity", 0).attr("src", productImages[swapIMG], function(){ $("#swapImg").fadeTo("slow", 1); }); }, function () { $("#swapImg").stop().attr("src",currentIMG); }); What I am trying to do is Set a IMG Opacity to 0 (#swapImg), replace it's SRC, then fade it back in. So I am trying to fade it back in using a callback from the attr(). If I am doing this incorrectly, can someone please explain a better way to do this? The reason I am trying to do it in the callback is that I need the fadeTo to only occur after the new image is fully loaded, otherwise it does a bit of a flash. I am using jquery 1.4, and according to http://jquery14.com/day-01/jquery-14 it appears you can do a callback in the attr() method.

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  • Need a piece of advice about e-mail automation in ms exchange + ms office environment

    - by be here now
    Hi, guys. I need your help in the following simple situation. I've got an MS Exchange server and some client computers running on XP with Office 2003 installed. And I've got a process I need to automate. Twice a day a known list of people sends an e-mail to a certain mailbox (let's call it manager's mailbox) - basically, an accomplishment report. After recieving letters from all of these people the mailbox owner sends and e-mail to another mailbox, meaning that a certain process is done. What I need to do is to replace this manager's mailbox with a depersonalized mailbox that will accumulate all the reports and automatically send a message after collecting all of them. I am definitely not in a "oh my God, what shold I do?" situation, and currently my imagination shows me a couple of ways to solve this problem, which I'm going to try, and I'm not ascking for a ready solution. But since I'm not experienced in Office/VBA developement, I'd like to ask a corresponding pro's opinion. Can you point me to a right direction from the best practices' point of view?

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  • How to write to a Text File in Pipe delimited format from MS Sql Server / ASP.Net?

    - by NJTechGuy
    I have a text file which needs to be constantly updated (regular intervals). All I want is the syntax and possibly some code that outputs data from a MS Sql Database using ASP.Net. The code I have so far is : <%@ Import Namespace="System.IO" %> <script language="vb" runat="server"> sub Page_Load(sender as Object, e as EventArgs) Dim FILENAME as String = Server.MapPath("Output.txt") Dim objStreamWriter as StreamWriter ' If Len(Dir$(FILENAME)) > 0 Then Kill(FILENAME) objStreamWriter = File.AppendText(FILENAME) objStreamWriter.WriteLine("A user viewed this demo at: " & DateTime.Now.ToString()) objStreamWriter.Close() Dim objStreamReader as StreamReader objStreamReader = File.OpenText(FILENAME) Dim contents as String = objStreamReader.ReadToEnd() lblNicerOutput.Text = contents.Replace(vbCrLf, "<br>") objStreamReader.Close() end sub </script> <asp:label runat="server" id="lblNicerOutput" Font-Name="Verdana" /> With PHP, it is a breeze, but with .Net I have no clue. If you could help me with the database connectivity and how to write the data in pipe delimited format to an Output.txt file, that had be awesome. Thanks guys!

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  • Drupal - Search box not working - custom theme template

    - by vr3690
    Hello, I am using a customised version of search-theme-from.tpl When I use the search box, I do get transferred to the search page. But the search does not actually take place. The search box on the search results page does work though. This is my search-them-form.tpl.php file (demo : <input type="text" name="search_theme_form_keys" id="edit-search-theme-form-keys" value="Search" title="Enter the terms you wish to search for" class="logininput" height="24px" onblur="restoreSearch(this)" onfocus="clearInput(this)" /> <input type="submit" name="op" id="edit-submit" value="" class="form-submit" style="display: none;" /> <input type="hidden" name="form_token" id="edit-search-theme-form-form-token" value="<?php print drupal_get_token('search_theme_form'); ?>" /> <input type="hidden" name="form_id" id="edit-search-theme-form" value="search_theme_form" /> There is also a javascript file involved. I guess it's use is pretty clear from the code: function trim(str) { return str.replace(/^\s+|\s+$/g, ''); } function clearInput(e) { e.value=""; // clear default text when clicked e.className="longininput_onfocus"; //change class } function restoreSearch(e) { if (trim(e.value) == '') { { e.value="Search"; // reset default text onBlur e.className="logininput"; //reset class } } } What can be the problem and how can I fix it?

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  • Call Oracle package function using Odbc from C#

    - by Paolo Tedesco
    I have a function defined inside an Oracle package: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE BODY TESTUSER.TESTPKG as FUNCTION testfunc(n IN NUMBER) RETURN NUMBER as begin return n + 1; end testfunc; end testpkg; / How can I call it from C# using Odbc? I tried the following: using System; using System.Data; using System.Data.Odbc; class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { using (OdbcConnection connection = new OdbcConnection("DSN=testdb;UID=testuser;PWD=testpwd")) { connection.Open(); OdbcCommand command = new OdbcCommand("TESTUSER.TESTPKG.testfunc", connection); command.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; command.Parameters.Add("ret", OdbcType.Int).Direction = ParameterDirection.ReturnValue; command.Parameters.Add("n", OdbcType.Int).Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; command.Parameters["n"].Value = 42; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); Console.WriteLine(command.Parameters["ret"].Value); } } } But I get an exception saying "Invalid SQL Statement". What am I doing wrong?

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  • how can access public properties of MasterPage from external Class ?

    - by eugeneK
    Why i can't access MasterPage's public property (MessagePlaceholder) from other Class (Errors) ? Error compiler gives me is "Error 1 The type or namespace name 'MyMasterPage' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" my master page code behind using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public partial class MyMasterPage : System.Web.UI.MasterPage { public string MessagePlaceholder { get { return messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml; } set { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = value; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = Errors.getMessage(); } } } my Errors Class public static string getMessage() { HttpContext c = HttpContext.Current; string messageType = ""; if (c.Session["errorMessage"] != null) { messageType = "errorMessage"; } else if (c.Session["successMessage"] != null) { messageType = "successMessage"; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(messageType)) { StringBuilder userMessageSb = new StringBuilder(); userMessageSb.Append(string.Format("<div id=\"{0}\" title=\"{1}\">{2}</div>", messageType, messageType.Replace("Message",string.Empty), c.Session[messageType])); // fix so message will not re-appear c.Session.Remove(messageType); messageType = userMessageSb.ToString(); } return messageType; } public static void setSuccess(string successMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["successMessage"] = successMessage; } public static void setError(string errorMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["errorMessage"] = errorMessage; if (!isRedirect) { ((HttpContext.Current.CurrentHandler as System.Web.UI.Page).Master as MyMasterPage).MessagePlaceholder = getMessage(); } } this is how i set error if (true) { Errors.setError("this is an error demo", false); return; } or with redirect after error if (true) { Errors.setError("yet another error", true); Response.Redirect("~/error.aspx"); }

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  • Is this an acceptable use of "ASCII arithmetic"?

    - by jmgant
    I've got a string value of the form 10123X123456 where 10 is the year, 123 is the day number within the year, and the rest is unique system-generated stuff. Under certain circumstances, I need to add 400 to the day number, so that the number above, for example, would become 10523X123456. My first idea was to substring those three characters, convert them to an integer, add 400 to it, convert them back to a string and then call replace on the original string. That works. But then it occurred to me that the only character I actually need to change is the third one, and that the original value would always be 0-3, so there would never be any "carrying" problems. It further occurred to me that the ASCII code points for the numbers are consecutive, so adding the number 4 to the character "0", for example, would result in "4", and so forth. So that's what I ended up doing. My question is, is there any reason that won't always work? I generally avoid "ASCII arithmetic" on the grounds that it's not cross-platform or internationalization friendly. But it seems reasonable to assume that the code points for numbers will always be sequential, i.e., "4" will always be 1 more than "3". Anybody see any problem with this reasoning? Here's the code. string input = "10123X123456"; input[2] += 4; //Output should be 10523X123456

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  • Manually wiring up unobtrusive jquery validation client-side without Model/Data Annotations, MVC3

    - by cmorganmcp
    After searching and experimenting for 2 days I relent. What I'd like to do is manually wire up injected html with jquery validation. I'm getting a simple string array back from the server and creating a select with the strings as options. The static fields on the form are validating fine. I've been trying the following: var dates = $("<select id='ShiftDate' data-val='true' data-val-required='Please select a date'>"); dates.append("<option value=''>-Select a Date-</option>"); for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { dates.append("<option value='" + data[i] + "'>" + data[i] + "</option>"); } $("fieldset", addShift).append($("<p>").append("<label for='ShiftDate'>Shift Date</label>\r").append(dates).append("<span class='field-validation-valid' data-valmsg-for='ShiftDate' data-valmsg-replace='true'></span>")); // I tried the code below as well instead of adding the data-val attributes and span manually with no luck dates.rules("add", { required: true, messages: { required: "Please select a date" } }); // Thought this would do it when I came across several posts but it didn't $.validator.unobtrusive.parse(dates.closest("form")); I know I could create a view model ,decorate it with a required attribute, create a SelectList server-side and send that, but it's more of a "how would I do this" situation now. Can anyone shed light on why the above code wouldn't work as I expect? -chad

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  • HOw can I have a Alert message in a div inside the form

    - by Paromita Poddar
    I have this script and it sends out an alert message. All I want is to put the alert message in a div inside the form. here is the script can you please help asap ` var registered=false function ExamineRegistration() { var email =document.regform.email.value; var emailcheck= email.indexOf("@") var emailcheck2= email.indexOf(".") var password = document.regform.pass.value; var passcheck = password.charAt(0) var message_out = "Errors: " if(email=="" || password==""){ message_out = message_out+"All boxes should be filled in, " } if(emailcheck==-1 || emailcheck2==-1) { message_out = message_out+"email must contain @ and ., " } if(password!=password) { message_out=message_out+"password must match" } if(message_out == "Errors: ") { message_out = "You have successfully been logged in!" registered=true } alert(message_out); } --> This function helps the user first to register and than to enter the site. function Checkreg() { if (registered ==true) { location.replace("http://www.google.com") } else alert("Please Login to proceed") } </script> ` I have a form. I just want the alert message to appear inside the form at the top. I just dont know how to display the alert message inside the form instead of a pop up.

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  • Calling a jQuery plugin inside itself

    - by Real Tuty
    I am trying to create a comet like thing. I have a plugin that collects data from a php page. The problem is that i dont know how to call the plugin inside itself. If it were a function i could go like this: function j () {setTimeout(j(), 1000);}, but i am using a jQuery plugin. Here is my plugin code: (function($) { $.fn.watch = function(ops) { var $this_ = this, setngs = $.extend({ 'type' : 'JSON', 'query' : 'GET', 'url' : '', 'data' : '', 'wait' : 1000 }, ops); if (setngs.type === '') { return false; } else if (setngs.query === '') { return false; } else if (setngs.url === '') { return false; } else if (setngs.wait === '') { return false; } else if (setngs.wait === 0) { setngs.wait = 1000; } var xhr = $.ajax({ type : setngs.query, dataType : setngs.type, url : setngs.url, success : function(data) { var i = 0; for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { var html = $this_.html(), str = '<li class="post" id="post-' + data[i].id + '"><div class="inner"><div class="user">' + data[i].user + '</div><div class="body">' + data[i].body + '</div></div></li>'; $this_.html(str + html); } setTimeout($this_, 1000); } }); }; })(jQuery); where it says setTimeout($this_, 1000); this is where im having trouble. I don't know what to call the plugin as. $this_ is what I thought might work but I am wrong. That is what i need to replace. Thanks for your help.

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  • Where can I find my iPhone app's Core Data persistent store?

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving into iPhone development, so I apologize in advance if this is a ridiculous question, but in a new iPad app project using the Core Data framework, here's the generated code for creating the persistentStoreCoordinator... - (NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *)persistentStoreCoordinator { if (persistentStoreCoordinator != nil) { return persistentStoreCoordinator; } NSURL *storeUrl = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [[self applicationDocumentsDirectory] stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"ApplicationName.sqlite"]]; NSError *error = nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:nil error:&error]) { /* Replace this implementation with code to handle the error appropriately. abort() causes the application to generate a crash log and terminate. You should not use this function in a shipping application, although it may be useful during development. If it is not possible to recover from the error, display an alert panel that instructs the user to quit the application by pressing the Home button. Typical reasons for an error here include: * The persistent store is not accessible * The schema for the persistent store is incompatible with current managed object model Check the error message to determine what the actual problem was. */ NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } return persistentStoreCoordinator; } My questions are... The first time I run the app, is the ApplicationName.sqllite database created automatically if it doesn't exist? If not, when is it created? When data is added to it programmatically? Once the DB does exist, where can I locate the file? I'd like to open it with a different program so I can manually manipulate the data. Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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  • Vim: change formatting of variables in a script

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    I am using vim to edit a shell script (did not use the right coding standard). I need to change all of my variables from camel-hum-notation startTime to caps-and-underscore-notation START_TIME. I do not want to change the way method names are represented. I was thinking one way to do this would be to write a function and map it to a key. The function could do something like generating this on the command line: s/<word under cursor>/<leave cursor here to type what to replace with> I think that this function could be applyable to other situations which would be handy. Two questions: Question 1: How would I go about creating that function. I have created functions in vim before the biggest thing I am clueless about is how to capture movement. Ie if you press dw in vim it will delete the rest of a word. How do you capture that? Also can you leave an uncompleted command on the vim command line? Question 2: Got a better solution for me? How would you approach this task?

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  • Java EE 6: JSF vs Servlet + JSP. Should I bother learning JSF?

    - by Harry Pham
    I am trying to get familiar with Java EE 6 by reading http://java.sun.com/javaee/6/docs/tutorial/doc/gexaf.html. I am a bit confused about the use of JSF. Usually, the way I develop my Web App would be, Servlet would act like a controller and JSP would act like a View in an MVC model. So Does JSF try to replace this structure? Below are the quote from the above tutorial: Servlet are best suited for service-oriented App and control function of presentation-oriented App like dispatching request JSF and Facelet are more appropriated for generating mark-up like XHTML, and generally used for presentation-oriented App Not sure if I understand the above quote too well, they did not explain too well what is service-oriented vs presentation-oriented. A JavaServer Faces application can map HTTP requests to component-specific event handling and manage components as stateful objects on the server. Any knowledgeable Java developer out there can give me a quick overview about JSF, JSP and Servlet? Do I integrate them all, or do I use them separated base on the App? if so then what kind of app use JSF in contrast with Servlet and JSP A JavaServer Faces application can map HTTP requests to component-specific event handling and manage components as stateful objects on the server. Sound like what servlet can do, but not sure about manage components as stateful objects on the server. Not even sure what that mean? Thanks in advance.

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  • Overriding Code Igniter 2.14's global_xss_filtering settting

    - by user2353007
    I have created the following file at: application/core/MY_Security.php <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); /* * Does not work with global xss */ class MY_Security extends CI_Security { function xss_clean($str, $is_image = FALSE) { $CI =& get_instance(); $CI->load->library('My_cleaner'); return $CI->my_cleaner->clean_html($str); } } this works great for $this-input-post('post_var', TRUE); and $this-security-xss_clean($input); It is working very well except when I go into application/config/config.php and change $config['global_xss_filtering] = FALSE; to $config['global_xss_filtering] = TRUE; in that case, I just get a white page on every controllers action/function. Does anybody know what else I have to change to get global_xss_filtering = TRUE; to work when overriding the xss_clean function in system/core/Security.php through application/core/MY_Security.php? I'm guessing it might be something with the loader but I'm not sure where to start. The next option is to just replace the function in the system/core/Security.php file which I am trying to avoid. Thanks.

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  • Any reason why my $.ajax success callback is not executed in Jquery?

    - by arma
    Hello, Today i discovered that my dev version of my website do not execute success callback, but all other javascript and jquery code is running good. Even my ajax request is performed and i can see response in firebug. $('#login').submit(function(){ var email = $('#l_email').val(); var pass = $('#l_pass').val(); if(email && pass != ''){ var str = decodeURIComponent($(this).serialize()); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "login.php", data: str, success: function(msg){ if(msg == 'OK'){ window.location = 'index.php' }else if (msg == 'NOT_OK'){ if(lang == 'lv'){ alert(message); }else if(lang == 'ru'){ alert(message); } }else if (msg == 'EMAIL_NOT_VALID'){ if(lang == 'lv'){ alert(message); }else if(lang == 'ru'){ alert(message); } } } }); }else{ alert('That form is empty.'); } return false; }); The thing is $.ajax part executes fine and i can see response in firebug "OK". But redirect is not happening and even if i replace that redirect with something like alert or console.log nothing comes up. What could cause this? It's really hard to track since firebug gives no errors.

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  • How to amend return value design in OO manner?

    - by FrontierPsycho
    Hello. I am no newb on OO programming, but I am faced with a puzzling situation. I have been given a program to work on and extend, but the previous developers didn't seem that comfortable with OO, it seems they either had a C background or an unclear understanding of OO. Now, I don't suggest I am a better developer, I just think that I can spot some common OO errors. The difficult task is how to amend them. In my case, I see a lot of this: if (ret == 1) { out.print("yadda yadda"); } else if (ret == 2) { out.print("yadda yadda"); } else if (ret == 3) { out.print("yadda yadda"); } else if (ret == 0) { out.print("yadda yadda"); } else if (ret == 5) { out.print("yadda yadda"); } else if (ret == 6) { out.print("yadda yadda"); } else if (ret == 7) { out.print("yadda yadda"); } ret is a value returned by a function, in which all Exceptions are swallowed, and in the catch blocks, the above values are returned explicitly. Oftentimes, the Exceptions are simply swallowed, with empty catch blocks. It's obvious that swalllowing exceptions is wrong OO design. My question concerns the use of return values. I believe that too is wrong, however I think that using Exceptions for control flow is equally wrong, and I can't think of anything to replace the above in a correct, OO manner. Your input, please?

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  • Change table row using Rails Ajax

    - by xopht
    I've a simple page with link_to_remote Rails Ajax function and HTML table. I'd like to change row of the table when click that link. This is my html. <table border="1"> <tr> <td><div id="ajax_result_1">1</div></td> <div id="ajax_result_2"><td>2</td></div> </tr> <div id="ajax_result_3"> <tr> <td>3</td> <td>4</td> </tr> </div> </table> And this is my code. <%= link_to_remote 'Change', :update => "ajax_result_1", :url => "change_path" %> change action just render simple text. When I use ajax_result_1 for :update, it worked okay. But, not for *ajax_result_2* and *ajax_result_3*. Is there a way to solve this? I want to replace row of the table.

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  • How to configure Server Topology for exposing an internal application for external access?

    - by ronaldwidha
    Hi All, I guess this question is bordering to a Server Fault question. I'd like to know the best configuration for exposing an internal application (in this case a load balanced Asp.Net MVC application) for external access. More details about the situation: The Asp.Net MVC Application is currently running on 2 servers The 2 servers are behind a Windows Network Load Balancer All the servers are on premise/internal network I'm thinking of introducing an F5 Load balancer on off premise DMZ to replace the Windows Network Load Balancer. F5 will act as the public traffic gateway and load balancers to the 2 servers. However, I'd like the internal users to not have go through the Internet to access the app. The idea that I have so far is to keep both Windows Network Load Balancer and the F5. Each appliance will have its own IP and will have its own domain name. External users can use the public domain name which will hit F5, whereas internal users can use the internal domain name which will hit the Windows Network Load Balancer. Is this a good idea? Or is there a better way of doing this?

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  • Update Web Reference in Visual Studio

    - by NeilD
    Hi, I have inherited a web site project that makes use of a number of WCF Web Services hosted on a BizTalk server. We have two environments that I need to deploy this project to, with different URLs for the different BizTalk servers. i.e. In the Staging environment, I need to point the services at xx.xx.xx.101 In the Live environment, I need to point them at xx.xx.xx.102, or whatever. Currently, we've got all of the URLs stored in keys in the web.config file, so that we can change them dynamically... Unfortunately this isn't working! If I change the URL in the web.config to something other than what the project was compiled with, I get an error when calling the service: Server did not recognize the value of HTTP Header SOAPAction: xx.xx.xx.101\ServiceName\MethodName I'm told that the only way they've known to deploy this is to update the web.config URLs, change all of the web references in Visual Studio to match, click on "update web reference" for each reference in Visual Studio, and then compile. It's driving me mad! I've written a pre-build NAnt script to go through and replace all instances of the URL found anywhere in the project directory, and even that isn't making any difference. There must be something else being pulled down from the service when I click the "update reference", but I'm new to working with web services, and so I'm not sure what. Does anyone have any ideas? Is there a way to do this programatically? Thanks.

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  • Maven Assembly: include a dependency with a different classifier

    - by James Kingsbery
    I would like to build two different versions of a WAR in Maven (I know that's a no-no, that's just the way it is given the current situation). In the version of a WAR depicted by an assembly, I want to replace a dependency by the same dependency with a different classifier. For example, I was expecting this assembly to work: <assembly> <id>end-user</id> <formats> <format>war</format> </formats> <dependencySets> <dependencySet> <excludes> <exclude>group:artifact:jar:${project.version}</exclude> </excludes> <includes> <include>group:artifact:jar:${project.version}:end-user</include> </includes> </dependencySet> </dependencySets> </assembly> This doesn't work, but am I heading in the right direction? I've already read all the pages on the Maven assembly page and the section on the Maven Definitive Guide that seems relevant. Any pointers would be helpful.

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  • perl - universal operator overload

    - by Todd Freed
    I have an idea for perl, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to implement it. The idea is to have new versions of every operator which consider the undefined value as the identity of that operation. For example: $a = undef + 5; # undef treated as 0, so $a = 5 $a = undef . "foo"; # undef treated as '', so $a = foo $a = undef && 1; # undef treated as false, $a = true and so forth. ideally, this would be in the language as a pragma, or something. use operators::awesome; However, I would be satisfied if I could implement this special logic myself, and then invoke it where needed: use My::Operators; The problem is that if I say "use overload" inside My::Operators only affects objects blessed into My::Operators. So the question is: is there a way (with "use overoad" or otherwise) to do a "universal operator overload" - which would be called for all operations, not just operations on blessed scalars. If not - who thinks this would be a great idea !? It would save me a TON of this kind of code if($object && $object{value} && $object{value} == 15) replace with if($object{value} == 15) ## the special "is-equal-to" operator

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  • Questions regarding detouring by modifying the virtual table

    - by Elliott Darfink
    I've been practicing detours using the same approach as Microsoft Detours (replace the first five bytes with a jmp and an address). More recently I've been reading about detouring by modifying the virtual table. I would appreciate if someone could shed some light on the subject by mentioning a few pros and cons with this method compared to the one previously mentioned! I'd also like to ask about patched vtables and objects on the stack. Consider the following situation: // Class definition struct Foo { virtual void Call(void) { std::cout << "FooCall\n"; } }; // If it's GCC, 'this' is passed as the first parameter void MyCall(Foo * object) { std::cout << "MyCall\n"; } // In some function Foo * foo = new Foo; // Allocated on the heap Foo foo2; // Created on the stack // Arguments: void ** vtable, uint offset, void * replacement PatchVTable(*reinterpret_cast<void***>(foo), 0, MyCall); // Call the methods foo->Call(); // Outputs: 'MyCall' foo2.Call(); // Outputs: 'FooCall' In this case foo->Call() would end up calling MyCall(Foo * object) whilst foo2.Call() call the original function (i.e Foo::Call(void) method). This is because the compiler will try to decide any virtual calls during compile time if possible (correct me if I'm wrong). Does that mean it does not matter if you patch the virtual table or not, as long as you use objects on the stack (not heap allocated)?

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