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  • jQuery: Giving each matched element an unique ID

    - by AnGafraidh
    I am writing an 'inline translator' application to be used with a cloud computing platform to extend non-supported languages. The majority of this uses jQuery to find the text value, replace it with the translation, then append the element with a span tag that has an unique ID, to be used elsewhere within the application. The problem arises however, when there are more than one element, say , that have the exact same value to be translated (matched elements). What happens in the function in question is that it puts all matched elements in the same span, taking the second, third, fourth, etc. out of their parent tags. My code is pretty much like this example: <script src='jquery-1.4.2.js'></script> <script> jQuery.noConflict(); var uniqueID='asdfjkl'; jQuery(window).ready(function() { var myQ1 = jQuery("input[id~=test1]"); myClone=myQ1.clone(); myClone.val('Replaced this button'); myQ1.replaceWith('<span id='+uniqueID+'></span>'); jQuery('#'+uniqueID).append(myClone); }); </script> <table> <tr><td> <input id='test1' type='button' value="I'm a button!"></input> &nbsp; <input id='test2' type='button' value="And so am I"></input> </tr></td> <tr><td> <input id='test1' type='button' value="I'm a button!"></input> </tr></td> </table> As a workaround, I've experimented with using a loop to create a class for each span, rising in increment until jQuery("input[id~=test1]").length, but I can't seem to get anything I do to work. Is there any way to give each matched element an unique ID? My fluency in jQuery is being put to the test! Thanks for any help in advance. Aaron

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  • What's the best way to "shuffle" a table of database records?

    - by Darth
    Say that I have a table with a bunch of records, which I want to randomly present to users. I also want users to be able to paginate back and forth, so I have to perserve some sort of order, at least for a while. The application is basically only AJAX and it uses cache for already visited pages, so even if I always served random results, when the user tries to go back, he will get the previous page, because it will load from the local cache. The problem is, that if I return only random results, there might be some duplicates. Each page contains 6 results, so to prevent this, I'd have to do something like WHERE id NOT IN (1,2,3,4 ...) where I'd put all the previously loaded IDs. Huge downside of that solution is that it won't be possible to cache anything on the server side, as every user will request different data. Alternate solution might be to create another column for ordering the records, and shuffle it every insert time unit here. The problem here is, I'd need to set random number out of a sequence to every record in the table, which would take as many queries as there are records. I'm using Rails and MySQL if that's of any relevance.

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  • Sql Server Replication: Snapshot vs Merge

    - by Zyphrax
    Background information Let's say I have two database servers, both SQL Server 2008. One is in my LAN (ServerLocal), the other one is on a remote hosting environment (ServerRemote). I have created a database on ServerLocal and have an exact copy of that database on ServerRemote. The database on ServerRemote is part of a web application and I would like to keep it's data up-to-date with the data in the database ServerLocal. ServerLocal is able to communicate with ServerRemote, this is one-way traffic. Communication from ServerRemote to ServerLocal isn't available. Current solution I thought it would be a nice solution to use replication. So I've made ServerLocal a publisher and subscriptions are pushed to the ServerRemote. This works fine, when a snapshot is transfered to ServerRemote the existing data will be purged and the ServerRemote database is once again an exact replica of the database on ServerLocal. The problem Records that exist on ServerRemote that don't exist on ServerLocal are removed. This doesn't matter for most of my tables but in some of my tables I'd like to keep the existing data (aspnet_users for instance), and update the records if necessary. What kind of replication fits my problem?

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  • How to provide i18n service for developer and end user

    - by user247245
    Many android applications have quite poor i18n-support, and for an understandable reason, as it adds much work for the developer. From a both intuitive and cultural point of view it would be a good thing if end-users could translate the apps themself, and OTA share the translation, without reinstalling the app itself. In concept; as wikipedia, some add content easily, others only use what's there. It's of course important that the service is as easy as possible to use, both for app-developers, and people willing to transcribe. To keep it simple, this is the solution I'm concidering; Developer perspective: Developer uses a customized setContentView when open activities/layouts that will seach for thanslations of xml-entries. (below) The customized version is provided as a free downloadable library/class..., turning the i18n feature to more or less a one liner. User perspective: User downloads app without any translation As app launches, it checks locale running at phone, and will look for a translated xml-file at shared space in SD. If no or old transcribed xml (above), try to download new from internet-service (ansync). This is all done by library above, no need for intents. Translator perspective: Separate app to provide translations for any app using the i18n service above. (Could be just a webapp), with some form of QA on translators/input. QUESTION: Now, for this to work efficiently, it has to be AeasyAP for the developer to even bother, and the most fluent solution would be a customized version of setContentView, that simply loads the translated values from external xml, instead of the ones in the apk. Is this possible at all, and if not, what's your suggested solutions? (And of course, Happy New Year, feliz ano novo, blwyddyn newydd dda, Gott Nytt År, kontan ane nouvo, szczesliwego nowego roku ...) Regards, /T

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  • Bizzare results when running two Visual Studio Express C++ 2008 solutions

    - by Jamie Keeling
    This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a seperate solution, added the MSDN sample (Without any changes for my needs) and unsuprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (As in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on it's own without the original MSDN sample being open it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (It's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution as to this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

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  • architecture - centraled location for different modules (cms, webapplications, ...) - best practise

    - by NicoJuicy
    Let's just say that i want to create a cms + other online applications. I want them all to integrate into a central location, but they also have to be available seperately (not everyone want's more than the cms solution). Would i create a huge central application that contains all the database, which communicates through a webserice with the "standalone - integrated" modules? Or would i create them seperately and the only thing that the "central" application would do is syncing the information (eg. the cms and another solution can have the same tables (eg. clients or employees). Or do you have another idea? (i know i'm a little vague, but i can't "give" a lot of details because of work - contract). If someone has all the "packages" it should be possible for the central application to integrate all the modules at one place! Or if someone has more than 1 module, it should combine this on the website. What i thought is best, is that the central location contains only the users and their rights (eg. cms - all rights, ...), and the information get synced with every change. (module cms, adding a new client - store locally and send data to the central location, central location - send to modules = table clients updated everywhere) This way it is easy if someone only "bought" a module, they can sync it easily through the complete architecture. I hope i made myself clear!

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  • How can I prevent double file uploading with Amazon S3?

    - by Tony
    I decided to use Amazon S3 for document storage for an app I am creating. One issue I run into is while I need to upload the files to S3, I need to create a document object in my app so my users can perform CRUD actions. One solution is to allow for a double upload. A user uploads a document to the server my Rails app lives on. I validate and create the object, then pass it on to S3. One issue with this is progress indicators become more complicated. Using most out-of-the-box plugins would show the client that file has finished uploading because it is on my server, but then there would be a decent delay when the file was going from my server to S3. This also introduces unnecessary bandwidth (at least it does not seem necessary) The other solution I am thinking about is to upload the file directly to S3 with one AJAX request, and when that is successful, make a second AJAX request to store the object in my database. One issue here is that I would have to validate the file after it is uploaded which means I have to run some clean up code in S3 if the validation fails. Both seem equally messy. Does anyone have something more elegant working that they would not mind sharing? I would imagine this is a common situation with "cloud storage" being quite popular today. Maybe I am looking at this wrong.

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  • Namespaced controller redirect urls

    - by bajki
    Hello, i have probably a simple question. I have created a namespace panel with categories controller. After creating or editing a category, rails redirects me to website.com/categories/:id instead of website.com/panel/categories/:id. I've noticed that in the _form view, the @panel_categories argument of form_for() function points to /categories nor /panel/categories and that's causing this behaviour. Offcourse i can add a :url => '/panel/categories' param but i feel that it's not the best solution... Can you provide me any better solution? Thanks in advance Files: routes.rb: Photowall::Application.routes.draw do resources :photos resources :categories resources :fields resources :users, :user_sessions match 'login' => 'user_sessions#new', :as => :login match 'logout' => 'user_sessions#destroy', :as => :logout namespace :panel do root :to => "photos#index" resources :users, :photos, :categories, :fields end namespace :admin do root :to => "users#index" resources :users, :photos, :categories, :fields end end categories_controller.rb: http://pastebin.com/rWJykCCF model is the default one form: http://pastebin.com/HGmkZZHM

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  • How to change the width of displayed text nested in a div?

    - by romaintaz
    Hello, Imagine I have the following code (simplified regarding my real context of course): <div id="box" style="width: 120px;" onmouseover="this.style.width='200px'" onmouseout="this.style.width='120px'"> <div>A label</div> <div>Another label</div> <div>Another label, but a longer label</div> </div> What I want to achieve is the following: My div box has a fixed width (120px by default). In this configuration, every label nested in the box must be written in a single line. If the text is too long, then the overflow must be hidden. In my example, the third item will be displayed Another label, but a or Another label, but a .... When the cursor is entering the div box, the width of the box is modified (for example to 200px). In this configuration, the labels that were shorten in the first configuration are now displayed in the whole space. With my code snippet, the third label is displayed in two lines when the box has a 120px, and I do not want that... How can I achieve that? Note that I would be great if the solution works also for IE6! Even if I prefer a pure CSS/HTML solution, (simple) Javascript (and jQuery) is allowed!

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  • jQuery: If, Else with buttons error

    - by Wipqozn
    I'm running into an odd error. I'm working in Django 1.2, and have implemented the commenting framework. I'm trying to attach a hide/show button to each comment field, but whenever click on a hide/show button, it behaves as if each hide/show button beneath it on the page was clicked. Here's the jQuery code: <input type="Button" id="hideShow" name="hide/show" value="Hide"></input> <script> $("#hideShow").click(function() { if($(this).val() == "Hide") { $("textarea").hide("fast"); $(this).val("Show"); } else { $("textarea").show("fast"); $(this).val( "Hide"); } }); </script> So, when I click the Hide/show button, it will perform the action for each button beneath the clicked button + once for the button itself. So If I click a button, and there are two buttons beneath it, and value=hide it will first hide the 'textarea', than show the text area, than finally hide it again. I'm new to jQuery (although I do have experience in other languages), and I have an -idea- why it's not working: that whenever an action is performed jQuery jumps to the first one, than continues down the page looking for any other actions performed, and responds to each one. So it comes to my first button, sets it as being clicked, and so when jQuery comes across the other buttons it views them all as being 'clicked' and performs actions accordingly. I've thought of a semi-solution to my problem, putting in a variable which tracks how many times it has gone through, and than acting based on -that- action. But I would rather not do that, since it's not really a solution to the problem at hand but a work around. Any input is appreciated.

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  • Confirm bug Magento 1.4 'show/hide editor' in CMS

    - by latvian
    Hi When entering code in CMS static block(possible page as well) and in this code there is empty DIV tags such us: <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"><div class="dropoff_button"></div></a> The DIV tags will be gone next time you open the block to edit. it will look as this <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"> </a> without the div tags ...and saving again it modifies your code. I think it something to do with the 'show/hide editor'. By default it goes into the WYSIWYG editor, so when updating static block i don't see any other solution than 1."hide the editor' by clicking 'show/hide editor' 2.delete the old code from the editor 3. get code that doesn't miss the DIVs 4. Merge new code with code in 3 in some other editing software than magento 5. paste result in the magento editor, 6. Save Is this bug? What is your solution? Can i turn of WYSIWYG editor?

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  • Multiple leaf methods problem in composite pattern

    - by Ondrej Slinták
    At work, we are developing an PHP application that would be later re-programmed into Java. With some basic knowledge of Java, we are trying to design everything to be easily re-written, without any headaches. Interesting problem came out when we tried to implement composite pattern with huge number of methods in leafs. What are we trying to achieve (not using interfaces, it's just an example): class Composite { ... } class LeafOne { public function Foo( ); public function Moo( ); } class LeafTwo { public function Bar( ); public function Baz( ); } $c = new Composite( Array( new LeafOne( ), new LeafTwo( ) ) ); // will call method Foo in all classes in composite that contain this method $c->Foo( ); It seems like pretty much classic Composite pattern, but problem is that we will have quite many leaf classes and each of them might have ~5 methods (of which few might be different than others). One of our solutions, which seems to be the best one so far and might actually work, is using __call magic method to call methods in leafs. Unfortunately, we don't know if there is an equivalent of it in Java. So the actual question is: Is there a better solution for this, using code that would be eventually easily re-coded into Java? Or do you recommend any other solution? Perhaps there's some different, better pattern I could use here. In case there's something unclear, just ask and I'll edit this post.

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  • Can TFS workspaces be used without being tied to a specific machine?

    - by GWLlosa
    So I've got a situation where we have a project with 10 developers. Each developer, when they come in for the day, is randomly issued a machine to use for development that day. The machine names are different, say DEV01 - DEV10. At the time that they are issued to the developers, the machines are identical, and no changes the developers make during the day are persisted on the machines (source code changes are stored in TFS, not locally). These are of course actually virtual machines, but that's not really relevant to the point at hand. The problem is that each morning, the developers run into 3 issues: 1) The machine that they are assigned may not be the same machine they were last assigned to. For example, DevMan A might have used DEV04 yesterday, and received DEV06 today. His workspace definitions are now tied to DEV06; he must create a new workspace, or migrate the old workspace to DEV04. 2) The machine that they are assigned may have been in use yesterday, and some of the mappings may conflict. For example, DevMan A might have DEV04 today, and wish to create a workspace mapping the project folder to "C:\MyProj\Solution". However, DevMan B had DEV04 yesterday, and he used the same project folder. TFS now complains. 3) This may be the first time they are on a given machine. They now need to recreate for this machine all of their source-control mappings for the new machine. All of these issues can be resolved in a straightforward fashion on a case-by-case basis, but it does sap some productivity from the morning. We'd much prefer if the TFS workspace definitions could be 'relaxed', such that they did not include the machine name in the definition somehow. Barring that, if anyone is aware of a solution to the above problems that can run automatically, or with limited user intervention, that would also be ideal.

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  • How to prevent the user from leaving the page

    - by JohnathanKong
    Hey Everyone, I am currently building a registration site where if the user leaves, I want to pop up a CSS box asking him if he is sure or not. I can accomplish this feat using confirm boxes, but the client says that they are too ugly. I've tried using unload and beforeunload, but both cannot stop the page from being redirected. Using those to events, I return false, so maybe there's a way to cancel other than returning false? Another solution that I've had was redirecting them to another page that has my popup, but the problem with that is that if they do want to leave the page, and it wasn't a mistake, they lose the page they were originally trying to go to. If I was a user, that would irritate me. The last solution was real popup window. The only thing I don't like about that is that the main winow will have their destination page while the pop will have my page. In my opinion it looks disjoint. On top of that, I'd be worried about popup blockers.

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  • If attacker has original data, and encrypted data, can they determine the passphrase?

    - by Brad Cupit
    If an attacker has several distinct items (for example: e-mail addresses) and knows the encrypted value of each item, can the attacker more easily determine the secret passphrase used to encrypt those items? Meaning, can they determine the passphrase without resorting to brute force? This question may sound strange, so let me provide a use-case: User signs up to a site with their e-mail address Server sends that e-mail address a confirmation URL (for example: https://my.app.com/confirmEmailAddress/bill%40yahoo.com) Attacker can guess the confirmation URL and therefore can sign up with someone else's e-mail address, and 'confirm' it without ever having to sign in to that person's e-mail account and see the confirmation URL. This is a problem. Instead of sending the e-mail address plain text in the URL, we'll send it encrypted by a secret passphrase. (I know the attacker could still intercept the e-mail sent by the server, since e-mail are plain text, but bear with me here.) If an attacker then signs up with multiple free e-mail accounts and sees multiple URLs, each with the corresponding encrypted e-mail address, could the attacker more easily determine the passphrase used for encryption? Alternative Solution I could instead send a random number or one-way hash of their e-mail address (plus random salt). This eliminates storing the secret passphrase, but it means I need to store that random number/hash in the database. The original approach above does not require this extra table. I'm leaning towards the the one-way hash + extra table solution, but I still would like to know the answer: does having multiple unencrypted e-mail addresses and their encrypted counterparts make it easier to determine the passphrase used?

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  • When is Googling it wrong?

    - by Drahcir
    I've been going through Stack Overflow for quite a bit now and noticed certain people (usually experienced programmers) frown upon Googling (researching) certain problems. Since I myself tend to use Google quite a bit to solve certain programming related issues I found certain comments rather demoralising. Now some of you may have come here trigger happy to delete this post but I needed some clarification. I usually Google things that usually syntax related that I would have never figured out on my own. For example I once wondered how to access the properties of a class that I didn't have a direct relationship to. So after a bit of research I discovered reflection and got what I wanted. Now in another scenario is learning a new language, in my case Silverlight were it differs in certain aspects of .NET compared to say ASP.NET. A few weeks ago I had no idea how to load another Silverlight page (usercontrol) and had to Google my way to the solution which I found wasn't as simple as I had imagined. In scenario three is were I myself frown up, that is just stealing a huge chunk of code to avoid doing the work yourself, for example paging a HTML table using JavaScript, where one just copies and pastes the JavasSript code without as much as trying to understand how it works. I do admit I have done this once or twice before for trivial tasks that had very little time limit and weren't all that important but most of the time still have to throw away what I found because it took too much time to adapt it and get what I wanted out of it. In the last scenario, I sometimes have a piece of code that I would be really unhappy about, as in I find it sloppy or too overcomplicated and try to look on the Internet to see other ways to tackle the same problem, let's say filtering through a table. With the knowledge I acquire I learned new coding practices that help me work more efficiently like "Do not repeat yourself" and such. Now in your opinion when do you find it wrong to use Google (or any other researching tool) to find a solution to your problem?

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  • Calling NSFetchedResultsController & CoreData experts

    - by JK
    I am having a few nagging issues with NSFetchedResultsController and CoreData, any of which I would be very grateful to get help on. Issue 1 - Updates: I update my store on a background thread which results in certain rows being delete, inserted or updated. The changes are merged into the context on the main thread using the "mergeChangesFromContextDidSaveNotification:" method. Inserts and deletes are updated properly, but updates are not (e.g. the cell label is not updated with the change) although I have confirmed the updates to come through the contextDidSaveNotifcation, exactly like the inserts and deleted. My current workaround is to temporarily change the staleness interval of the context to 0, but this does not seem like the ideal solution. Issue 2 - Deleting objects: My fetch batch size is 20. If an object is deleted by the background thread which is in the first 20 rows, everything works fine. But if the object is after the first 20 rows and the table is scrolled down, a "CoreData could not fulfill a fault" error is raised. I have tried resaving the context and reperforming the frc fetch - all to no avail. Note: In this scenario, the frc delegate method "didChangeObject...." is not called for the delete - I assume this is because the object in question had not been faulted at that time (as it is was outside the initial fetch range). But for some reason, the context still thinks the object is around, although is has been deleted from the store. Issue 3 - Deleting sections : When the deletion of a row leads to the deletion of a section, I have gotten the "invalid number of rows in section???" error. I have worked around this by removing the "reloadSection" line from the NSFetchedResultsChangeMove: section and replacing it with "[tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths...." This seems to work, but once again, I am not sure if this is the best solution. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you!

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  • Why won't my Setup Project Perform my Custom Registration Process

    - by Jordan S
    I am trying to write an Setup Project/Installer for a class library driver that I wrote in C# using Visual Studio 2008. The driver project has a section of code that looks like this... [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterASCOM(Type t) { Trace.WriteLine("Registration Started."); DoRegistration(true); } In the driver project Properties - "Assembly Information" I have set checked the box that says Make COM-Visible = true. I added a Setup Project to the solution in VS, added the output dll from the driver project so that it installs on the target machine and set the Register property of the dll to "vsdraCOM". So, my understanding is that when the installer runs it SHOULD execute the methods of the dll that are marked with [COMRegisterFunction]. Using SysInternals Debug View I can monitor when the above code snippet is hit by watching for the "Registration started" text to show up in the window. When I build the solution, I can see the text show up so I know the driver is registering properly. The problem is that when I run the installer, I don't think it is doing the registration bit. I see nothing show up in Debug View. And if i try to access my driver via another application I get an error saying it "Cannot create ActiveX object". Why does the registration not occur during the install process? The driver does register for COM but it does NOT call my custom registration method. Does anyone have and suggestions of what I could be missing? Is there another way I can debug this? (I can provide more code if anyone want's to take a look!!)

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  • Post complex types to WebApi Client

    - by BumbleBee
    I am new to WebAPI. I have a MVC project and webApi project both reside under the **same solution**. Also, BLL Class library and DAL class library reside under the same solution. Earlier, my MVC project will talk to the BLL now I am trying to create a WebAPi project which stands in between MVC and BLL. Here is what I have come up with so far : I'm using the HTTPClient to post to a WebApi project. My post method on my controller accepts a single parameter (a model). StatsCriteria criteria = new StatsCriteria(); ...... var client = new HttpClient(); var response = client.PostAsJsonAsync("http://localhost:52765/api/reports", criteria).Result; ....... Here's the signature for my controller in Webapi [HttpPost] public CMAReportVM Reports([FromBody] StatsCriteria criteria) { var cmaReport = Service3.GetCMAReport(criteria.Mlsnums); //Create Map to enable mapping business object to View Model Mapper.CreateMap<CMAReport, CMAReportVM>(); // Maps model to VM model class var cmaVM = Mapper.Map<CMAReport, CMAReportVM>(cmaReport); reutn cmaVM; } // and here's my routing: config.Routes.MapHttpRoute( name: "DefaultApi", routeTemplate: "api/{controller}/{id}", defaults: new { id = RouteParameter.Optional } I am getting the following 405 : Method not allowed. As the WebAPI and MVC project both reside under same sloution I am not sure where/how to host my webapi.

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  • Just for fun (C# and C++)...time yourself [closed]

    - by Ted
    Possible Duplicate: What is your solution to the FizzBuzz problem? OK guys this is just for fun, no flamming allowed ! I was reading the following http://www.codinghorror.com/blog/2007/02/why-cant-programmers-program.html and couldn't believe the following sentence... " I've also seen self-proclaimed senior programmers take more than 10-15 minutes to write a solution." For those that can't be bothered to read the article, the background is this: ....I set out to develop questions that can identify this kind of developer and came up with a class of questions I call "FizzBuzz Questions" named after a game children often play (or are made to play) in schools in the UK. An example of a Fizz-Buzz question is the following: Write a program that prints the numbers from 1 to 100. But for multiples of three print "Fizz" instead of the number and for the multiples of five print "Buzz". For numbers which are multiples of both three and five print "FizzBuzz". SO I decided to test myself. I took 5 minutes in C++ and 3mins in c#! So just for fun try it and post your timings + language used! P.S NO UNIT TESTS REQUIRED, NO OUTSOURCING ALLOWED, SWITCH OFF RESHARPER! :-) P.S. If you'd like to post your source then feel free

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  • Where should global Application Settings be stored on Windows 7?

    - by Kerido
    Hi everybody, I'm working hard on making my product work seamlessly on Windows 7. The problem is that there is a small set of global (not user-specific) application settings that all users should be able to change. On previous versions I used HKLM\Software\__Company__\__Product__ for that purpose. This allowed Power Users and Administrators to modify the Registry Key and everything worked correctly. Now that Windows Vista and Windows 7 have this UAC feature, by default, even an Administrator cannot access the Key for writing without elevation. A stupid solution would, of course, mean adding requireAdministrator option into the application manifest. But this is really unprofessional since the product itself is extremely far from administration-related tasks. So I need to stay with asInvoker. Another solution could mean programmatic elevation during moments when write access to the Registry Key is required. Let alone the fact that I don't know how to implement that, it's pretty awkward also. It interferes with normal user experience so much that I would hardly consider it an option. What I know should be relatively easy to accomplish is adding write access to the specified Registry Key during installation. I created a separate question for that. This also very similar to accessing a shared file for storing the settings. My feeling is that there must be a way to accomplish what I need, in a way that is secure, straightforward and compatible with all OS'es. Any ideas?

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  • boost multi_index partial indexes

    - by Gokul
    Hi, I want to implement inside boost multi-index two sets of keys with same search criteria but different eviction criteria. Say i have two sets of data with same search condition, but one set needs a MRU(Most Recently Used) list of 100 and the other set requires a MRU of 200. Say the entry is like this class Student { int student_no; char sex; std::string address; }; The search criteria is student_no, but for sex='m', we need MRU of 200 and for sex='f', we need a MRU of 100. Now i have a solution where in i introduce a new ordered index to maintain ordering. For example the IndexSpecifierList will be something like this typedef multi_index_container< Student, indexed_by< ordered_unique< member<Student, int, &Student::student_no> >, ordered_unique< composite_key< member<Student, char, &Student::sex>, member<Student, int, &Student::sex_specific_student_counter> > > > > student_set Now everytime, i am inserting a new one, i have to take a equal_range for that using index 2 and remove the oldest one and if something is getting re-used, i have to update it by incrementing the counter. Is there a better solution to this kind of problem? Thanks, Gokul.

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  • What is a simple way to add a timer to a method

    - by John
    The following is in C#. I'm trying to do something very simple (I think). I have a method that loads an XML document XDocument doc = XDocument.Load(uri); , but I don't want to tie up pc resources if there are issues (connectivity, document size, etc.). So I'd like to be able to add a timeout variable that will cut the method off after a given number of seconds. I'm a newbie when it comes to asynchronous programming and find it confusing that there are so many examples written so many different ways . . . and none of them appear simple. I'd like a simple solution, if possible. Here's my thoughts so far on possible solution paths: 1) A method that wraps the existing load public XDocument LoadXDocument(string uri, int timeout){ //code } 2) A wrapper, but as an extension method XDocument doc = XDocument.LoadWithTimeout(string uri, int timeout); 3) A generic extension method. Object obj = SomeStaticClass.LoadWithTimeout(??? method, int timeout); 3), on its face seems really nice, because it would mean being able to generically add timeouts to many different method calls and not specifically tied to one type of object, but I suspect that it is either i)impossible or ii) very difficult. Please assist. Thanks.

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  • Creating android app Database with big amount of data

    - by Thomas
    Hi all, The database of my application need to be filled with a lot of data, so during onCreate(), it's not only some create table sql instructions, there is a lot of inserts. The solution I chose is to store all this instructions in a sql file located in res/raw and which is loaded with Resources.openRawResource(id). It works well but I face to encoding issue, I have some accentuated caharacters in the sql file which appears bad in my application. This my code to do this : public String getFileContent(Resources resources, int rawId) throws IOException { InputStream is = resources.openRawResource(rawId); int size = is.available(); // Read the entire asset into a local byte buffer. byte[] buffer = new byte[size]; is.read(buffer); is.close(); // Convert the buffer into a string. return new String(buffer); } public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { try { // get file content String sqlCode = getFileContent(mCtx.getResources(), R.raw.db_create); // execute code for (String sqlStatements : sqlCode.split(";")) { db.execSQL(sqlStatements); } Log.v("Creating database done."); } catch (IOException e) { // Should never happen! Log.e("Error reading sql file " + e.getMessage(), e); throw new RuntimeException(e); } catch (SQLException e) { Log.e("Error executing sql code " + e.getMessage(), e); throw new RuntimeException(e); } The solution I found to avoid this is to load the sql instructions from a huge static final string instead of a file, and all accentutated characters appears well. But Isn't there a more elegant way to load sql instructions than a big static final String attribute with all sql instructions ? Thanks in advance Thomas

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  • em1: watchdog timeout -- resetting virtualbox

    - by lightmanhk
    everyone. I try to configure network adapter of my freebsd on virtualbox machine. At first setting up, I got it right. However, after a couple of reboots, my VM gives me a error message: says "em1:Watchdog timeout -- resetting" I tried to google it, and there is no solution that works for me. The following is my network adapter of my VM: Apapter1: NAT Adapter2: Host-only Adapter vboxnet0 On my Virtualbox setting: Host-only networks: Adapter: IPv4 address: 192.168.56.10 IPv4 network mask: 255.255.255.0 On my FreeBSD VM /etc/rc.conf ifconfig_em0="DHCP" ifconfig_em1="inet 192.168.56.11 netmask 255.255.255.0" Moreover, strange thing is that, for example, if timeout error message show at ttyv0 , when I log in at different ttyv[1-9], the error message will not be shown. but in ttyv0, it still gives me the message. And, in term of functionality of em1, it does work. I have no clue about this problem. Hoping any one can give me a solution or suggestion. That will be great! Thanks a lot. Freebsd version: 9.0-RELEASE FreeBSD 9.0-RELEASE i386 Virtual box: 4.1.2 r73507

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