Search Results

Search found 774 results on 31 pages for 'singleton'.

Page 26/31 | < Previous Page | 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31  | Next Page >

  • Can a stateless WCF service benefit from built-in database connection pooling?

    - by vladimir
    I understand that a typical .NET application that accesses a(n SQL Server) database doesn't have to do anything in particular in order to benefit from the connection pooling. Even if an application repeatedly opens and closes database connections, they do get pooled by the framework (assuming that things such as credentials do not change from call to call). My usage scenario seems to be a bit different. When my service gets instantiated, it opens a database connection once, does some work, closes the connection and returns the result. Then it gets torn down by the WCF, and the next incoming call creates a new instance of the service. In other words, my service gets instantiated per client call, as in [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerCall)]. The service accesses an SQL Server 2008 database. I'm using .NET framework 3.5 SP1. Does the connection pooling still work in this scenario, or I need to roll my own connection pool in form of a singleton or by some other means (IInstanceContextProvider?). I would rather avoid reinventing the wheel, if possible.

    Read the article

  • Setting spring bean property value using ref-bean

    - by Apache Fan
    Hi, I am trying to set a property value using spring. <bean id="velocityPropsBean" class="com.test.CustomProperties" abstract="false" singleton="true" lazy-init="false" autowire="default" dependency-check="default"> <property name="properties"> <props> <prop key="resource.loader">file</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.cache">true</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.class">org.apache.velocity.runtime.resource.loader.FileResourceLoader</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.path">NEED TO INSERT VALUE AT STARTUP</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="velocityResourcePath" class="java.lang.String" factory-bean="velocityHelper" factory-method="getLoaderPath"/> Now what i need to do is insert the result from getLoaderPath into file.resource.loader.path. The value of getLoaderPath changes so it has to be loaded at server startup. Any thoughts how i can inset the velocityResourcePath value to the property?

    Read the article

  • In app purchase on iphone.: How to receive your available products *before* someone may be able to b

    - by Thorsten S.
    Currently I am loading my supported products from a plist and after that I send a SKProductsRequest to guarantee that my SKProducts are still valid. So I set up the request, start it and get the response in: (void)productsRequest:(SKProductsRequest *)request didReceiveResponse:(SKProductsResponse *)response Now, so far all functions correctly. Problem: From calling the request until receiving the response it may last several seconds. Until that my app is already loaded and the user may be able to choose and buy a product. But because no products have been received, the available products are not in sync with the validated products - unlikely, but possible error. So my idea is to wait until the data is loaded and only continue when the list is validated. (Just a few seconds waiting...). I have a singleton instance managing all products. + (MyClass *) sharedInstance { if (!sharedInstance) sharedInstance = [MyClass new]; // Now wait until we have our data [condition lock]; while (noEntriesYet) // is yes at begin [condition wait]; [condition unlock]; return sharedInstance; } - productsRequest: didReceiveResponse: { [condition lock]; // I have my data noEntriesYet = false; [condition signal]; [condition unlock]; } Problem: The app freezes. Everything works fine if didReceiveResponse is completed before the sharedInstance is queried. There are different threads, the lock is working if wait is reached during didReceiveResponse, everything fine. But if not, didReceiveResponse is never called even if the request was sent. The lock is released, everything looks ok. I have tried to send the product request in a separate NSThread, with NSOperationQueue...without avail. Why ? What is happening ? How to solve the problem ?

    Read the article

  • Are MEF's ComposableParts contracts instance-based?

    - by Dave
    I didn't really know how to phrase the title of my questions, so my apologies in advance. I read through parts of the MEF documentation to try to find the answer to my question, but couldn't find it. I'm using ImportMany to allow MEF to create multiple instances of a specific plugin. That plugin Imports several parts, and within calls to a specific instance, it wants these Imports to be singletons. However, what I don't want is for all instances of this plugin to use the same singleton. For example, let's say my application ImportManys Blender appliances. Every time I ask for one, I want a different Blender. However, each Blender Imports a ControlPanel. I want each Blender to have its own ControlPanel. To make things a little more interesting, each Blender can load BlendPrograms, which are also contained within their own assemblies, and MEF takes care of this loading. A BlendProgram might need to access the ControlPanel to get the speed, but I want to ensure that it is accessing the correct ControlPanel (i.e. the one that is associated with the Blender that is associated with the program!) This diagram might clear things up a little bit: As the note shows, I believe that the confusion could come from an inherently-poor design. The BlendProgram shouldn't touch the ControlPanel directly, and instead perhaps the BlendProgram should get the speed via the Blender, which will then delegate the request to its ControlPanel. If this is the case, then I assume the BlendProgram needs to have a reference to a specific Blender. In order to do this, is the right way to leverage MEF and use an ImportingConstructor for BlendProgram, i.e. [ImportingConstructor] public class BlendProgram : IBlendProgram { public BlendProgram( Blender blender) {} } And if this is the case, how do I know that MEF will use the intended Blender plugin?

    Read the article

  • problem writing xml to file with .net mvc - timeout?

    - by Mark
    Hey, so having an issue with writing out to an xml file. Works fine for single requests via the browser, but when I use something like Charles to perform 5-10 repeated requests concurrently several of them will fail. The trace simply shows a 500 error with no content inside, basically I think they start timing out waiting for write access or something... This method is inside my repository class, have also attempted to have repository instance as a singleton but doesn't appear to make any difference.. Any help would be much appreciated. Cheers public void Add(Request request) { try { XDocument requests; XmlReader xmlReader; using (xmlReader = XmlReader.Create(_requestsFilePath)) { requests = XDocument.Load(xmlReader); XElement xmlRequest = new XElement("request", new XElement("code", request.code), new XElement("date", request.date), new XElement("email", new XCData(request.email)), new XElement("name", new XCData(request.name)), new XElement("recieveOffers", request.recieveOffers) ); requests.Root.Element("requests").Add(xmlRequest); xmlReader.Close(); } requests.Save(_requestsFilePath); } catch (Exception ex) { HttpContext.Current.Trace.Warn("Error writing to file: "+ex); } }

    Read the article

  • "Session is Closed!" - NHibernate

    - by Alexis Abril
    This is in a web application environment: An initial request is able to successfully complete, however any additional requests return a "Session is Closed" response from the NHibernate framework. I'm using a HttpModule approach with the following code: public class MyHttpModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.EndRequest += ApplicationEndRequest; context.BeginRequest += ApplicationBeginRequest; } public void ApplicationBeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentSessionContext.Bind(SessionFactory.Instance.OpenSession()); } public void ApplicationEndRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { ISession currentSession = CurrentSessionContext.Unbind( SessionFactory.Instance); currentSession.Dispose(); } public void Dispose() { } } SessionFactory.Instance is my singleton implementation, using FluentNHibernate to return an ISessionFactory object. In my repository class, I attempt to use the following syntax: public class MyObjectRepository : IMyObjectRepository { public MyObject GetByID(int id) { using (ISession session = SessionFactory.Instance.GetCurrentSession()) return session.Get<MyObject>(id); } } This allows code in the application to be called as such: IMyObjectRepository repo = new MyObjectRepository(); MyObject obj = repo.GetByID(1); I have a suspicion my repository code is to blame, but I'm not 100% sure on the actual implementation I should be using. I found a similar issue on SO here. I too am using WebSessionContext in my implementation, however, no solution was provided other than writing a custom SessionManager. For simple CRUD operations, is a custom session provider required apart from the built in tools(ie WebSessionContext)?

    Read the article

  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

    Read the article

  • Synchronizing Access to a member of the ASP.NET session

    - by Sam
    I'm building a Javascript application and eash user has an individual UserSession. The application makes a bunch of Ajax calls. Each Ajax call needs access to a single UserSession object for the user. Each Ajax call needs a UserSession object. Data in the UserSession object is unique to each user. Originally, during each Ajax call I would create a new UserSession object and it's data members were stored in the ASP.NET Session. However, I found that the UserSession object was being instantiated a lot. To minimize the construction of the UserSession object, I wrapped it in a Singleton pattern and sychronized access to it. I believe that the synchronization is happening application wide, however I only need it to happen per user. I saw a post here that says the ASP.NET cache is synchronized, however the time between creating the object and inserting it into the cache another Thread could start construction it's another object and insert it into the cache. Here is the way I'm currently synchronizing access to the object. Is there a better way than using "lock"... should be be locking on the HttpContext.Session object? private static object SessionLock = new object(); public static WebSession GetSession { get { lock (SessionLock) { try { var context = HttpContext.Current; WebSession result = null; if (context.Session["MySession"] == null) { result = new WebSession(context); context.Session["MySession"] = result; } else { result = (WebSession)context.Session["MySession"]; } return result; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.Handle(); return null; } } } }

    Read the article

  • How does CDI injection work in MDBs and @Scheduled beans?

    - by Nils-Petter Nilsen
    I'm working on a large Java EE 6 application that is deployed on JBoss 6 Final. My current tasks involve using @Inject consistently instead of @EJB, but I'm running into some problems on some types of beans, specifically @MessageDriven beans and beans with @Scheduled methods. What happens is that if I'm unlucky with the timing (for @Schedule) or if there are messages in the MDBs' queues at startup, instantiation of the beans will fail because the injected resources (which are EJBs themselves) are not bound yet. Because I use @Inject, I'm guessing that the EJB container considers my beans to be ready, since the container itself does not care about @Inject; it probably simply assumes that since there are no @EJB injections, the beans are ready for use. The injected CDI proxies will then fail because the resources to inject aren't actually bound yet. Tiny example: @Stateless @LocalBean public class MySupportingBean { public void doSomething() { ... } } @Singleton public class MyScheduledBean { @Inject private MySupportingBean supportingBean; @Schedule(second = "*/1", hour = "*", minute = "*", persistent = false) public void onTimeout() { supportingBean.doSomething(); } } The above example will probably not fail often because there are only two beans, but the project I'm working on binds lots of EJBs, which will amplify the problem. But it might fail because there is no guarantee that MySupportingBean is bound first, and if onTimeout is invoked before MySupportingBean is bound, then instantiation of MyScheduledBean will fail. If I used @EJB instead, MyScheduledBean wouldn't be bound until the dependency to MySupportingBean was satisfied. Note that the example will not fail in onTimeout itself, but when CDI attempts to inject MySupportingBean. I've read a lot of posts on different forums where many people argue that @Inject is always better. Generally, I agree, but how do they handle @Schedule or @MessageDriven combined with @Inject? In my experience, it comes down to dumb luck whether the beans will work or not in those cases, and the beans will fail arbitrarily, depending on which order the EJBs are deployed in, and when @Schedule or onMessage are invoked.

    Read the article

  • for cycle not works allright

    - by joseph
    Hello. I call addNotify() method in class that I posted here. The problem is, that when I call addNotify() as it is in the code, setKeys(objs) do nothing. Nothing appears in my explorer of running app. But when I call addNotify()without loop(for int....), and add only one item to ArrayList, it shows that one item correctly. Does anybody knows where can be problem? See the cede class ProjectsNode extends Children.Keys{ private ArrayList objs = new ArrayList(); public ProjectsNode() { } @Override protected Node[] createNodes(Object o) { MainProject obj = (MainProject) o; AbstractNode result = new AbstractNode (new DiagramsNode(), Lookups.singleton(obj)); result.setDisplayName (obj.getName()); return new Node[] { result }; } @Override protected void addNotify() { //this loop causes nothing appears in my explorer. //but when I replace this loop by single line "objs.add(new MainProject("project1000"));", it shows that one item in explorer for (int i=0;i==10;i++){ objs.add(new MainProject("project1000")); } setKeys (objs); } }

    Read the article

  • How do I implement a listener pattern over RMI using Spring?

    - by predhme
    So here is a generalized version of our application desgin: @Controller public class MyController { @Autowired private MyServiceInterface myServiceInterface; @RequestMapping("/myURL") public @ResponseBody String doSomething() { MyListenerInterface listener = new MyListenerInterfaceImpl(); myServiceInterface.doThenCallListener(listener); // do post stuff } } public interface MyListenerInterface { public void callA(); public void callB(); } public class MyListenerInterfaceImpl implements MyListenerInterface { // ... omitted for clarity } public interface MyServiceInterface { public void doThenCallListener(MyListenerInterface listener); } public class MyServiceImpl { public void doThenCallListener(MyListenerInterface listener) { // do stuff listener.callA(); } } Basically I have a controller that is being called via AJAX in which I am looking to return a response as a string. However, I need to make a call to the backend (MyServiceInterface). That guy is exposed through RMI by using Spring (man that was easy). But the service method as described requires a listener to be registered for invokation completion purposes. So what I assume I need to achieve is transparently to the backend make it so that when the listener methods are called, really the call is going over RMI. I would have thought Spring would have a simple way to wrap a POJO (not a service singleton) with RMI calls. I looked through their documentation but they had nothing besides exposing services via RMI. Could someone point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • Unity Configuration and Same Assembly

    - by tyndall
    I'm currently getting an error trying to resolve my IDataAccess class. The value of the property 'type' cannot be parsed. The error is: Could not load file or assembly 'TestProject' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. (C:\Source\TestIoC\src\TestIoC\TestProject\bin\Debug\TestProject.vshost.exe.config line 14) This is inside a WPF Application project. What is the correct syntax to refer to the Assembly you are currently in? is there a way to do this? I know in a larger solution I would be pulling Types from seperate assemblies so this might not be an issue. But what is the right way to do this for a small self-contained test project. Note: I'm only interested in doing the XML config at this time, not the C# (in code) config. UPDATE: see all comments My XML config: <configuration> <configSections> <section name="unity" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.Configuration.UnityConfigurationSection, Microsoft.Practices.Unity.Configuration" /> </configSections> <unity> <typeAliases> <!-- Lifetime manager types --> <typeAlias alias="singleton" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.ContainerControlledLifetimeManager, Microsoft.Practices.Unity" /> <typeAlias alias="external" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.ExternallyControlledLifetimeManager, Microsoft.Practices.Unity" /> <typeAlias alias="IDataAccess" type="TestProject.IDataAccess, TestProject" /> <typeAlias alias="DataAccess" type="TestProject.DataAccess, TestProject" /> </typeAliases> <containers> <container name="Services"> <types> <type type="IDataAccess" mapTo="DataAccess" /> </types> </container> </containers> </unity> </configuration>

    Read the article

  • CGLIB proxy error after spring bean definition loading into XmlWebApplicationContext at runtime

    - by VasylV
    I load additional singleton beans definitions at runtime from external jar file into existing XmlWebApplicationContext of my application: BeanFactory beanFactory = xmlWebApplicationContext.getBeanFactory(); DefaultListableBeanFactory defaultFactory = (DefaultListableBeanFactory)beanFactory; final URL url = new URL("external.jar"); final URL[] urls = {url}; ClassLoader loader = new URLClassLoader(urls, this.getClass().getClassLoader()); defaultFactory.setBeanClassLoader(loader); final ClassPathBeanDefinitionScanner scanner = new ClassPathBeanDefinitionScanner(defaultFactory); final DefaultResourceLoader resourceLoader = new DefaultResourceLoader(); resourceLoader.setClassLoader(loader); scanner.setResourceLoader(resourceLoader); scanner.scan("com.*"); Object bean = xmlWebApplicationContext.getBean("externalBean"); After all above xmlWebApplicationContext contains all external definitions of beans. But when i am trying to get bean from context exception is thrown: Couldn't generate CGLIB proxy for class ... I saw in debug mode that in the bean initialization process first time proxy is generated by org.springframework.aop.aspectj.autoproxy.AspectJAwareAdvisorAutoProxyCreator and than it is tried to generate proxy with org.springframework.aop.framework.autoproxy.BeanNameAutoProxyCreator but fails with mentioned exception.

    Read the article

  • How to use keyword this in a mouse wrapper in right context in Javascript?

    - by MartyIX
    Hi, I'm trying to write a simple wrapper for mouse behaviour. This is my current code: function MouseWrapper() { this.mouseDown = 0; this.OnMouseDownEvent = null; this.OnMouseUpEvent = null; document.body.onmousedown = this.OnMouseDown; document.body.onmouseup = this.OnMouseUp; } MouseWrapper.prototype.Subscribe = function (eventName, fn) { // Subscribe a function to the event if (eventName == 'MouseDown') { this.OnMouseDownEvent = fn; } else if (eventName == 'MouseUp') { this.OnMouseUpEvent = fn; } else { alert('Subscribe: Unknown event.'); } } MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseDown = function () { this.mouseDown = 1; // Fire event $.dump(this.OnMouseDownEvent); if (this.OnMouseDownEvent != null) { alert('test'); this.OnMouseDownEvent(); } } MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseUp = function () { this.mouseDown = 0; // Fire event if (this.OnMouseUpEvent != null) { this.OnMouseUpEvent(); } } From what I gathered it seems that in MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseUp and MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseDown the keyword "this" doesn't mean current instance of MouseWrapper but something else. And it makes sense that it doesn't point to my instance but how to solve the problem? I want to solve the problem properly I don't want to use something dirty. My thinking: * use a singleton pattern (mouse is only one after all) * pass somehow my instance to OnMouseDown/Up - how? Thank you for help!

    Read the article

  • memcache is not storing data accross requests

    - by morpheous
    I am new to using memcache, so I may be doing something wrong. I have written a wrapper class around memcache. The wrapper class has only static methods, so is a quasi singleton. The class looks something like this: class myCache { private static $memcache = null; private static $initialized = false; public static function init() { if (self::$initialized) return; self::$memcache = new Memcache(); if (self::configure()) //connects to daemon { self::store('foo', 'bar'); } else throw ConnectionError('I barfed'); } public static function store($key, $data, $flag=MEMCACHE_COMPRESSED, $timeout=86400) { if (self::$memcache->get($key)!== false) return self::$memcache->replace($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); return self::$memcache->set($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); } public static function fetch($key) { return self::$memcache->get($key); } } //in my index.php file, I use the class like this require_once('myCache.php'); myCache::init(); echo 'Stored value is: '. myCache::fetch('foo'); The problem is that the myCache::init() method is being executed in full everytime a page is requested. I then remembered that static variables do not maintain state accross page requests. So I decided instead, to store the flag that indicates whether the server contains the start up data (for our purposes, the variable 'foo', with value 'bar') in memcache itself. Once the status flag is stored in memcache itself, It solves the problem of the initialisation data being loaded for every page request (which quite frankly, defeats the purpose of memcache). However, having solved that problem, when I come to fetch the data in memcache, it is empty. I dont understand whats going on. Can anyone clarify how I can store my data once and retrieve it accross page requests? BTW, (just to clarify), the get/set is working correctly, and if I allow memcache to load the initialisation data for each page request, (which is silly), then the data is available in memcache.

    Read the article

  • Old dll.config problem !

    - by user313421
    Since 2005 as I googled it's a problem for who needs to read the configuration of an assembly from it's config file "*.dll.config" and Microsoft didn't do anything yet. Story: If you try to read a setting from a class library (plug-in) you fail. Instead the main application domain (EXE which is using the plug-in) config is read and because probably there's not such a config your plug-in will use default setting which is hard-coded when you create it's settings for first time. Any change to .dll.config wouldn't see by your plug-in and you wonder why it's there! If you want to replace it and start searching you may find something like this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/594298/c-dll-config-file But just some ideas and one line code. A good replacement for built-in config shouldn't read from file system each time we need a config value, so we can store them in memory; Then what if user changes config file ? we need a FileSystemWatcher and we need some design like singleton ... and finally we are at the same point configuration of .NET is except our one's working. It seems MS did everything but forgot why they built the ".dll.config". Since no DLL is gonna execute by itself, they are referenced from other apps (even if used in web) and so why there's such a "*.dll.config" file ? I'm not gonna argue if it's good to have multiple config files or not. It's my design (plug-able components). Finally { After these years, is there any good practice such as a custom setting class to add in each assemly and read from it's own config file ? }

    Read the article

  • sigleton EXC_BAD_ACCESS

    - by lclaud
    Hi, so I have a class that I decleare as a singleton and in that class I have a NSMutableArray that contains some NSDictionaries with some key/value pairs in them. The trouble is it doesn't work and I dont't know why... I mean it crashes with EXC_BAD_ACCESS but i don't know where. I followed the code and it did create a new array on first add, made it to the end of the funtion ..and crashed ... @interface dataBase : NSObject { NSMutableArray *inregistrari; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSMutableArray *inregistrari; -(void)adaugaInregistrareCuData:(NSDate *)data siValoare:(NSNumber *)suma caVenit:(BOOL)venit cuDetaliu:(NSString *)detaliu; -(NSDictionary *)raportIntreData:(NSDate *)dataInitiala siData:(NSDate *)dataFinala; -(NSArray *)luniDisponibileIntreData:(NSDate *)dataInitiala siData:(NSDate *)dataFinala; -(NSArray *)aniDisponibiliIntreData:(NSDate *)dataInitiala siData:(NSDate *)dataFinala; -(NSArray *)vectorDateIntreData:(NSDate *)dataI siData:(NSDate *)dataF; -(void)salveazaInFisier; -(void)incarcaDinFisier; + (dataBase *)shareddataBase; @end And here is the .m file #import "dataBase.h" #import "SynthesizeSingleton.h" @implementation dataBase @synthesize inregistrari; SYNTHESIZE_SINGLETON_FOR_CLASS(dataBase); -(void)adaugaInregistrareCuData:(NSDate *)data siValoare:(NSNumber *)suma caVenit:(BOOL)venit cuDetaliu:(NSString *)detaliu{ NSNumber *v=[NSNumber numberWithBool:venit]; NSArray *input=[NSArray arrayWithObjects:data,suma,v,detaliu,nil]; NSArray *keys=[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"data",@"suma",@"venit",@"detaliu",nil]; NSDictionary *inreg=[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjects:input forKeys:keys]; if(inregistrari == nil) { inregistrari=[[NSMutableArray alloc ] initWithObjects:inreg,nil]; }else { [inregistrari addObject:inreg]; } [inreg release]; [input release]; [keys release]; } It made it to the end of that adaugaInregistrareCuData ... ok . said the array had one object ... and then crashed

    Read the article

  • Multiple queries using same datacontext throws SqlException

    - by Raj
    I've search control with which I'm trying to implement search as user types something. I'm using Linq to SQL to fire queries against the database. Though it works fine usually, when user types the queries really fast some random SqlException is thrown. These are the two different error message I stumbled across recently: A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Invalid attempt to call Read when reader is closed. Edit: Included code DataContextFactory class: public DataContextFactory(IConnectionStringFactory connectionStringFactory) { this.dataContext = new RegionDataContext(connectionStringFactory.ConnectionString); } public DataContext Context { get { return this.dataContext; } } public void SaveAll() { this.dataContext.SubmitChanges(); } Registering IDataContextFactory with Unity // Get connection string from Application.Current settings ConnectionInfo connectionInfo = Application.Current.Properties["ConnectionInfo"] as ConnectionInfo; // Register ConnectionStringFactory with Unity container as a Singleton this.container.RegisterType<IConnectionStringFactory, ConnectionStringFactory>(new ContainerControlledLifetimeManager(), new InjectionConstructor(connectionInfo.ConnectionString)); // Register DataContextFactory with Unity container this.container.RegisterType<IDataContextFactory, DataContextFactory>(); Connection string: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS2008;User Instance=true;Integrated Security=true;AttachDbFilename=C:\client.mdf;MultipleActiveResultSets=true; Using datacontext from a repository class: // IDataContextFactory dependency is injected by Unity public CompanyRepository(IDataContextFactory dataContextFactory) { this.dataContextFactory = dataContextFactory; } // return List<T> of companies var results = this.dataContextFactory.Context.GetTable<CompanyEntity>() .Join(this.dataContextFactory.Context.GetTable<RegionEntity>(), c => c.regioncode, r => r.regioncode, (c, r) => new { c = c, r = r }) .Where(t => t.c.summary_region != null) .Select(t => new { Id = t.c.compcode, Company = t.c.compname, Region = t.r.regionname }).ToList(); What is the work around?

    Read the article

  • (nested) user controls within a mvp pattern causing sporadic problems

    - by LLEA
    hi everyone, I have a serious problem with nested user controls (UCs) in WinForms while trying to implement the mvp pattern (passive view). The project consists of one model (designed as a singleton) and a set of different presenters with corresponding view interfaces. To avoid one huge view interface and therefore an overloaded main UI, I decided to make use of a set of different UCs. Each UC has one view interface and one presenter that can access the model. But there are nested UCs: meaning that one specialised UC implements sort of a basic UC. The main UI just represents a container for all those UCs. So far, so good (if not, please ask)?! There are two problems that I am facing now (but I guess both are of the same origin): From time to time it is not possible anymore to load the UCs and test them within the Visual Studio 2008 User Control Test Container. The error message just says that a project with an output type of class library cannot be started directly etc. I can "handle" that by unloading all UC projects and reloading them afterwards. (I guess the references to all mvp components and other UCs are then updated). Assuming that the implementation of my mvp pattern is okay and all those UCs are testable within the VS Test Container at a certain time - there is the biggest problem still left: I am not able to add any UC (even the basic and unnested ones) to a simple Form (UI). The error message: error message.jpg Could it be that my basic UC causes all these Problems?! It consists of two simple ComboBoxes and implements a basic presenter and basic view interface. Whenever I add this UC to a different UC the VS designer adds two references to the public getter methods of the UC as resources. I then manually remove those resources from the resx-file and commend the corresponding lines in the designer file. thx in advance

    Read the article

  • Accessing global variable in multithreaded Tomcat server

    - by jwegan
    I have a singleton object that I construct like thus: private static volatile KeyMapper mapper = null; public static KeyMapper getMapper() { if(mapper == null) { synchronized(Utils.class) { if(mapper == null) { mapper = new LocalMemoryMapper(); } } } return mapper; } The class KeyMapper is basically a synchronized wrapper to HashMap with only two functions, one to add a mapping and one to remove a mapping. When running in Tomcat 6.24 on my 32bit Windows machine everything works fine. However when running on a 64 bit Linux machine (CentOS 5.4 with OpenJDK 1.6.0-b09) I add one mapping and print out the size of the HashMap used by KeyMapper to verify the mapping got added (i.e. verify size = 1). Then I try to retrieve the mapping with another request and I keep getting null and when I checked the size of the HashMap it was 0. I'm confident the mapping isn't accidentally being removed since I've commented out all calls to remove (and I don't use clear or any other mutators, just get and put). The requests are going through Tomcat 6.24 (configured to use 200 threads with a minimum of 4 threads) and I passed -Xnoclassgc to the jvm to ensure the class isn't inadvertently getting garbage collected (jvm is also running in -server mode). I also added a finalize method to KeyMapper to print to stderr if it ever gets garbage collected to verify that it wasn't being garbage collected. I'm at my wits end and I can't figure out why one minute the entry in HashMap is there and the next it isn't :(

    Read the article

  • how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

    - by praksant
    Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

    Read the article

  • systematizing error codes for a web app in php?

    - by user151841
    I'm working on a class-based php web app. I have some places where objects are interacting, and I have certain situations where I'm using error codes to communicate to the end user -- typically when form values are missing or invalid. These are situations where exceptions are unwarranted ( and I'm not sure I could avoid the situations with exceptions anyways). In one object, I have some 20 code numbers, each of which correspond to a user-facing message, and a admin/developer-facing message, so both parties know what's going on. Now that I've worked over the code several times, I find that it's difficult to quickly figure out what code numbers in the series I've already used, so I accidentally create conflicting code numbers. For instance, I just did that today with 12, 13, 14 and 15. How can I better organize this so I don't create conflicting error codes? Should I create one singleton class, errorCodes, that has a master list of all error codes for all classes, systematizing them across the whole web app? Or should each object have its own set of error codes, when appropriate, and I just keep a list in the commentary of the object, to use and update that as I go along?

    Read the article

  • Implementation of MVC with SQLite and NSURLConnection, use cases?

    - by user324723
    I'm interested in knowing how others have implemented/designed database & web services in their iphone app and how they simplified it for the entire application. My application is dependent on these services and I can't figure out a efficient way to use them together due to the (semi)complexity of my requirements. My past attempts on combining them haven't been completely successful or at least optimal in my mind. I'm building a database driven iphone app that uses a relational database in sqlite and consumes web services based on missing content or user interaction. Like this hasn't been done before...right? Since I am using a relational database - any web services consumed requires normalization, parsing the result and persisting it to the database before it can be displayed in a table view controller. The applications UI consists of nested(nav controller) table views where a user can select a cell and be taken to the next table view where it attempts to populate the table views data source from the database. If nothing exists in the database then it will send a request via web services to download its content, thus download - parse - persist - query - display. Since the user has the ability to request a refresh of this data it still requires the same process. Quickly describing what I've implemented and tried to run with - 1st attempt - Used a singleton web service class that handled sending web service requests, parsing the result and returning it to the table view controller via delegate protocols. Once the controller received that data it would then be responsible for persisting it to the database and re-returning the result. I didn't like the idea of only preventing the case where the app delegate selector doesn't exists(released) causing the app to crash. 2nd attempt - Used NSNotificationCenter for easy access to both database and web services but later realized it was more complex due to adding and removing observers per view(which isn't advised anyways).

    Read the article

  • Design: How to declare a specialized memory handler class

    - by Michael Dorgan
    On an embedded type system, I have created a Small Object Allocator that piggy backs on top of a standard memory allocation system. This allocator is a Boost::simple_segregated_storage< class and it does exactly what I need - O(1) alloc/dealloc time on small objects at the cost of a touch of internal fragmentation. My question is how best to declare it. Right now, it's scope static declared in our mem code module, which is probably fine, but it feels a bit exposed there and is also now linked to that module forever. Normally, I declare it as a monostate or a singleton, but this uses the dynamic memory allocator (where this is located.) Furthermore, our dynamic memory allocator is being initialized and used before static object initialization occurs on our system (as again, the memory manager is pretty much the most fundamental component of an engine.) To get around this catch 22, I added an extra 'if the small memory allocator exists' to see if the small object allocator exists yet. That if that now must be run on every small object allocation. In the scheme of things, this is nearly negligable, but it still bothers me. So the question is, is there a better way to declare this portion of the memory manager that helps decouple it from the memory module and perhaps not costing that extra isinitialized() if statement? If this method uses dynamic memory, please explain how to get around lack of initialization of the small object portion of the manager.

    Read the article

  • Spring bean initialization in a web app

    - by EugeneP
    We work with a web application and autowire beans using WebApplicationContextUtils in the init method. Could you clarify some details about bean initialization? The question rises from the static factory method. Suppose there's a bean that is created in a static factory method. As we can see, when the web app is deployed, the ContextLoaderListener initializes all the beans present in Spring xml config file. Now happens such a thing. In the static factory method we run a timer that starts ticking. But in reality we wouldn't want it to start ticking unless the bean is injected into a property of the object ! That is question number one - all the beans are automatically initialized on deploy - correct? And after that when we need an injection, it simply feels the link with the address of the object created during initialization, though OBJECT WAS CREATED ON WEB APP DEPLOY, immediately ! (I assume the default singleton-creation Spring behavior) Second question: are all copies of a web app use the same beans, so all beans are WEB-APP wide, every Spring bean is shared between all the copies of this web app running?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31  | Next Page >