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  • Injecting correct object graph using StructureMap in Queue of different Objects

    - by davy
    I have a queuing service that has to inject a different dependency graph depending on the type of object in the queue. I'm using Structure Map. So, if the object in the queue is TypeA the concrete classes for TypeA are used and if it's TypeB, the concrete classes for TypeB are used. I'd like to avoid code in the queue like: if (typeA) { // setup TypeA graph } else if (typeB) { // setup TypeB graph } Within the graph, I also have a generic classes such as an IReader(ISomething, ISpomethingElse) where IReader is generic but needs to inject the correct ISomething and ISomethingElse for the type. ISomething will also have dependencies and so on. Currently I create a TypeA or TypeB object and inject a generic Processor class using StructureMap into it and then pass a factory manually inject a TypeA or TypeB factory into a method like: Processor.Process(new TypeAFactory) // perhaps I should have an abstract factory... However, because the factory then creates the generic IReader mentioned above, I end up manually injecting all the TypeA or TypeB classes fro there on. I hope enough of this makes sense. I am new to StructureMap and was hoping somebody could point me in the right direction here for a flexible and elegant solution. Thanks

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  • Passing a paramter/object to a ruby unit/test before running it using TestRunner

    - by Nahir Khan
    I'm building a tool that automates a process then runs some tests on it's own results then goes to do some other stuff. In trying to clean up my code I have created a separate file that just has the test cases class. Now before I can run these tests, I have to pass the class a couple of parameters/objects before they can be run. Now the problem is that I can't seem to find a way to pass a parameter/object to the test class. Right now I am thinking to generate a Yaml file and read it in the test class but it feels "wrong" to use a temporary file for this. If anyone has a nicer solution that would be great! *********Edit******* Example Code of what I am doing right now: #!/usr/bin/ruby require 'test/unit/ui/console/testrunner' require 'yaml' require 'TS_SampleTestSuite' automatingSomething() importantInfo = getImportantInfo() File.open('filename.yml', 'w') do |f| f.puts importantInfo.to_yaml end Test::Unit::UI::Console::TestRunner.run(TS_SampleTestSuite) Now in the example above TS_SampleTestSuite needs importantInfo, so the first "test case" is a method that just reads in the information from the Yaml file filname.yml. I hope that clears up some confusion.

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  • CodeIgniter and SimpleTest -- How to make my first test?

    - by Smandoli
    I'm used to web development using LAMP, PHP5, MySQL plus NetBeans with Xdebug. Now I want to improve my development, by learning how to use (A) proper testing and (B) a framework. So I have set up CodeIgniter, SimpleTest and the easy Xdebug add-in for Firefox. This is great fun because maroonbytes provided me with clear instructions and a configured setup ready for download. I am standing on the shoulders of giants, and very grateful. I've used SimpleTest a bit in the past. Here is a the kind of thing I wrote: <?php require_once('../simpletest/unit_tester.php'); require_once('../simpletest/reporter.php'); class TestOfMysqlTransaction extends UnitTestCase { function testDB_ViewTable() { $this->assertEqual(1,1); // a pseudo-test } } $test = new TestOfMysqlTransaction(); $test->run(new HtmlReporter()) ?> So I hope I know what a test looks like. What I can't figure out is where and how to put a test in my new setup. I don't see any sample tests in the maroonbytes package, and Google so far has led me to posts that assume unit testing is already functionally available. What do I do?

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  • changing asp .net web service namespace when already in productive state

    - by eloQ
    by some unfortunate events we published a web service with the tempuri-namespace a couple of months ago and no one did notice (not in our company, not the companies connecting to the web service) even though it's live since that time and lots of companies (~25 i guess) already access this web service. now i'm thinking of correcting that mistake and have the namespace fixed to a proper value. the only problem is: as soon as we would do it, all the programs and services connected to this web service would stop working. i can't really allow that to happen. is there any way to fix the namespace for future purpose or to have the web service operate under two namespaces as one web service? any tip at all what i could do to get rid of the tempuri-namespace and have it fixed without needing to synchronize the change with all the external companies? i'm all out of ideas, so any help would be much appreciated! thanks! I hope this question is alright here, first time user, found this through using search engines on my research and found tempuri.org related posts, just not the right one..

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  • JQuery use variable by name of divID

    - by Russell Parrott
    Just a quick question, that I cannot fathom out, hope you guys and girls can help. I have a div (with ID) that when clicked opens a new div - great works well, what I really want is to "populate" the new div with predefined text based on the clicked div's ID. example: <div class="infobox" id="help_msg1">Click me</div> I may have say 3 (actually more but...) of these div's This opens: <div id="helpbox">text in here</div> In/on my .js page I have doc ready etc then: var help_msg1 ='text that is a help message'; var help_msg2 ='text that is another help message'; var help_msg3 ='text that is yet another help message'; Then $('.infobox').live('click',function() { $('#helpbox').remove(); $('label').css({'font-weight': '400'}); $(this).next('label').css({'font-weight': '900'}); var offset = $(this).next().next().offset(); var offsetby = $(this).next().next().width(); var leftitby = offset.left+offsetby+10; $('body').append('text in here'); $('#helpbox').css( { 'left': leftitby, 'top': offset.top } ); }); Note I remove each #helpbox before appending the new one and the .next().next() identifies the appropriate text input that lot all works. What I need is how do I put var help_msg1 into the append when id="help_msg1" is clicked or var help_msg2 when id="help_msg2" is clicked etc. I have tried

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  • Creating a RESTful API - HELP!

    - by Martin Cox
    Hi Chaps Over the last few weeks I've been learning about iOS development, which has naturally led me into the world of APIs. Now, searching around on the Internet, I've come to the conclusion that using the REST architecture is very much recommended - due to it's supposed simplicity and ease of implementation. However, I'm really struggling with the implementation side of REST. I understand the concept; using HTTP methods as verbs to describe the action of a request and responding with suitable response codes, and so on. It's just, I don't understand how to code it. I don't get how I map a URI to an object. I understand that a GET request for domain.com/api/user/address?user_id=999 would return the address of user 999 - but I don't understand where or how that mapping from /user/address to some method that queries a database has taken place. Is this all coded in one php script? Would I just have a method that grabs the URI like so: $array = explode("/", ltrim(rtrim($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'], "/"), "/")) And then cycle through that array, first I would have a request for a "user", so the PHP script would direct my request to the user object and then invoke the address method. Is that what actually happens? I've probably not explained my thought process very well there. The main thing I'm not getting is how that URI /user/address?id=999 somehow is broken down and executed - does it actually resolve to code? class user(id) { address() { //get user address } } I doubt I'm making sense now, so I'll call it a day trying to explain further. I hope someone out there can understand what I'm trying to say! Thanks Chaps, look forward to your responses. Martin p.s - I'm not a developer yet, I'm learning :)

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  • Quickest way to compare a bunch of array or list of values.

    - by zapping
    Can you please let me know on the quickest and efficient way to compare a large set of values. Its like there are a list of parent codes(string) and each code has a series of child values(string). The child lists have to be compared with each other and find out duplicates and count how many times they repeat. code1(code1_value1, code1_value2, code3_value3, ..., code1_valueN); code2(code2_value1, code1_value2, code2_value3, ..., code2_valueN); code3(code2_value1, code3_value2, code3_value3, ..., code3_valueN); . . . codeN(codeN_value1, codeN_value2, codeN_value3, ..., codeN_valueN); The lists are huge say like there are 100 parent codes and each has about 250 values in them. There will not be duplicates within a code list. Doing it in java and the solution i could figure out is. Store the values of first set of code in as codeMap.put(codeValue, duplicateCount). The count initialized to 0. Then compare the rest of the values with this. If its in the map then increment the count otherwise append it to the map. The downfall of this is to get the duplicates. Another iteration needs to be performed on a very large list. An alternative is to maintain another hashmap for duplicates like duplicateCodeMap.put(codeValue, duplicateCount) and change the initial hashmap to codeMap.put(codeValue, codeValue). Speed is what is requirement. Hope one of you can help me with it.

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  • PHP/MySQL time zone migration

    - by El Yobo
    I have an application that currently stores timestamps in MySQL DATETIME and TIMESTAMP values. However, the application needs to be able to accept data from users in multiple time zones and show the timestamps in the time zone of other users. As such, this is how I plan to amend the application; I would appreciate any suggestions to improve the approach. Database modifications All TIMESTAMPs will be converted to DATETIME values; this is to ensure consistency in approach and to avoid having MySQL try to do clever things and convert time zones (I want to keep the conversion in PHP, as it involves less modification to the application, and will be more portable when I eventually manage to escape from MySQL). All DATETIME values will be adjusted to convert them to UTC time (currently all in Australian EST) Query modifications All usage of NOW() to be replaced with UTC_TIMESTAMP() in queries, triggers, functions, etc. Application modifications The application must store the time zone and preferred date format (e.g. US vs the rest of the world) All timestamps will be converted according to the user settings before being displayed All input timestamps will be converted to UTC according to the user settings before being input Additional notes Converting formats will be done at the application level for several main reasons The approach to converting time zones varies from DB to DB, so handing it there will be non-portable (and I really hope to be migrating away from MySQL some time in the not-to-distant future). MySQL TIMESTAMPs have limited ranges to the permitted dates (~1970 to ~2038) MySQL TIMESTAMPs have other undesirable attributes, including bizarre auto-update behaviour (if not carefully disabled) and sensitivity to the server zone settings (and I suspect I might screw these up when I migrate to Amazon later in the year). Is there anything that I'm missing here, or does anyone have better suggestions for the approach?

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  • DB Design to store custom fields for a table

    - by Fazal
    Hi All, this question came up based on the responses I got for the question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2785033/getting-wierd-issue-with-to-number-function-in-oracle As everyone suggested that storing Numeric values in VARCHAR2 columns is not a good practice (which I totally agree with), I am wondering about a basic Design choice our team has made and whether there are better way to design. Problem Statement : We Have many tables where we want to give certain number of custom fields. The number of required custom fields is known, but what kind of attribute is mapped to the column is available to the user E.g. I am putting down a hypothetical scenario below Say you have a laptop which stores 50 attribute values for every laptop record. Each laptop attributes are created by the some admin who creates the laptop. A user created a laptop product lets say lap1 with attributes String, String, numeric, numeric, String Second user created laptop lap2 with attributes String,numeric,String,String,numeric Currently there data in our design gets persisted as following Laptop Table Id Name field1 field2 field3 field4 field5 1 lap1 lappy lappy 12 13 lappy 2 lap2 lappy2 13 lappy2 lapp2 12 This example kind of simulates our requirement and our design Now here if somebody is lookinup records for lap2 table doing a comparison on field2, We need to apply TO_NUMBER. select * from laptop where name='lap2' and TO_NUMBER(field2) < 15 TO_NUMBER fails in some cases when query plan decides to first apply to_number instead of the other filter. QUESTION Is this a valid design? What are the other alternative ways to solve this problem One of our team mates suggested creating tables on the fly for such cases. Is that a good idea How do popular ORM tools give custom fields or flex fields handling? I hope I was able to make sense in the question. Sorry for such a long text.. This causes us to use TO_NUMBER when queryio

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  • In Perl v 5.10.1 on Windows, my variable loses it's value

    - by Sylvia
    I hope this is something straightforward that I'm doing wrong. I saw something online about "variable suicide" that looked good, but it was for an older version and I'm on 5.10.1. Anyway - a variable that I declared - $RootDirectory - just suddenly loses it's value, and I can't figure out why. Here's a script to reproduce the problem. When I run through the script in debug mode (perl -d) I can get it to print out the $RootDirectory at line 21 and 26. But it's gone by line 30. use strict; my $RootDirectory; my @RootDirectories; @RootDirectories = ( 'c:\\P4\\EDW\\PRODEDW\\EDWDM\\main\\db\\' ,'c:\\P4\\EDW\\PRODEDW\\EDWADS\\main\\db\\' ,'c:\\P4\\EDW\\PRODEDW\\FJE\\main\\db\\' ); foreach $RootDirectory (@RootDirectories) { # $RootDirectory = 'c:\\P4\\EDW\\PRODEDW\\EDWDM\\main\\db\\'; # print ' In foreach ' . $RootDirectory. "\n"; RunSchema (); } exit(0); sub RunSchema() { # print ' In RunSchema ' . $RootDirectory. "\n"; CreateTables (); } sub CreateTables() { # print ' In CreateTables ' . $RootDirectory. "\n"; SQLExecFolder ('tbl'); } sub SQLExecFolder() { print ' In SQLExecFolder ' . $RootDirectory. "\n"; # Variable $RootDirectory value is gone by now }

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  • Call .NET Webservice with Android

    - by Lasse P
    Hi, I know this question has been asked here before, but I don't think those answers were adequate for my needs. We have a SOAP webservice that is used for an iPhone application, but it is possible that we need an Android specific version or a proxy of the service, so we have the option to go with either SOAP or JSON. I have a few concerns about both methods: SOAP solution: Is it possible to generate java source code from a WSDL file, if so, will it include some kind of proxy class to invoke the webservice and will it work in the Android environment at all? Google has not provided any SOAP library in Android, so i need to use 3rd party, any suggestion? What about the performance/overhead with parsing and transmitting SOAP xml over the wire versus the JSON solution? JSON solution: There is a few classes in the Android sdk that will let me parse JSON, but does it support generic parsing, like if I want the result to be parsed as a complex type? Or would I need to implement that myself? I have read about 2 libraries before here on Stackoverflow, GSON an Jackson. What is the difference performance and usability (from a developers perspective) wise? Do you guys have any experince with either of those libraries? So i guess the big question is, what method to go with? I hope you can help me out. Thanks in advance :-)

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  • Modelling in Agile Development

    - by bertzzie
    I'm writing a bachelor dissertation report where I'm developing a system with Agile methodology. Given that the development is an one man show, of course the "Agile" I did was not really agile at all (from my understanding at least). So I want some perspective from SO crowds, who is of course a professional, real world, developer with tons of experience. I think real world experience is better than the theory and experiments that I did. My question is: Do we model during development time when using Agile? UML? DFD? Or a Functional Specification is enough1? If modelling is not really necessary, what do we use to communicate to the user, as the user almost always won't understand UML or DFD? For my system, I use UI & UX Design with heavy prototyping, but then I don't have time to draw UML any more. Which one is better? 1 http://www.joelonsoftware.com/articles/fog0000000036.html I hope the question's not "subjective and argumentative" as I know this question exist because of my lack of understanding in the agile development. If it is, could someone just give me a pointer or reference about that? Possible duplicate: Do you use UML in Agile development practices?

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  • Splitting 25mb .txt file into smaller files using text delimiter

    - by user574141
    Regards, SO I am new to python and Perl. I have been trying to solve a simple problem and getting tied in knots with syntax. I hope someone has the time and patience to help. I have a 25mb file in ".txt" format which contains news-wire articles going back to 1970. Each news story is concatenated to the next, with only the "Copyright" statement to delimit. Each news story starts with "Item XX of XXX DOCUMENTS". There are certain metadata that are repeated throughout, I will use these for tagging later on. I wish to split this 25mb file into separate .txt files, each containing one news story (i.e. the text between "DOCUMENTS" and "Copyright", saving each with a different name (obviously). I am trying to 1 ) open the file... 2) iterate over lines in the file checking for the eof delimiter, and if it is not present writing the line to a list 3)write that list to a seperate small file. I'm having big problems with changing filenames using the counter, and how do I make Python start from where I left off, is the "seek" function appropriate? so far I have been trying this approach, completely unsuccessfully: myfile = open ("myfile.txt", 'r') filenumber = 0 for line in myfile.readline(): filenumber += 1 w=0 while myfile.readline() != '\s+DOCUMENTS\s*\n' ### read my line into a list mysmallfile()['w'] = [myfile.readline()] w += 1 output = open('C:\\Users\\dunner7\\Documents\###how do I change the filename each iteration???', 'w') output.writelines(mysmallfile) ###go back to start. Thank you for your time and patience. RD

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  • JSP/Struts2/Hibernate: loop through a self-referencing table.

    - by TBW
    Hello everyone, Let's say we have a self-referencing table called PERSON, with the following columns: ID, PARENT, where PARENT is a foreign key to the ID column of another element in the PERSON table. Of course, many persons can have the same parent. I use Hibernate 3 in lazy fetching mode to deal with the database. Hibernate fetches a person element from the database, which is then put in the ValueStack by the Struts2 action, to be used on the result JSP page. Now the question is : In JSP, how can I do to display all the child (and the child's child, and so on, like a family tree) of this person element? Of course, for the n+1 children I can use the < s:iterator tag over the person.person. I can also nest another < s:iterator tag over person.person.person to get the n+2 children. But what if I want to do this in an automated manner, up to the last n+p child, displaying in the process all the children of all the n+1..n+p elements? I hope I have been clear enough. Thank you all for your time. -- TBW.

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  • asp.net Can I force every page to inherit from a base page? Also should some of this logic be in my master page?

    - by Bex
    Hi! I have a web app that has a base page. Each page needs to inherit from this base page as it contains properties they all need as well as dealing with the login rights. My base page has some properties, eg: IsRole1, IsRole2, currentUserID, Role1Allowed, Role2Allowed. On the init of each page I set the properties "Role1Allowed" and "Role2Allowed" Private Sub Page_Init(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Init Role1Allowed = True Role2Allowed= False End Sub The basepage then decides if the user needs redirecting. 'Sample code so not exactly what is going to be, bug gives the idea Protected Overridable Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) If Role1Allowed And Not Role1 Then 'Redirect somewhere End If End Sub The page then must override this pageload if they need anything else in it, but making sure they call the base pageload first. Protected Overrides Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load MyBase.Page_Load(sender, e) If Not IsPostBack Then BindGrid() End If End Sub The other properties (IsRole1, IsRole, currentUserID) are also accessible by the page so it can be decided if certain things need doing based on the user. (I hope this makes sense) Ok so I have 2 questions Should this functionality be in the base page or should it somehow be in the master, and if so how would I get access to all the properties if it was? As there are multiple people working on this project and creating pages some are forgetting to inherit from this basepage, or call the base pageload when overriding it. Is there any way to force them to do this? Thanks for any help. bex

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  • IE 8 remove line break between nodes with JavaScript

    - by Tokimon
    Ok i have a list of HTML nodes which should be inline with no spacing between them. The problem is, that the nodes are written from a CMS and therefore will come with all sorts of linebreaks and spaces. Therefore I'm removing the spaces with JS using the method descibed in this question. The problem is, however, that in IE (not 9) the white spaces isn't part of the childrens list of the parent node, rendering the method useless in IE. However IE 7 (or at least IE 9 emulating IE 7) ignores the linebreaks, so that one is in the clear. That leaves IE 8 as the troublemaker. I discovered that the line break is actually a part of the outerHTML and that a simple reset of the outerHTML did the trick - like so: node.outerHTML = node.outerHTML However this will reset the node intirely and therefore removing all events and other settings on the node, which isn't really any good. So my question is now: Is there a way to remove that linebreak from the nodes outerHTML whitout resetting the node? I've tried with zoom: 1, but to no avail. Hope anyone has any experience with this.

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  • Modifying CSS class property values on the fly with JavaScript / jQuery

    - by JPN
    all. I've run into a unique situation that I have so far been unable to find a solution for: dynamically assigning a value to a CSS style. I know how to use jQuery to assign width, height, etc. to an element, but what I'm trying to do is actually change the value defined in the stylesheet so that the dynamically-created value can be assigned to multiple elements. What I'm building is a slideshow of images that occupy the full viewport, recalculating the image's width, height, and left properties on resize so that the image is always centered, favors width over height, except when the viewport is taller than it is wide (resizing does not reload the page, just fires a function to resize the image). I have successfully been able to get it to work on one image, and now I'm trying to determine the best way to assign those property values to all images in the slideshow without having to specify those three things individually for every image. Can the values of properties in a class be modified on the fly? I'm sure the answer is out there, I'm probably just not using the correct terminology in my searches. Hope I did a good job of describing the problem. TIA.

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  • Decompress a GZipped response from the server (Socket)

    - by Lith
    Umm, ok, after sending some data to the server, noting this particular part: "Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate\r\n" I am getting the following response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: nginx Date: Fri, 09 Apr 2010 23:25:27 GMT Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Connection: keep-alive X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.8 Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT Last-Modified: Fri, 09 Apr 2010 23:25:27 GMT Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate Cache-Control: post-check=0, pre-check=0 Pragma: no-cache Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding 7aa ??U-?Rh?%?2?w??PM]??7?qZ?K?)???2?&??m???"q??/p9w?????x?[`tA!G???G?5z??????a>k????????Q ???N?? ('??f?,(??Y:5B???-?)?3x^0e:j?`,???**???F>G)?2????@???b??????A?k???Ar?n? But how do I decompress it? Note that I am using the Socket Class to do all the work. I know how to decompress it, but the problem here lies in the fact that I cannot separate the Packet from the GZipped data, psuedo-psuedocode (or whatever) on how I do it: Socket sends packet; Socket reads response from server, stores into a ByteArray; Create MemoryStream, use ByteArray; Create GZipStream, use Memorystream; now the problem occurs; I am getting the following Error: System.IO.InvalidDataException The magic number in GZip header is not correct. Make sure you are passing in a GZip stream. I hope the explanation is clear enough __.

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  • Rails: Multiple "types" of one model through related models?

    - by neezer
    I have a User model in my app, which I would like to store basic user information, such as email address, first and last name, phone number, etc. I also have many different types of users in my system, including sales agents, clients, guests, etc. I would like to be able to use the same User model as a base for all the others, so that I don't have to include all the fields for all the related roles in one model, and can delegate as necessary (cutting down on duplicate database fields as well as providing easy mobility from changing one user of one type to another). So, what I'd like is this: User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "client", so ---- client field 1 ---- client field 2 ---- client field 3 User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "sales agent", so ---- sales agent field 1 ---- sales agent field 2 ---- sales agent field 3 and so on... In addition, when a new user signs up, I want that new user to automatically be assigned the role of "client" (I'm talking about database fields here, not authorization, though I hope to eventually include this logic in my user authorization as well). I have a multi-step signup wizard I'm trying to build with wizardly. The first step is easy, since I'm simply calling the fields included in the base User model (such as first_name and email), but the second step is trickier since it should be calling in fields from the associated model (like--per my example above--the model client with fields client_field_1 or client_field_2, as if those fields were part of User). Does that make sense? Let me know if that wasn't clear at all, and I'll try to explain it in a different way. Can anyone help me with this? How would I do this?

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  • Variable not implementing correctly from if statement

    - by swiftsly
    I have an if statement that is supposed to set the variable $pc162v to a link specified in the MySQL table if content exists in the $vid column of the row. The problem is, the PHP is detecting that there's a link in the MySQL, but isn't setting the $pc162v variable correctly. Here's the variable declarations: $pc162v = ""; $vid162 = '<embed width="420" height="236" src="'.$pc162v.'" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"></embed>'; Here's the section of the if statement: if (empty($row[7])) { $vid162 = ''; } else { $pc162v = $row[7]; } In my web browsers, the part of the code where the variable $vid162 is used, shows up as the following: <embed width="420" height="236" src="" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"> I have also tried setting $vid162 to: <embed width="420" height="236" src="<?php echo $pc162v; ?>" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"></embed> and that just makes the code in my web browser: <embed width="420" height="236" src="<?php echo $pc162v; ?>" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"> Hope someone has a solution! Thanks in advance.

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  • Clear tableView cell cache (or remove an entry)

    - by ManniAT
    Hi, I have the same question problem as described here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2286669/iphone-how-to-purge-a-cached-uitableviewcell But my problem can't be solved with "resetting content". To be precise - I use a custom cell (own class). While running the application it is possible that I have to use a different "cell type". It's the same class - but it has (a lot of) differnt attributes. Of course I could always reset all the things at "PrepareForReuse" but that's not a good idea I guess (there are a lot things to reset). My idea - I do all these things in the constructor of the cell. And all the rows will use this "type of cell" later. When the (seldom) situation comes that I have to change the look of all rows I create a new instance of this kind of cell with different settings. And now I want to replace the queued cell with this new one. I tried it with simply calling the constructor with the same cellidentifier (in the hope it will replace the existing one) but that doesn't work. I also didn't find a "ClearReusableCells" or something like this. Is there a way to clear the cache - or to remove / replace a specific item? Manfred

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  • Updating an image's ImageUrl within a Repeater

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I hope someone can help me. It's a pretty newbie question, I'm afraid. I have an image inside a repeater, and I would like to change its IMAGEURL based on parameter that's being passed to it. <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <asp:Image ID="imgType" runat="server" /> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <%# Eval("DisplayName")%> </ItemTemplate> <SeparatorTemplate> <hr /> </SeparatorTemplate> </asp:Repeater> There is a SWITCH statement in the code behind that is altering the IMAGEURL depending on what's being passed to it. Inevitably, however, the images ID ("imgType") is not visible to the SWITCH statement (presumably because it's inside a REPEATER). Any suggestions on the best way to implement this would be greatly appreciated. Sorry for such a newbie question.

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  • JQuery with css3 keydown keyCode = 37 and 39

    - by rayrule
    I have tested both ways. jquery animation and css3 transition, and css3 is a little bit faster. But i have a problem with the following code: $(document).keydown(function(e){ if (e.keyCode == 39) { var DocHeight = $(document).height(); $('.container').css("margin-top","-="+DocHeight) } }); if i hit twice on keyCode 39 (arrow to the right) than my transition is outer space. Does anyone has an solution for this thing? outer space maybe not the correct word. But the problem is. if i hit twice the arrow key i'll get the last request, in other words... animation is started, and another animation start from the position that i don't want. example: hit #1 margin-top is at 0px and goes to 1024px. but when i hit it twice the margin-top is at 23px, and it stops at 1047px. This is not what i want. It has to stop at 1024px. I hope so.

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  • jQuery Looking for a function to equalize heights of divs based on tallest image in a table.

    - by Jamie
    I am doing a site that will have a table with a bunch of images in them. They are user added images so I have no control over aspect ratio, what I do have control over is I can the force a max height/width and the image will not exceed this in either direction, but the height can (and will) fluctuate. <table class="pl_upload"> <tr class="row1"> <td class="col1"> <div> <div class="img-container"> <a href="#"><img src="img.jpg" width="182" alt="X" /></a> </div> </div> </td> ....... What I need ideally is to get the height of the tallest image and then make the all of the children divs the same height based on the height of the tallest one. I hope that makes sense, been a long day. I made a jsfiddle page for it here: http://jsfiddle.net/Evolution/27EJB/

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  • XSLT 1.0: restrict entries in a nodeset

    - by Mike
    Hi, Being relatively new to XSLT I have what I hope is a simple question. I have some flat XML files, which can be pretty big (eg. 7MB) that I need to make 'more hierarchical'. For example, the flat XML might look like this: <D0011> .... .... and it should end up looking like this: <D0011> .... .... I have a working XSLT for this, and it essentially gets a nodeset of all the b elements and then uses the 'following-sibling' axis to get a nodeset of the nodes following the current b node (ie. following-sibling::*[position() =$nodePos]). Then recursion is used to add the siblings into the result tree until another b element is found (I have parameterised it of course, to make it more generic). I also have a solution that just sends the position in the XML of the next b node and selects the nodes after that one after the other (using recursion) via a *[position() = $nodePos] selection. The problem is that the time to execute the transformation increases unacceptably with the size of the XML file. Looking into it with XML Spy it seems that it is the 'following-sibling' and 'position()=' that take the time in the two respective methods. What I really need is a way of restricting the number of nodes in the above selections, so fewer comparisons are performed: every time the position is tested, every node in the nodeset is tested to see if its position is the right one. Is there a way to do that ? Any other suggestions ? Thanks, Mike

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