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• Integrated Windows authentication in IIS causing ADO.NET failure

  - by TrueWill

  We have a .NET 3.5 Web Service running under IIS. It must use identity impersonate="true" and Integrated Windows authentication in order to authenticate to third-party software. In addition, it connects to a SQL Server database using ADO.NET and SQL Server Authentication (specifying a fixed User ID and Password in the connection string). Everything worked fine until the database was moved to another SQL Server. Then the Web Service would throw the following exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) This error only occurs if identity impersonate is true in the Web.config. Again, the connection string hasn't changed and it specifies the user. I have tested the connection string and it works, both under the impersonated account and under the service account (and from both the remote machine and the server). What needs to be changed to get this to work with impersonation?

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• Jquery tabs with cookie support restore wrong tab position after page refresh.

  - by zenonych

  Hello, all. I have tricky problem which I can't completely understand... It's jquery tabs with cookie support. I've following code: $(document).ready(function() { var $tabs = $("#tabs").tabs(); $tabs.tabs('select', $.cookie("tabNumber")); $('#tabs ul li a').click(function() { $.cookie("tabNumber", $tabs.tabs('option', 'selected')); }); $('#btnSelect').click(function() { //alert($.cookie("tabNumber")); //$tabs.tabs('select', 2); $tabs.tabs('select', $.cookie("tabNumber")); }); }); So, I've 3 tabs (with positions 0,1,2) inside div named "tabs". When user selects one tab, then tab position stores in cookie. After that if user refresh page, active tab position must be restored. But each time I refresh page I get active tab in previous position (if I select 2nd tab, then after refresh I got active tab in position 1, etc.). I add some test in code (button btnSelect with onclick handler which duplicates load position functionality). So, if I uncomment and use $tabs.tabs('select', 2); Then after I click btnSelect I've got right position. Ok, that's right. Then I comment that line and uncomment next one: alert($.cookie("tabNumber")); So, I select tab, click button, get dialog message "2", and after that tab in position 1 became active. Why?? In both cases I call 'select' method with parameter 2... I know I can use aliases for tabs, but I want to understate why my code doesn't work properly.

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• Textmate, open file at Caret

  - by amjags

  I bet this is really obvious but I can't find how to open the linked file that the Caret is currently on in Textmate. For example in the likes of Dreamweaver you can click in the index.html portion of <a href"index.html" hit cmd-D and it opens this file in a new tab. Is this possible? Would also be good to do this with <img src="image.jpg" to open the file directly into Photoshop. Solved! Solution for Patrick below. I used a modified version of Daustin777's example above to create a Command called OpenatCaret. The command is: open "$TM_PROJECT_DIRECTORY"/"$TM_SELECTED_TEXT" I then extended this by installing a macro which allowed you to select a path between double quotes but not including the quotes. I got this from the macromates board here. http://lists.macromates.com/textmate/2009-June/028965.html To wrap them both together I put my cursor in a path and recorded a new macro where I run the "Select within double quotes" macro and then the OpenatCaret command. I then named this OpenProjectFileAtCaret and bound this macro to cmd-D. Works a treat and is used all the time. Just make sure you have the correct default apps setup for each file type you are opening eg. Textmate for php, asp, html and it will open them in a new tab.

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• Why do R objects not print in a function or a "for" loop?

  - by Sal Leggio

  I have an R matrix named ddd. When I enter this, everything works fine: i <- 1 shapiro.test(ddd[,y]) ad.test(ddd[,y]) stem(ddd[,y]) print(y) The calls to Shapiro Wilk, Anderson Darling, and stem all work, and extract the same column. If I put this code in a "for" loop, the calls to Shapiro Wilk, and Anderson Darling stop working, while the the stem & leaf call and the print call continue to work. for (y in 7:10) { shapiro.test(ddd[,y]) ad.test(ddd[,y]) stem(ddd[,y]) print(y) } The decimal point is 1 digit(s) to the right of the | 0 | 0 0 | 899999 1 | 0 [1] 7 The same thing happens if I try and write a function. SW & AD do not work. The other calls do. > D <- function (y) { + shapiro.test(ddd[,y]) + ad.test(ddd[,y]) + stem(ddd[,y]) + print(y) } > D(9) The decimal point is at the | 9 | 000 9 | 10 | 00000 [1] 9 Why don't all the calls behave the same way?

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• jQuery.data() works in Mac OS WebKit, but not on iPhone OS?

  - by rpj

  I'm playing around with jQTouch for an iPhone OS app that I've been toying with off and on for a while. I wanted to try my hand building it as a web app so I started playing with jQTouch. For reference, here is the page+source (all my code is currently in index.html so you can just "View Source" to see it all): http://rpj.me/doughapp.com/wd/ Essentially, I'm trying to save pertinent JSON objects retrieved from Google Local into DOM objects using the data() method (in this example, obj is the Google Local object): $('#locPane').data('selected', obj); then later (in a different "pane"), retrieving that object to be used: $('#locPane').bind('pageAnimationEnd', function(e, inf) { var selobj = $(this).data('selected'); // use 'selobj' here ... } In Chromium and Safari on the desktop OS (Snow Leopard in my case), this works perfectly (try it out). However, the same code returns undefined for the call to $(this).data('selected') in the second snippet above. I've also tried $('#' + e.target.id).data('selected') and even the naive $('#locPane').data('selected'). All variants return undefined in the iPhone OS version of WebKit, but not on the desktop. Interestingly, the running this on Mobile Safari in the iPhone Simulator fails as well. If you look at the full source, you'll see that I even try to save this object into my global jQTouch object (named jqt in my code). This, too, fails on the mobile platform. Has anyone else ever ran into this? I'll admit to not being a web/javascript programmer by trade, so if I'm making an idiot's error please call me out on it. Thank you in advance for the help! -RPJ Update: I didn't make it clear in the original post, but I'm open to any workaround if it works consistently. Since I'm having trouble storing these objects in general, anything that allows me to keep them around is good enough for now. Thanks!

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• What's the best technique to protect my framework from visitors who are not logged in?

  - by Hermet

  First of all, I would like to say that I have used the search box looking for a similar question and was unsuccessful, maybe because of my poor english skills. I have a a 'homemade' framework. I have certain PHP files that must only be visible for the admin. The way I currently do this is check within every single page to see if a session has been opened. If not, the user gets redirected to a 404 page, to seem like the file which has been requested doesn't exist. I really don't know if this is guaranteed to work or if there's a better and more safe way because I'm currently working with kind of confidential data that should never become public. Could you give me some tips? Or leave a link where I could find some? Thank you very much, and again excuse me for kicking the dictionary. EDIT What I usually write in the top of each file is something like this <?php include("sesion.php"); $rs=comprueba(); //'check' if ($rs==1) { ?> And then, at the end <?php } ?> Is it such a butched job, isn't it? EDIT Let's say I have a customers list in a file named customers.php That file may be currently on http://www.mydomain.com/admin/customers.php and it must only be visible for the admin user. Once the admin user has been logged in, I create a session variable. That variable is what I check on the top of each page, and if it exists, the customers list is shown. If not, the user gets redirected to the 404 page. Thank you for your patience. I really appreciate.

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• GET and POST on the same page?

  - by Phil

  I am creating a commenting script and I came across a problem. I am having to use $_POST and $_GET on the same page, which I don't think makes sense. I am very new to php and am training myself. I have a page named viewVerses.php - this has a lists of verses. When someone follows the reply link, echo '<br /><a href="reply.php?verseid='.$verseid.'">Reply</a>'; I'm passing the verseid (commenting on bible verses) into the reply.php, so that a query may be made with that verseid. (This is so that the user can still see the verse he/she is commenting on). Now reply.php has the form in it for posting a reply. The form goes to postReply.php This is in postReply.php $title = $_POST['title']; $body = $_POST['body']; $verseid = $_GET[verseid]; Can I get the verseid from the url and the POST the values from the form in the same page? If not, is there a way I can do this better? Remember, I am new at php and probably won't implement a solution that is super hard. I have to get it for my to put it in my site. I hope this is clear

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• Just for fun (C# and C++)...time yourself [closed]

  - by Ted

  Possible Duplicate: What is your solution to the FizzBuzz problem? OK guys this is just for fun, no flamming allowed ! I was reading the following http://www.codinghorror.com/blog/2007/02/why-cant-programmers-program.html and couldn't believe the following sentence... " I've also seen self-proclaimed senior programmers take more than 10-15 minutes to write a solution." For those that can't be bothered to read the article, the background is this: ....I set out to develop questions that can identify this kind of developer and came up with a class of questions I call "FizzBuzz Questions" named after a game children often play (or are made to play) in schools in the UK. An example of a Fizz-Buzz question is the following: Write a program that prints the numbers from 1 to 100. But for multiples of three print "Fizz" instead of the number and for the multiples of five print "Buzz". For numbers which are multiples of both three and five print "FizzBuzz". SO I decided to test myself. I took 5 minutes in C++ and 3mins in c#! So just for fun try it and post your timings + language used! P.S NO UNIT TESTS REQUIRED, NO OUTSOURCING ALLOWED, SWITCH OFF RESHARPER! :-) P.S. If you'd like to post your source then feel free

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• SQL trigger to delete rows from database

  - by wpearse

  I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

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• FluentNHibernate: Not.Nullable() doesn't affect output schema

  - by alex

  Hello I'm using fluent nhibernate v. 1.0.0.595. There is a class: public class Weight { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual double Value { get; set; } } I want to map it on the following table: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Weight DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) Here is the map: public class WeightMap : ClassMap<Weight> { public WeightMap() { Table("[Weight]"); Id(x => x.Id, "WeightId"); Map(x => x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable(); } } The problem is that this mapping produces table with nullable Weight column: Weight DOUBLE null Not-nullable column is generated only with default convention for column name (i.e. Map(x = x.Value).Not.Nullable() instead of Map(x = x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable()), but in this case there will be Value column instead of Weight: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Value DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) I found similiar problem here: http://code.google.com/p/fluent-nhibernate/issues/detail?id=121, but seems like mentioned workaround with SetAttributeOnColumnElement("not-null", "true") is outdated. Does anybody encountered with this problem? Is there a way to specify named column as not-nullable?

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• C# "Rename" Property in Derived Class

  - by Eric

  When you read this you'll be awfully tempted to give advice like "this is a bad idea for the following reason..." Bear with me. I know there are other ways to approach this. This question should be considered trivia. Lets say you have a class "Transaction" that has properties common to all transactions such as Invoice, Purchase Order, and Sales Receipt. Let's take the simple example of Transaction "Amount", which is the most important monetary amount for a given transaction. public class Transaction { public double Amount { get; set; } public TxnTypeEnum TransactionType { get; set; } } This Amount may have a more specific name in a derived type... at least in the real world. For example, the following values are all actually the same thing: Transaction - Amount Invoice - Subtotal PurchaseOrder - Total Sales Receipt - Amount So now I want a derived class "Invoice" that has a Subtotal rather than the generically-named Amount. Ideally both of the following would be true: In an instance of Transaction, the Amount property would be visible. In an instance of Invoice, the Amount property would be hidden, but the Subtotal property would refer to it internally. Invoice looks like this: public class Invoice : Transaction { new private double? Amount { get { return base.Amount; } set { base.Amount = value; } } // This property should hide the generic property "Amount" on Transaction public double? SubTotal { get { return Amount; } set { Amount = value; } } public double RemainingBalance { get; set; } } But of course Transaction.Amount is still visible on any instance of Invoice. Thanks for taking a look!

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• Why is this Javascript that writes out a Google Ad not displaying properly on the iPhone?

  - by Dave M G

  I have this Javacsript code that checks to see if there is a DIV named "google-ad", and if there is, it writes in a the necessary code to display the Google Ad. This works great in browsers like Firefox, Chrome, Safari on Mac, and Android. However, when I bundle this code with Adobe's Phonegap Build, and deploy it to iPhones, it behaves strangely. It launches a browser window displaying just the Google Ad alone. In order to keep using my app, every time I change a page and a new Google Ad is loaded, I have to close the browser window to get back to the app. Why is this code launching browser windows outside of my Phonegap app on iPhone? if(document.getElementById("google-ad") && document.getElementById("google-ad") !== null && document.getElementById("google-ad") !== "undefined") { if(userStatus.status == 0) { document.getElementById("centre").style.padding = "137px 0 12px 0"; document.getElementById("header-container").style.margin = "-138px 0 0 0"; document.getElementById("header-container").style.height = "132px"; document.getElementById("header-username").style.top = "52px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.height = "50px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.width = "320px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.backgroundColor = "#f0ebff"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.display = "block"; window["google_ad_client"] = 'ca-pub-0000000000000000'; window["google_ad_slot"] = "00000000"; window["google_ad_width"] = 320; window["google_ad_height"] = 50; window.adcontainer = document.getElementById('google-ad'); window.adhtml = ''; function mywrite(html) { adhtml += html; adcontainer.innerHTML = adhtml; }; document.write_ = document.write; document.write = mywrite; script = document.createElement('script'); script.src='http://pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/show_ads.js'; script.type='text/javascript'; document.body.appendChild(script); }

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• Sql Server 2005 multiple insert with c#

  - by bottlenecked

  Hello. I have a class named Entry declared like this: class Entry{ string Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} } and then a method that will accept multiple such Entry objects for insertion into the database using ADO.NET: static void InsertEntries(IEnumerable<Entry> entries){ //build a SqlCommand object using(SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()){ ... const string refcmdText = "INSERT INTO Entries (id, name) VALUES (@id{0},@name{0});"; int count = 0; string query = string.Empty; //build a large query foreach(var entry in entries){ query += string.Format(refcmdText, count); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(string.Format("@id{0}",count), entry.Id); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(string.Format("@name{0}",count), entry.Name); count++; } cmd.CommandText=query; //and then execute the command ... } } And my question is this: should I keep using the above way of sending multiple insert statements (build a giant string of insert statements and their parameters and send it over the network), or should I keep an open connection and send a single insert statement for each Entry like this: using(SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(){ using(SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(){ //assign connection string and open connection ... cmd.Connection = conn; foreach(var entry in entries){ cmd.CommandText= "INSERT INTO Entries (id, name) VALUES (@id,@name);"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@id", entry.Id); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@name", entry.Name); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } } What do you think? Will there be a performance difference in the Sql Server between the two? Are there any other consequences I should be aware of? Thank you for your time!

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• Magento layout related basic Questions ?

  - by user197992

  Here is what I think about Magento (plz correct me if I am wrong ) 1)Each module has its own layout.xml stored in /interface/theme/layouts/ folder. 2)Magento loads all these layouts for current theme and creates a big xml file. Now what I am confused at . a)If magento loads /default/default/ (interface & theme) then why all the templates & layouts are inside base/default/ ?? b)what if I create my module name “page” inside my namespace “Jason” i.e Jason_Page , now what will happen to blocks in layout files which are named c)Since all the layouts are loaded and merged into one big xml file , then what happen to all those reference blocks which have same name attribute and are inside “Default” handle tag ? e.g d)what is Local.xml layout for and its use ?? e)wats the relation ship between a module name foo , and its layout name foo.xml ? What will happen to layout.xml if two modules with same name exist in diff namespace ? Thanks in advance .

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• Converting string to a simple type

  - by zespri

  .Net framework contains a great class named Convert that allows conversion between simple types, DateTime type and String type. Also the class support conversion of the types implementing IConvertible interface. The class has been implemented in the very first version of .Net framework. There were a few things in the first .Net framework that were not done quite right. For example .Parse methods on simple types would throw an exception if the string couldn't be parsed and there would be no way to check if exception is going to be thrown in advance. A future version of .Net Framework removed this deficiency by introducing the TryParse method that resolved this problem. The Convert class dates back to time of the old Parse method, so the ChangeType method on this class in implemented old style - if conversion can't be performed an exception is thrown. Take a look at the following code: public static T ConvertString<T>(string s, T @default) { try { return (T)Convert.ChangeType(s, typeof(T), CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); } catch (Exception) { return @default; } } This code basically does what I want. However I would pretty much like to avoid the ugly try/catch here. I'm sure, that similar to TryParse, there is a modern method of rewriting this code without the catch-all. Could you suggest one?

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• Hibernate NamingStrategy implementation that maintains state between calls

  - by Robert Petermeier

  Hi, I'm working on a project where we use Hibernate and JBoss 5.1. We need our entity classes to be mapped to Oracle tables that follow a certain naming convention. I'd like to avoid having to specify each table and column name in annotations. Therefore, I'm currently considering implementing a custom implementation of org.hibernate.cfg.NamingStrategy. The SQL naming conventions require the name of columns to have a suffix that is equivalent to a prefix of the table name. If there is a table "T100_RESOURCE", the ID column would have to be named "RES_ID_T100". In order to implement this in a NamingStrategy, the implementation would have to maintain state, i.e. the current class name it is creating the mappings for. It would rely on Hibernate to always call classToTableName() before propertyToColumnName() and to determine all column names by calling propertyToColumnName() before the next call to classToTableName() Is it safe to do that or are there situations where Hibernate will mix things up? I am not thinking of problems through multiple threads here (which can be solved by keeping the last class name in a ThreadLocal) but also of Hibernate deliberately calling this out of order in certain circumstances. For example Hibernate asking for mappings of three properties of class A, then one of class B, then again more attributes of class A.

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• Custom UITableViewCell from xib isn't displaying properly

  - by Kenny Wyland

  I've created custom UITableCells a bunch of times and I've never run into this problem, so I'm hoping you can help me find the thing I've missed or messed up. When I run my app, the cells in my table view appear to be standard cells with Default style. I have SettingsTableCell which is a subclass of UITableViewCell. I have a SettingsTableCell.xib which contains a UITableViewCell and inside that are a couple labels and a textfield. I've set the class type in the xib to be SettingsTableCell and the File's Owner of the xib to my table controller. My SettingsTableController has an IBOutlet property named tableCell. My cellForRowAtIndexPath contains the following code to load my table view xib and assign it to my table controller's tableCell property: static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"CellSettings"; SettingsTableCell *cell = (SettingsTableCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"SettingsTableCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = self.tableCell; self.tableCell = nil; NSLog(@"cell=%@", cell); } This is what my xib set up looks like in IB: When I run my app, the table displays as if all of the cells are standard Default style cells though: The seriously weird part is though... if I tap on the area of the cell where the textfield SHOULD be, the keyboard does come up! The textfield isn't visible, there's no cursor or anything like that... but it does respond. The visible UILabel is obviously not the UILabel from my xib though because the label in my xib is right justified and the one showing in the app is left justified. I'm incredibly confused about how this is happening. Any help is appreciated.

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• How to check at runtime if a class implements certain interface?

  - by mare

  Let's say I have some content classes like Page, TabGroup, Tab, etc. Certain of those will be implementing my IWidgetContainer interface - it means they will geet an additional field named ContainedItems from the interface and some methods for manipulating this field. Now I need to reflect the fact that some class implements this interface by rendering out some special custom controls in my ASP.NET MVC Views (like jQuery Add/Remove/Move/Reorder buttons). For instance, TabGroup will implement IWidgetContainer because it will contain tabs but a tab will not implement it because it won't have the ability to contain anything. So I have to somehow check in my view, when I render my content objects (The problem is, I use my base class as strong type in my view not concrete classes), whether it implements IWidgetContainer. How is that possible or have I completely missed something? To rephrase the question, how do you reflect some special properties of a class (like interface implementation) in the UI in general (not necessarily ASP.NET MVC)? Here's my code so far: [DataContract] public class ContentClass { [DataMember] public string Slug; [DataMember] public string Title; [DataMember] protected ContentType Type; } [DataContract] public class Group : ContentClass, IWidgetContainer { public Group() { Type = ContentType.TabGroup; } public ContentList ContainedItems { get; set; } public void AddContent(ContentListItem toAdd) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public void RemoveContent(ContentListItem toRemove) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } [DataContract] public class GroupElement : ContentClass { public GroupElement() { Type = ContentType.Tab; } } Interface: interface IWidgetContainer { [DataMember] ContentList ContainedItems { get; set; } void AddContent(ContentListItem toAdd); void RemoveContent(ContentListItem toRemove); }

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• Recommendations for IPC between parent and child processes in .NET?

  - by Jeremy

  My .NET program needs to run an algorithm that makes heavy use of 3rd party libraries (32-bit), most of which are unmanaged code. I want to drive the CPU as hard as I can, so the code runs several threads in parallel to divide up the work. I find that running all these threads simultaneously results in temporary memory spikes, causing the process' virtual memory size to approach the 2 GB limit. This memory is released back pretty quickly, but occasionally if enough threads enter the wrong sections of code at once, the process crosses the "red line" and either the unmanaged code or the .NET code encounters an out of memory error. I can throttle back the number of threads but then my CPU usage is not as high as I would like. I am thinking of creating worker processes rather than worker threads to help avoid the out of memory errors, since doing so would give each thread of execution its own 2 GB of virtual address space (my box has lots of RAM). I am wondering what are the best/easiest methods to communicate the input and output between the processes in .NET? The file system is an obvious choice. I am used to shared memory, named pipes, and such from my UNIX background. Is there a Windows or .NET specific mechanism I should use?

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• EF in a UserControl can't see the app.config?

  - by Sven

  I just created a user control. This control also makes use of my static Entity Framework class to load two comboboxes. All is well and runs without a problem. Design and runtime are working. Then when I stop the application all the forms that contain my UserControl don't work any more in design time. I just see two errors: Error1: The specified named connection is either not found in the configuration, not intended to be used with the EntityClient provider, or not valid. Error 2: The variable ccArtikelVelden is either undeclared or was never assigned. (ccArtikelVelde is my UserControl) Runtime everything is still working My static EF Repositoy class: public class BSManagerData { private static BSManagerEntities _entities; public static BSManagerEntities Entities { get { if (_entities == null) _entities = new BSManagerEntities(); return _entities; } set { _entities = value; } } } Some logic happening in my UserControl to load the data in the comboboxes: private void LaadCbx() { cbxCategorie.DataSource = (from c in BSManagerData.Entities.Categories select c).ToList(); cbxCategorie.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxCategorie.ValueMember = "Id"; } private void cbxCategorie_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { cbxFabrikant.DataSource = from f in BSManagerData.Entities.Fabrikants where f.Categorie.Id == ((Categorie)cbxCategorie.SelectedItem).Id select f; cbxFabrikant.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxFabrikant.ValueMember = "Id"; } The only way to make my forms work again, design time, is to comment out the EF part in the UserControl (see above) and rebuild. It's very strange, everything is in the same assembly, same namespace (for the sake of simplicity). Anyone an idea?

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• Proper API Design for Version Independence?

  - by Justavian

  I've inherited an enormous .NET solution of about 200 projects. There are now some developers who wish to start adding their own components into our application, which will require that we begin exposing functionality via an API. The major problem with that, of course, is that the solution we've got on our hands contains such a spider web of dependencies that we have to be careful to avoid sabotaging the API every time there's a minor change somewhere in the app. We'd also like to be able to incrementally expose new functionality without destroying any previous third party apps. I have a way to solve this problem, but i'm not sure it's the ideal way - i was looking for other ideas. My plan would be to essentially have three dlls. APIServer_1_0.dll - this would be the dll with all of the dependencies. APIClient_1_0.dll - this would be the dll our developers would actual refer to. No references to any of the mess in our solution. APISupport_1_0.dll - this would contain the interfaces which would allow the client piece to dynamically load the "server" component and perform whatever functions are required. Both of the above dlls would depend upon this. It would be the only dll that the "client" piece refers to. I initially arrived at this design, because the way in which we do inter process communication between windows services is sort of similar (except that the client talks to the server via named pipes, rather than dynamically loading dlls). While i'm fairly certain i can make this work, i'm curious to know if there are better ways to accomplish the same task.

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• What is the best practice for including jQuery ext functions?

  - by Metropolis

  Hey everyone, Currently I have a file that I named JQuery.ext.js which I am including in all of my pages. Inside this file I have numerous functions that do things like the following, (function($) { /** * Checks to see is the value inside ele is blank * @param message string The message that needs to be displayed if the element is blank * @return bool */ $.fn.isEmpty = function(message) { var b_IsEmpty = false; //Loop through all elements this.each(function() { //Check to see if an empty value is found if($(this).val().length <= 0) { //If message is not blank if(message) { alert(message); $(this).focus().select(); } b_IsEmpty = true; return false; } return true; }); //Return false if the evaluation failed, otherwise return the jquery object so we can reuse it return (b_IsEmpty) ? true : false; }; /** * Checks to see if the value inside ele is numbers only * @param message string The message that needs to be displayed if the element is not numeric * @return bool */ $.fn.isNumeric = function(message) { var expression = /^[0-9]+$/; var b_IsNumeric = true; //Loop through elements checking each one this.each( function() { //Check to see if this value is not numeric if(!$(this).val().match(expression) && $(this).val().length > 0) { //If message is not blank if(message) { alert(message); $(this).focus().select(); } b_IsNumeric = false; } return b_IsNumeric; }); return b_IsNumeric; }; })(jQuery); Is there another way to do this? or is this the way most people do it? Thanks for any help, Metropolis

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• Two "Calendar" entries listed on iPad - can't write to calendar using EventKit

  - by Neal

  My iOS app integrates with the device's calendar. On my iPad when I view the calendar app and tap the Calendars button on the top left to choose which calendars to show I see one entry named "Calendar". In my app when I loop through available calendars per the code below "Calendar" is listed twice. One is CalDAV for the type, the other is Local. I'm unable to create calendar entries in one of them, I believe the "Local" one, not sure why. Why do I see "Calendar" listed twice when I do NOT see it listed twice in the iCal app? public static List<string> Calendars { get { var calendars = new List<string>(); var ekCalendars = EventStore.Calendars; if (ekCalendars != null && ekCalendars.Length > 0) { foreach (EKCalendar cal in ekCalendars) { if (cal.AllowsContentModifications) calendars.Add(cal.Title); } calendars.Sort(); } return calendars; } }

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• Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

  - by Mike Monkiewicz

  So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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• There is a Default instance of form in VB.Net but not in C#, WHY?

  - by Shekhar_Pro

  I'm just curious to know that there is The (Name) property, which represents the name of the Form class.This property is used within the namespace to uniquely identify the class that the Form is an instance of and, in the case of Visual Basic, is used to access the default instance of the form. Now where this Default Instance come from, why can't C# have a equivalent method to this. Also for example to show a form in C# we do something like this: //Only method Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.Show(); But in VB.Net we have both ways to do it: //'First common method (used slash because editor wouldn't format it properly) Form1.Show(); //'Second method Dim frm as New Form1(); frm.Show(); My question comes from this first method. What is this Form1, is it an instance of Form1 or the Form1 class itself. Now as i mentioned above the Form name is the Default instance in VB.Net. But we also know that Form1 is a class defined in Designer so how can the names be same for both the Instance and class name. If Form1 is Class then there is no (Static\Shared) method named Show(). So where does this method come from. And finally why C# can't have an equivalent of this. If there some mistake in my question Please let me know *I've checked this on stackoverflow, but couldn't find an answer to this.If you do find then please give a link to it.*

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