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  • grdb not working variables

    - by stupid_idiot
    hi, i know this is kinda retarded but I just can't figure it out. I'm debugging this: xor eax,eax mov ah,[var1] mov al,[var2] call addition stop: jmp stop var1: db 5 var2: db 6 addition: add ah,al ret the numbers that I find on addresses var1 and var2 are 0x0E and 0x07. I know it's not segmented, but that ain't reason for it to do such escapades, because the addition call works just fine. Could you please explain to me where is my mistake? I see the problem, dunno how to fix it yet though. The thing is, for some reason the instruction pointer starts at 0x100 and all the segment registers at 0x1628. To address the instruction the used combination is i guess [cs:ip] (one of the segment registers and the instruction pointer for sure). The offset to var1 is 0x10 (probably because from the begining of the code it's the 0x10th byte in order), i tried to examine the memory and what i got was: 1628:100 8 bytes 1628:108 8 bytes 1628:110 <- wtf? (assume another 8 bytes) 1628:118 ... whatever tricks are there in the memory [cs:var1] points somewhere else than in my code, which is probably where the label .data would usually address ds.... probably.. i don't know what is supposed to be at 1628:10 ok, i found out what caused the assness and wasted me whole fuckin day. the behaviour described above is just correct, the code is fully functional. what i didn't know is that grdb debugger for some reason sets the begining address to 0x100... the sollution is to insert the directive ORG 0x100 on the first line and that's the whole thing. the code was working because instruction pointer has the right address to first instruction and goes one by one, but your assembler doesn't know what effective address will be your program stored at so it pretty much remains relative to first line of the code which means all the variables (if not using label for data section) will remain pointing as if it started at 0x0. which of course wouldn't work with DOS. and grdb apparently emulates some DOS features... sry for the language, thx everyone for effort, hope this will spare someone's time if having the same problem... heheh.. at least now i know the reason why to use .data section :))))

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  • C++: Trouble with Pointers, loop variables, and structs

    - by Rosarch
    Consider the following example: #include <iostream> #include <sstream> #include <vector> #include <wchar.h> #include <stdlib.h> using namespace std; struct odp { int f; wchar_t* pstr; }; int main() { vector<odp> vec; ostringstream ss; wchar_t base[5]; wcscpy_s(base, L"1234"); for (int i = 0; i < 4; i++) { odp foo; foo.f = i; wchar_t loopStr[1]; foo.pstr = loopStr; // wchar_t* = wchar_t ? Why does this work? foo.pstr[0] = base[i]; vec.push_back(foo); } for (vector<odp>::iterator iter = vec.begin(); iter != vec.end(); iter++) { cout << "Vec contains: " << iter->f << ", " << *(iter->pstr) << endl; } } This produces: Vec contains: 0, 52 Vec contains: 1, 52 Vec contains: 2, 52 Vec contains: 3, 52 I would hope that each time, iter->f and iter->pstr would yield a different result. Unfortunately, iter->pstr is always the same. My suspicion is that each time through the loop, a new loopStr is created. Instead of copying it into the struct, I'm only copying a pointer. The location that the pointer writes to is getting overwritten. How can I avoid this? Is it possible to solve this problem without allocating memory on the heap?

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  • Hibernate @Transactional not starting transaction

    - by rhinds
    I have a web app using Hibernate, and I am attempting to persist some data, but it is failing to persist within a Transaction despite using the @Transactional annotation. My service class is as follows: @Service("profileService") public class ProfileService { private EntityManager entityManager; @Autowired private AccountService accountService; @Autowired private ProfileDAOImpl profileDao; @PersistenceContext public void setEntityManager(EntityManager em) { this.entityManager = em; } @Transactional public void addConnectionToAccount(SocialConnection sc) { entityManager.persist(sc); } } The addConnectionToAccount() method is being called from another Spring bean in a normal method, and the ProfileService class is currently being injected there: public class HibernateConnectionRepository implements ConnectionRepository { @Inject private ProfileService profileService; @Override @Transactional public void addConnection(SocialConnection sc) { try { profileService.addConnectionToAccount(accountId, sc); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } I tried putting the @Transactional annotation on the calling method in the vain hope that it might make a difference but nothing. Previously I have experienced problems like this its been because the object being persisted does not satisfy table restrictions (such as non-nullable columns as null) or because the method is being called from within the same class and the calling method is not Transactional, but neither of those are the case here.. Any ideas? it just fails silently, the logs are as follows: 2012-03-26 22:25:04,702 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool - trace com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool@1bc25c8 [managed: 3, unused: 2, excluded: 0] (e.g. com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.NewPooledConnection@e5b006) 2012-03-26 22:25:04,710 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.SQL - select SEQ_COUNT from SEQUENCE where SEQ_NAME = 'PO_SEQ' for update 2012-03-26 22:25:04,711 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.SQL - update SEQUENCE set SEQ_COUNT = ? where SEQ_COUNT = ? and SEQ_NAME = 'PO_SEQ' 2012-03-26 22:25:04,723 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool - trace com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool@1bc25c8 [managed: 3, unused: 2, excluded: 0] (e.g. com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.NewPooledConnection@e5b006) 2012-03-26 22:25:04,723 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.event.internal.AbstractSaveEventListener - Generated identifier: 2200, using strategy: org.hibernate.id.MultipleHiLoPerTableGenerator UPDATE Also wanted to mention that the HibernateConnectionRepository bean is not annotated and is actually being configured in an @Configuration class (if this makes any difference? not used @Configuration classes much). The method to create the bean is as follows: @Bean @Scope(value = "request", proxyMode = ScopedProxyMode.INTERFACES) public ConnectionRepository connectionRepository() { Authentication authentication = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication(); if (authentication == null) { throw new IllegalStateException("Unable to get a ConnectionRepository: no user signed in"); } ApplicationUser user = (ApplicationUser) authentication.getPrincipal(); return usersConnectionRepository().createConnectionRepository(String.valueOf(user.getAccountId())); } The bean is scoped to the logged in user, but may also be created multiple times for each user..

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  • Casting to derived type problem in C++

    - by GONeale
    Hey there everyone, I am quite new to C++, but have worked with C# for years, however it is not helping me here! :) My problem: I have an Actor class which Ball and Peg both derive from on an objective-c iphone game I am working on. As I am testing for collision, I wish to set an instance of Ball and Peg appropriately depending on the actual runtime type of actorA or actorB. My code that tests this as follows: // Actors that collided Actor *actorA = (Actor*) bodyA->GetUserData(); Actor *actorB = (Actor*) bodyB->GetUserData(); Ball* ball; Peg* peg; if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorA)) { // true ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorB)) { ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorB); } if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorA)) { // also true?! peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorB)) { peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorB); } if (peg != NULL) { [peg hitByBall]; } Once ball and peg are set, I then proceed to run the hitByBall method (objective c). Where my problem really lies is in the casting procedurel Ball casts fine from actorA; the first if (static_cast<>) statement steps in and sets the ball pointer appropriately. The second step is to assign the appropriate type to peg. I know peg should be a Peg type and I previously know it will be actorB, however at runtime, detecting the types, I was surprised to find actually the third if (static_cast<>) statement stepped in and set this, this if statement was to check if actorA was a Peg, which we already know actorA is a Ball! Why would it have stepped here and not in the fourth if statement? The only thing I can assume is how casting works differently from c# and that is it finds that actorA which is actually of type Ball derives from Actor and then it found when static_cast<Peg*> (actorA) is performed it found Peg derives from Actor too, so this is a valid test? This could all come down to how I have misunderstood the use of static_cast. How can I achieve what I need? :) I'm really uneasy about what feels to me like a long winded brute-casting attempt here with a ton of ridiculous if statements. I'm sure there is a more elegant way to achieve a simple cast to Peg and cast to Ball dependent on actual type held in actorA and actorB. Hope someone out there can help! :) Thanks a lot.

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  • mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

    - by punkish
    This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

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  • Passing variables from PHP to Javascript back to PHP using Ajax.

    - by ObjectiveJ
    I hope this makes sesne, please bare with me. So I have a PHP page that contains variables, I have some radial boxes, and on click of them, it calculates a price for the item you have clicked on. I do this by activating a js function that I have passed some variables to. Like so. PHP: <?php $result = mssql_query("SELECT * FROM Segments ORDER BY 'Squares'"); if (!$result) { echo 'query failed'; exit; } while ($row = mssql_fetch_array($result)) { ?> <span><?php echo $row["Squares"]; ?></span><input name="squares" type="radio" onclick="ajaxCases('<?php echo $row["Squares"]; ?>', '<?php echo $row["StartCaseID"]; ?>', '<?php echo $row["StartMatrixPrice"]; ?>')" value="<?php echo $row["Squares"]; ?>"<?php if ($row["Squares"] == "1") { ?> checked="checked" <?php }else{ ?> checked="" <?php } ?>/> <?php } ?> As you can see onclick it goes to a function called ajaxcases, this function looks like this. function ajaxCases(squares,start,price){ $('#step1').html('<p style="margin:100px 0px 0px 100px"><img src="images/ajax-loader-bigindic.gif" width="32" height="32" alt="" /></p>'); $('#step1').load("ajax-styles.php?squares="+squares); prevId1 = ""; document.varsForm.caseid.value=start; $('#step1price').html('<span style="margin:0px 0px 0px 30px"><img src="images/ajax-loader-price.gif" width="24" height="24" alt="" /></span>'); $('#step1price').load("ajax-step1-price.php?Squares="+Squares); return true; } This then goes to a php page called ajax-step1-price.php and I try to recall the variable Squares. However it doesn't work, I thought it was a GET however that returns undefined. In Summary: I would like to know how to pass a variable from PHP to JS then back to PHP, or if someone could just tell me where I am going wrong that would be greatly appreciated.

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  • sed - trying to replace first occurrence after a match

    - by wakkaluba
    I am facing a situation that drives me nuts. I am setting up an update server which uses a json file. Don't ask why or how, it sucks and is my only possibility to achieve it. I have been trying and researching for HOURS (many) because I went ballistic and wanted to crack this on my own. But I have to realize I got stuck and need help. So sorry for this chunk but I think it is somewhat important to see... The file is a one liner and repeating the following sequence with changing values (of course). "plugin_name_foo_bar": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [{"name": "bla", "optional": true, "version": "1.00"}], "developers": [{"developerId": "bla", "email": "[email protected]", "name": "Bla bla2nd"}], "excerpt": "some text {excerpt} !bla.png|thumbnail,border=1! ", "gav": "bla", "labels": ["report", "scm-related"], "name": "plugin_name_foo_bar", "previousTimestamp": "bla", "previousVersion": "1.0", "releaseTimestamp": "bla", "requiredCore": "1", "scm": "github.com", "sha1": "ynnBM2jWo25ZLDdP3ybBOnV/Pio=", "title": "bla", "url": "http://bla.org", "version": "1.0", "wiki": "https://bla.org"}, "Exclusion": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [], and the next plugin block is glued straight afterwards. What I now want to do is to search for "plugin_foo_bar": {" as this is the unique identifier for a new plugin description block. I want to replace the first sha1 value occuring afterwards. That's where I keep failing. I always grab the first,last or any occurrence in the entire file and not the block :( "title" is the unique identifier after the sha1 value. So I tried to make the .* less greedy but it ain't working out. last attempt was heading towards: sed -i 's/("name": "plugin_name_foo_bar.*sha1": ")([a-zA-Z0-9!@#\$%^&*()\[\]]*)(", "title"\)/\1blablabla\2/1' default.json to find the sha1 value of that plugin but still no joy. I hope someone knows - preferably a simpler approach - before I now continue with trial and error until I have to puke and freakout. I am working with SED on Windows, so Unix approach might help me to figure out how to achieve this in batch but please make it as one-liner if possible. Scripts are a real pain to convert. And I just need SED and no other solution with other tools like AWK. That is absolutely out of discussion. Any help is appreciated :) Cheers Jan

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  • ZF-Autoloader not working in UnitTests on Ubuntu

    - by Sam
    i got a problem regarding Unit-testing a Zend-Framework application under Ubuntu 12.04. The project-structure is a default zend application whereas the models are defined as the following ./application ./models ./DbTable ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_DbTable_ProjectStatus) ./Mappers ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus) ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_ProjectStatus) The Problem here is with the Zend-specific autoloading. The naming convention here appears that the folder Mappers loads all classes with _Mapper but not _Mappers. This is some internal Zend behavior which is fine so far. On my windows machine the phpunit runs without any Problems, trying to initiate all those classes. On my Ubuntu machine however with jenkins running on it, phpunit fails to find the appropriate classes giving me the following error Fatal error: Class 'Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus' not found in /var/lib/jenkins/jobs/PAM/workspace/tests/application/models/Mapper/ProjectStatusTest.php on line 39 The error appears to really be that the Zend-Autoloader doesn't load from the ubuntu machine, but i can't figure out how or why this works. The question remains of why this is. I think i've double checked every point of contact with the zend autoloading stuff, but i just can't figure this out. I'll paste the - from my point of view relevant snippets - and hope someone of you has any insight to this. Jenkins Snippet for PHPUnit <target name="phpunit" description="Run unit tests with PHPUnit"> <exec executable="phpunit" failonerror="true"> <arg line="--configuration '${basedir}/tests/phpunit.xml' --coverage-clover '${basedir}/build/logs/clover.xml' --coverage-html '${basedir}/build/coverage/.' --log-junit '${basedir}/build/logs/junit.xml'" /> </exec> </target> ./tests/phpunit.xml <phpunit bootstrap="./bootstrap.php"> ... this shouldn't be of relevance ... </phpunit> ./tests/bootstrap.php <?php // Define path to application directory defined('APPLICATION_PATH') || define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../application')); // Define application environment defined('APPLICATION_ENV') || define('APPLICATION_ENV', (getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') ? getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') : 'testing')); // Ensure library/ is on include_path set_include_path(implode(PATH_SEPARATOR, array( realpath(APPLICATION_PATH . '/../library'), get_include_path(), ))); require_once 'Zend/Loader/Autoloader.php'; Zend_Loader_Autoloader::getInstance(); Any help will be appreciated.

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  • MATLAB query about for loop, reading in data and plotting

    - by mp7
    Hi there, I am a complete novice at using matlab and am trying to work out if there is a way of optimising my code. Essentially I have data from model outputs and I need to plot them using matlab. In addition I have reference data (with 95% confidence intervals) which I plot on the same graph to get a visual idea on how close the model outputs and reference data is. In terms of the model outputs I have several thousand files (number sequentially) which I open in a loop and plot. The problem/question I have is whether I can preprocess the data and then plot later - to save time. The issue I seem to be having when I try this is that I have a legend which either does not appear or is inaccurate. My code (apolgies if it not elegant): fn= xlsread(['tbobserved' '.xls']); time= fn(:,1); totalreference=fn(:,4); totalreferencelowerci=fn(:,6); totalreferenceupperci=fn(:,7); figure plot(time,totalrefrence,'-', time, totalreferencelowerci,'--', time, totalreferenceupperci,'--'); xlabel('Year'); ylabel('Reference incidence per 100,000 population'); title ('Total'); clickableLegend('Observed reference data', 'Totalreferencelowerci', 'Totalreferenceupperci','Location','BestOutside'); xlim([1910 1970]); hold on start_sim=10000; end_sim=10005; h = zeros (1,1000); for i=start_sim:end_sim %is there any way of doing this earlier to save time? a=int2str(i); incidenceFile =strcat('result_', 'Sim', '_', a, 'I_byCal_total.xls'); est_tot=importdata(incidenceFile, '\t', 1); cal_tot=est_tot.data; magnitude=1; t1=cal_tot(:,1)+1750; totalmodel=cal_tot(:,3)+cal_tot(:,5); h(a)=plot(t1,totalmodel); xlim([1910 1970]); ylim([0 500]); hold all clickableLegend(h(a),a,'Location','BestOutside') end Essentially I was hoping to have a way of reading in the data and then plot later - ie. optimise the code. I hope you might be able to help. Thanks. mp

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  • How do you unit test the real world?

    - by Kim Sun-wu
    I'm primarily a C++ coder, and thus far, have managed without really writing tests for all of my code. I've decided this is a Bad Idea(tm), after adding new features that subtly broke old features, or, depending on how you wish to look at it, introduced some new "features" of their own. But, unit testing seems to be an extremely brittle mechanism. You can test for something in "perfect" conditions, but you don't get to see how your code performs when stuff breaks. A for instance is a crawler, let's say it crawls a few specific sites, for data X. Do you simply save sample pages, test against those, and hope that the sites never change? This would work fine as regression tests, but, what sort of tests would you write to constantly check those sites live and let you know when the application isn't doing it's job because the site changed something, that now causes your application to crash? Wouldn't you want your test suite to monitor the intent of the code? The above example is a bit contrived, and something I haven't run into (in case you haven't guessed). Let me pick something I have, though. How do you test an application will do its job in the face of a degraded network stack? That is, say you have a moderate amount of packet loss, for one reason or the other, and you have a function DoSomethingOverTheNetwork() which is supposed to degrade gracefully when the stack isn't performing as it's supposed to; but does it? The developer tests it personally by purposely setting up a gateway that drops packets to simulate a bad network when he first writes it. A few months later, someone checks in some code that modifies something subtly, so the degradation isn't detected in time, or, the application doesn't even recognize the degradation, this is never caught, because you can't run real world tests like this using unit tests, can you? Further, how about file corruption? Let's say you're storing a list of servers in a file, and the checksum looks okay, but the data isn't really. You want the code to handle that, you write some code that you think does that. How do you test that it does exactly that for the life of the application? Can you? Hence, brittleness. Unit tests seem to test the code only in perfect conditions(and this is promoted, with mock objects and such), not what they'll face in the wild. Don't get me wrong, I think unit tests are great, but a test suite composed only of them seems to be a smart way to introduce subtle bugs in your code while feeling overconfident about it's reliability. How do I address the above situations? If unit tests aren't the answer, what is? Thanks!

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  • jQuery nextUntill id < num or alternative

    - by Volmar
    Hi, i'm using jQuery to show/hide different LI-elements based on their classes. Look at this example. <li id="1" class="fp de1"></li> <li id="2" class="fp de1"><button onclick="hide(2,2);"></li> <li id="3" class="fp de2"><button onclick="hide(3,3);"></li> <li id="4" class="fp de3"><button onclick="hide(4,4);"></li> <li id="5" class="fp de4"></li> <li id="6" class="fp de3"></li> <li id="7" class="fp de3"></li> <li id="8" class="fp de1"><button onclick="hide(8,2);"></li> <li id="9" class="fp de2"><button onclick="hide(9,3);"></li> <li id="10" class="fp de3"><button onclick="hide(10,4);"></li> <li id="11" class="fp de4"></li> You se that some of these have a button with a hide funcion. what i want is that when you press the hide button The following elements the have a highernumber in the .de# class should be hidden untill it reaches a LI with the same .de#-class. so if you press the hide(), i want LIs with ids 3,4,5,6,7 to be hiden. if i press the next on i want 4,5,6,7, and the thirs i want id 5 to be hidden. so this is the Javascript i made for it: function hide(id,de){ var de2 = de-1; $('#'+id).nextUntil('li.de'+de2).hide(); } The problem is that this function is not working exactly as i want. it would work correctly in the first hide()-function and the thirs but not in hide()function number two. here it will hide IDs: 4-8. so i want to do something. so i want the nextuntill() to hide elements untill it reaches a LI-element with the same .de# or a lower .de#. i hope i didn't complicate it to much in my description of the problem. if you have better idea than using nextUntill i'm all ears.

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  • ACL implementation

    - by Kirzilla
    First question Please, could you explain me how simpliest ACL could be implemented in MVC. Here is the first approach of using Acl in Controller... <?php class MyController extends Controller { public function myMethod() { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController('MyController'); $acl->setMethod('myMethod'); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is very bad approach, and it's minus is that we have to add Acl piece of code into each controller's method, but we don't need any additional dependencies! Next approach is to make all controller's methods private and add ACL code into controller's __call method. <?php class MyController extends Controller { private function myMethod() { ... } public function __call($name, $params) { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController(__CLASS__); $acl->setMethod($name); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is better than previous code, but main minuses are... All controller's methods should be private We have to add ACL code into each controller's __call method. The next approach is to put Acl code into parent Controller, but we still need to keep all child controller's methods private. What is the solution? And what is the best practice? Where should I call Acl functions to decide allow or disallow method to be executed. Second question Second question is about getting role using Acl. Let's imagine that we have guests, users and user's friends. User have restricted access to viewing his profile that only friends can view it. All guests can't view this user's profile. So, here is the logic.. we have to ensure that method being called is profile we have to detect owner of this profile we have to detect is viewer is owner of this profile or no we have to read restriction rules about this profile we have to decide execute or not execute profile method The main question is about detecting owner of profile. We can detect who is owner of profile only executing model's method $model-getOwner(), but Acl do not have access to model. How can we implement this? I hope that my thoughts are clear. Sorry for my English. Thank you.

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  • Creating a binary file from an IntelHex in C#

    - by Allek
    I'm trying to create a binary file from a intelHex file. Iside the intelHex file I have data and address to which I should write the data inside the binary file. IntelHex file looks like that :10010000214601360121470136007EFE09D2190140 :100110002146017EB7C20001FF5F16002148011988 :10012000194E79234623965778239EDA3F01B2CAA7 :100130003F0156702B5E712B722B732146013421C7 :00000001FF So I have 4 lines here with data since the last one tells us thats the end of file. Here is what I'm doing to create the file while (!streamReader.EndOfStream) { string temp = String.Empty; int address = 0; line = streamReader.ReadLine(); // Get address for each data address = Convert.ToInt32(line.Substring(3, 4), 16); // Get data from each line temp = line.Substring(7, 2); if (temp == "01") break; else { temp = line.Substring(9, line.Length - 11); string[] array = new string[(temp.Length / 2)]; int j = 0; for (int i = 0; i < array.Length; ++i) { array[i] = temp[j].ToString() + temp[j + 1].ToString(); j = j + 2; } temp = String.Empty; for (int i = 0; i < array.Length; ++i) { temp = temp + Convert.ToChar(Convert.ToInt32(array[i], 16)); } } binaryWriter.Seek(address, SeekOrigin.Begin); binaryWriter.Write(temp); binaryWriter.Flush(); } Console.WriteLine("Done...\nPress any key to exit..."); The problem here is, that data in binary file in some places is not equal to data from the intelHex file. Looks like there is some random data added to the file and I do not know from where. First time I saw that there is an additional data before the data from the intelHex file. For instance first data line starts with 21, but in binary file I have a number 12 before the 21. I do not know what is wrong here. Hope someone can help me or guide me where I can find some usefull informations about creating binary files in C#

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  • Are there compelling reasons not to use Groovy?

    - by Leonard H Martin
    I'm developing a LoB application in Java after a long absence from the platform (having spent the last 8 years or so entrenched in Fortran, C, a smidgin of C++ and latterly .Net). Java, the language, is not much changed from how I remember it. I like it's strengths and I can work around its weaknesses - the platform has grown and deciding upon the myriad of different frameworks which appear to do much the same thing as one another is a different story; but that can wait for another day - all-in-all I'm comfortable with Java. However, over the last couple of weeks I've become enamoured with Groovy, and purely from a selfish point of view: but not just because it makes development against the JVM a more succinct and entertaining (and, well, "groovy") proposition than Java (the language). What strikes me most about Groovy is its inherent maintainability. We all (I hope!) strive to write well documented, easy to understand code. However, sometimes the languages we use themselves defeat us. An example: in 2001 I wrote a library in C to translate EDIFACT EDI messages into ANSI X12 messages. This is not a particularly complicated process, if slightly involved, and I thought at the time I had documented the code properly - and I probably had - but some six years later when I revisited the project (and after becoming acclimatised to C#) I found myself lost in so much C boilerplate (mallocs, pointers, etc. etc.) that it took three days of thoughtful analysis before I finally understood what I'd been doing six years previously. This evening I've written about 2000 lines of Java (it is the day of rest, after all!). I've documented as best as I know how, but, but, of those 2000 lines of Java a significant proportion is Java boiler plate. This is where I see Groovy and other dynamic languages winning through - maintainability and later comprehension. Groovy lets you concentrate on your intent without getting bogged down on the platform specific implementation; it's almost, but not quite, self documenting. I see this as being a huge boon to me when I revisit my current project (which I'll port to Groovy asap) in several years time and to my successors who will inherit it and carry on the good work. So, are there any reasons not to use Groovy?

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  • PHP, MySQL: Display only required parts of my website in sister website

    - by Devner
    Hi all, Now I have my website built on PHP & Mysql. Consider this like a forum. Now when a user posts a reply in my website 1 (ex. www.website1.com), I want to be able to show the starting thread and it's related replies in a sister website of mine. I want to do this in a way that it does not show the rest of the page & other page contents (like logo etc.). I don't think iframe would be a solution because an iframe would embed the whole page and the users visiting my sister website (totally different domain i.e. www.website2.com) would be able to see all the page contents, like logo etc. I want to avoid that. I want to make them see only limited information from website 1 and only the info. that I intend. I hope that makes sense. In a way, you could say that I am trying to replicate my 1 website, and show only a limited part of it. Users browsing 2nd website can post a reply in the 2nd website and it should automatically be posted & visible to the visitors of the website 1. Users of website 1 should not know that a user of website 2 has posted it. They would feel that some user from website 1 has posted it. Do I have to use 2 separate mysql DB or just 1? I think it would be problematic if I am trying to use different DB. I also feel I might have to face DB connectivity issues as I can connect to only 1 DB at a time. It's basically like users of website1.com should feel that they are replying to users of website1.com & users of website2.com should feel that they are replying to users of website2.com. (I need it this way to bridge the gap between them). At the same time I want to make the front end of the websites different so that they don't feel that they are replying to some other users outside the domain. These websites would be under my control and I will have access to the source code at any time. If I need to change the source code, these changes are welcome. Is this really possible? Thank you in advance.

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  • A two player game over the intranet..

    - by Santwana
    Hi everybody.. I am a student of 3rd year engineering and only a novice in my programming skills. I need some help with my project.. I wish to develop a two player game to be played over the network (Intranet). I want to develop a simple website with a few html pages for this.My ideas for the project run as follows: 1.People can log in from different systems and check who ever is online on the network currently. the page also shows who is playing with whom. 2.If a person is interested in playing with a player who is currently online, he sends a request of which the other player is somehow notified( using a message or an alert on his profile page..) 3.If the player accepts the request, a game is started. This is exactly where I am clueless.. How can I make them play the game? I need to develop a turn based game with two players, eg chessboard.. how can I do this? The game has to be played live.. and it is time tracked. i need your help with coding the above.. the other features i wish to include are: 4.The game could not be abruptly terminated by any one if the users.The request to terminate the game should be sent to the other player first and only if he accepts can the game be terminated. Whoever wins the game would get a plus 10 on their credit and if he terminated he gets a minus 10. The credits remains constant even if he loses but the success percentage is reduced. 6.The player with highest winning percentage is projected as the player of the week on the home page and he can post a challenge to all others.. I only have an intermediate knowledge of core java and know the basics of Swing and Awt. I am not at all familiar with networking in java right now. I have 5 to 6 weeks of time for developing the project but I hope to learn the things before I start my project. i would prefer to use a lan to illustrate the project and I know only java,jsp,oracle,html and bit of xml to develop my proj. Also I wish to know if I can code this within 6 weeks, would it be too difficult or complicated? Please spare some time to tell me. Please.. please.. I need your suggestions and help.. thank you so much..

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  • calling startActivity() inside of a instance method - causing a NullPointerException

    - by Cole
    Heya - I'm trying to call startActivity() from a class that extends AsyncTask in the onPostExecute(). Here's the flow: Class that extends AsyncTask: protected void onPostExecute() { Login login = new Login(); login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); } Class that extends Activity: public void pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity() { // start the CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm Activity Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); **ERROR_HERE*** intent.setClassName(this, CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm.class.getName()); startActivity(intent); } And I get this error… every time: 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): java.lang.NullPointerException 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ContextWrapper.getPackageName(ContextWrapper.java:120) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ComponentName.(ComponentName.java:62) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.Intent.setClassName(Intent.java:4850) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at com.att.AppName.Login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(Login.java:47) For iOS developers - I'm just trying to push a new view controller on to a navigational controller's stack a la pushViewController:animated:. Which apparently - is hard to do on this platform. Any ideas? Thanks in advance! UPDATE - FIXED: per @Falmarri advice, i managed to resolve this issue. first of all, i'm no longer calling Login login = new Login(); to create a new login object. bad. bad. bad. no cookie. instead, when preparing to call .execute(), this tutorial suggests passing the applicationContext to the class the executes the AsyncTask, for my purposes, as shown below: CallWebServiceTask task = new CallWebServiceTask(); // pass the login object to the task task.applicationContext = login; // execute the task in the background, passing the required params task.execute(login); now, in onPostExecute(), i can get to my Login objects methods like so: ((Login) applicationContext).pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); ((Login) applicationContext).showLoginFailedAlert(result.get("httpResponseCode").toString()); ... hope this helps someone else out there! especially iOS developers transistioning over to Android...

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  • Objective-C memory management issue

    - by Toby Wilson
    I've created a graphing application that calls a web service. The user can zoom & move around the graph, and the program occasionally makes a decision to call the web service for more data accordingly. This is achieved by the following process: The graph has a render loop which constantly renders the graph, and some decision logic which adds web service call information to a stack. A seperate thread takes the most recent web service call information from the stack, and uses it to make the web service call. The other objects on the stack get binned. The idea of this is to reduce the number of web service calls to only those appropriate, and only one at a time. Right, with the long story out of the way (for which I apologise), here is my memory management problem: The graph has persistant (and suitably locked) NSDate* objects for the currently displayed start & end times of the graph. These are passed into the initialisers for my web service request objects. The web service call objects then retain the dates. After the web service calls have been made (or binned if they were out of date), they release the NSDate*. The graph itself releases and reallocates new NSDates* on the 'touches ended' event. If there is only one web service call object on the stack when removeAllObjects is called, EXC_BAD_ACCESS occurs in the web service call object's deallocation method when it attempts to release the date objects (even though they appear to exist and are in scope in the debugger). If, however, I comment out the release messages from the destructor, no memory leak occurs for one object on the stack being released, but memory leaks occur if there are more than one object on the stack. I have absolutely no idea what is going wrong. It doesn't make a difference what storage symantics I use for the web service call objects dates as they are assigned in the initialiser and then only read (so for correctness' sake are set to readonly). It also doesn't seem to make a difference if I retain or copy the dates in the initialiser (though anything else obviously falls out of scope or is unwantedly released elsewhere and causes a crash). I'm sorry this explanation is long winded, I hope it's sufficiently clear but I'm not gambling on that either I'm afraid. Major big thanks to anyone that can help, even suggest anything I may have missed?

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  • How should I organize my C# classes? [closed]

    - by oscar.fimbres
    I'm creating an email generator system. I'm creating some clases and I'm trying to make things right. By the time, I have created 5 classes. Look at the class diagram: I'm going to explain you each one. Person. It's not a big deal. Just have two constructors: Person(fname, lname1, lname2) and Person(token, fname, lname1, lname2). Note that email property stays without value. StringGenerator. This is a static class and it has only a public function: Generate. The function receives a Person class and it will return a list of patterns for the email. MySql. It contains all the necessary to connect to a database. Database. This class inherits from MySql class. It has particular functions for the database. This gets all the registries from a table (function GetPeople) and return a List. Each person from the list contains all data except Email. Also it can add records (List but this must contains an available email). An available email is when an email doesn't have another person. For that reason, I have a method named ExistsEmail. Container. This is the class which is causing me some problems. It's like a temporary container. It supposed to have a people list from GetPeople (in Database class) and for each person it adds, it must generate a list of possible names (StringGenerator.Generate), then it selects one of the list and it must check out if exists in the database or in the same container. As I told above this is temporal, it may none of the possible emails is available. So the user can modify or enter a custom email available and update the list in this container. When all the email's people are available, it sends a list to add in the database, It must have a Flush method, to insert all the people in the database. I'm trying to design correct class. I need a little help to improve or edite the classes, because I want to separate the logic and visual, and learn of you. I hope you've been able to understand me. Any question or doubt, please let me know. Anyway, I attached the solution here to better understand it: http://www.megaupload.com/?d=D94FH8GZ

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  • Unit testing class in a web service in .net

    - by Dan Bailiff
    After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

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  • R: Plotting a graph with different colors of points based on advanced criteria

    - by balconydoor
    What I would like to do is a plot (using ggplot), where the x axis represent years which have a different colour for the last three years in the plot than the rest. The last three years should also meet a certain criteria and based on this the last three years can either be red or green. The criteria is that the mean of the last three years should be less (making it green) or more (making it red) than the 66%-percentile of the remaining years. So far I have made two different functions calculating the last three year mean: LYM3 <- function (x) { LYM3 <- tail(x,3) mean(LYM3$Data,na.rm=T) } And the 66%-percentile for the remaining: perc66 <- function(x) { percentile <- head(x,-3) quantile(percentile$Data, .66, names=F,na.rm=T) } Here are two sets of data that can be used in the calculations (plots), the first which is an example from my real data where LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1) and the second is just made up data where LYM3 perc66. df1<- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(347261.87, 145071.29, 110181.93, 183016.71, 210995.67, 205207.33, 103291.78, 247182.10, 152894.45, 170771.50, 206534.55, 287770.86, 223832.43, 297542.86, 267343.54, 475485.47, 224575.08, 147607.81, 171732.38, 126818.10, 165801.08, 136921.58, 136947.63, 83428.05, 144295.87, 68566.23, 59943.05, 49909.08, 52149.11, 117627.75, 132127.79, 130463.80)) df2 <- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(sample(50,29,replace=T),75,75,75)) Here’s my code for my plot so far: plot <- ggplot(df1, aes(x=Year, y=Data)) + theme_bw() + geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<2008, "black",ifelse(LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1),"green","red")))) + geom_line() + scale_x_continuous(breaks=c(1980,1985,1990,1995,2000,2005,2010), limits=c(1978,2011)) plot As you notice it doesn’t really do what I want it to do. The only thing it does seem to do is that it turns the years before 2008 into one level and those after into another one and base the point colour off these two levels. Since I don’t want this year to be stationary either, I made another tiny function: fun3 <- function(x) { df <- subset(x, Year==(max(Year)-2)) df$Year } So the previous code would have the same effect as: geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<fun3(df1), "black","red"))) But it still does not care about my colours. Why does it make the years into levels? And how come an ifelse function doesn’t work within another one in this case? How would it be possible to the arguments to do what I like? I realise this might be a bit messy, asking for a lot at the same time, but I hope my description is pretty clear. It would be helpful if someone could at least point me in the right direction. I tried to put the code for the plot into a function as well so I wouldn’t have to change the data frame at all functions within the plot, but I can’t get it to work. Thank you!

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  • OpenGL ES Polygon with Normals rendering (Note the 'ES!')

    - by MarqueIV
    Ok... imagine I have a relatively simple solid that has six distinct normals but actually has close to 48 faces (8 faces per direction) and there are a LOT of shared vertices between faces. What's the most efficient way to render that in OpenGL? I know I can place the vertices in an array, then use an index array to render them, but I have to keep breaking my rendering steps down to change the normals (i.e. set normal 1... render 8 faces... set normal 2... render 8 faces, etc.) Because of that I have to maintain an array of index arrays... one for each normal! Not good! The other way I can do it is to use separate normal and vertex arrays (or even interleave them) but that means I need to have a one-to-one ratio for normals to vertices and that means the normals would be duplicated 8 times more than they need to be! On something with a spherical or even curved surface, every normal most likely is different, but for this, it really seems like a waste of memory. In a perfect world I'd like to have my vertex and normal arrays have different lengths, then when I go to draw my triangles or quads To specify the index to each array for that vertex. Now the OBJ file format lets you specify exactly that... a vertex array and a normal array of different lengths, then when you specify the face you are rendering, you specify a vertex and a normal index (as well as a UV coord if you are using textures too) which seems like the perfect solution! 48 vertices but only 8 normals, then pairs of indexes defining the shapes' faces. But I'm not sure how to render that in OpenGL ES (again, note the 'ES'.) Currently I have to 'denormalize' (sorry for the SQL pun there) the normals back to a 1-to-1 with the vertex array, then render. Just wastes memory to me. Anyone help? I hope I'm missing something very simple here. Mark

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  • How can I fix this touch event / draw loop "deadlock"?

    - by Josh
    Just want to start out by saying this seems like a great site, hope you guys can help! I'm trying to use the structure laid out in LunarLander to create a simple game in which the user can drag some bitmaps around on the screen (the actual game is more complex, but that's not important). I ripped out the irrelevant parts of LanderLander, and set up my own bitmap drawing, something like BoardThread (an inner class of BoardView): run() { while(mRun) { canvas = lockSurfaceHolder... syncronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* drawStuff using member position fields in BoardView */ } unlockSurfaceHolder } } My drawStuff simply walks through some arrays and throws bitmaps onto the canvas. All that works fine. Then I wanted to start handling touch events so that when the user presses a bitmap, it is selected, when the user unpresses a bitmap, it is deselected, and if a bitmap is selected during a touch move event, the bitmap is dragged. I did this stuff by listening for touch events in the BoardView's parent, BoardActivity, and passing them down into the BoardView. Something like In BoardView handleTouchEvent(MotionEvent e) { synchronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* Modify shared member fields in BoardView so BoardThread can render the bitmaps */ } } This ALSO works fine. I can drag my tiles around the screen no problem. However, every once in a while, when the app first starts up and I trigger my first touch event, the handleTouchEvent stops executing at the synchronized line (as viewed in DDMS). The drawing loop is active during this time (I can tell because a timer changes onscreen), and it usually takes several seconds or more before a bunch of touch events come through the pipeline and everything is fine again. This doesn't seem like deadlock to me, since the draw loop is constantly going in and out of its syncronized block. Shouldn't this allow the event handling thread to grab a lock on mSurfaceHolder? What's going on here? Anyone have suggestions for improving how I've structured this? Some other info. This "hang" only ever occurs on first touch event after activity start. This includes on orientation change after restoreState has been called. Also, I can remove EVERYTHING within the syncronized block in the event handler, and it will still get hung up at the syncronized call. Thanks!

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  • Remove specific definitions from a variable in PHP

    - by Amit
    Hi everyone, I have a PHP mail script that validates name, email address, and phone number before sending the mail. This then means that the Name, Email address, and Phone fields are Required Fields. I want to have it so that the Name and EITHER Email or Phone are required. Such that if a name and phone are inputted, it sends the mail, or if a name and an email are inputted, it also sends the email. The way the script works right now is it has several IF statements that check for (1) name, (2) email and (3) phone. Here's an example of an if statement of the code: if ( ($email == "") ) { $errors .= $emailError; // no email address entered $email_error = true; } if ( !(preg_match($match,$email)) ) { $errors .= $invalidEmailError; // checks validity of email $email_error = true; } And here's how it sends the mail: if ( !($errors) ) { mail ($to, $subject, $message, $headers); echo "<p id='correct'>"; echo "?????? ????? ??????!"; echo "</p>"; } else { if (($email_error == true)) { $errors != $phoneError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } if (($phone_error == true)) { $errors != $emailError; $errors != $invalidEmailError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>"; } This doesn't work though. Basically this is what I want to do: If no email address was entered or if it was entered incorrectly, set a variable called $email_error to be true. Then check for that variable, and if it's true, then remove the $phoneError part of the $errors variable. Man I hope I'm making some sense here. Does anyone know why this doesn't work? It reports all errors if all fields are left empty :( Thanks! Amit

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  • Web Services, Memory Leaks and CRM

    - by Neil
    Hi, I have a website that allows users to upload a csv file. This calls a service that reads the information from the csv, puts it into DynamicEntity objects and calls the CRM service to Create/Update entities in CRM. When this service creates/updates an entity this kicks off other plugins to apply certain business rules. These rules can also Create or Update entites in CRM. The issue here is that the handle count of the w3wp.exe process that the website is calling increases every time the an entity is created or updated and it never comes back down. I tried putting Garbage Collection code in the business rules and this reduces the handle count of the CRM w3wp process (run by the Network Service), but not the other w3wp process. Should I have Dispose methods on the Web Service that calls the CRM service? I hope that makes sense. I'm not overly familiar with memory management issues so any help is appreciated. Can anybody give me some tips on how to stop this from occurring? Thanks, Neil -- EDIT Okay well the handle count goes up when I call the Service.Create(DynamicEntity) method. I don't think placing any code here would be beneficial. When I exit the method/class/service that contains this call the handle count stays as it is. What I need to know is whether this is something I should be managing or is it something CRM takes care of (or doesn't take care of but I can't do anything about it) -- Another Edit Right this is how it works. 1) We have CRM and its related services 2) We have another service independent of CRM that uses the CRM services (number 1 above) to create entities based on csv info passed into it 3) We have a website that allows a user to upload a csv, and calls service no 2 above to Create/Update entities in CRM 4) We have plugins fired by CRM which use Service 1 above to create/update entities So the user uploads a csv to the website (3), this fires a service(2). When service 2 creates an entity using service 1, Service 4 fires. Service 4 calls also uses service 1 to Create entities, and when these services are called (using the Service.Create() method) the handle count of the process increases. When the method/class/services finish the handle count remains the same, and so when the whole process occurs again the handle count will increased again.

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