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  • How does a java compiler resolve a non-imported name

    - by gexicide
    Consider I use a type X in my java compilation unit from package foo.bar and X is not defined in the compilation unit itself nor is it directly imported. How does a java compiler resolve X now efficiently? There are a few possibilities where X could reside: X might be imported via a star import a.b.* X might reside in the same package as the compilation unit X might be a language type, i.e. reside in java.lang The problem I see is especially (2.). Since X might be a package-private type, it is not even required that X resides in a compilation unit that is named X.java. Thus, the compiler must look into all entries of the class path and search for any classes in a package foo.bar, it then must read every class that is in package foo.bar to check whether X is included. That sounds very expensive. Especially when I compile only a single file, the compiler has to read dozens of class files only to find a type X. If I use a lot of star imports, this procedure has to be repeated for a lot of types (although class files won't be read twice, of course). So is it advisable to import also types from the same package to speed up the compilation process? Or is there a faster method for resolving an unimported type X which I was not able to find?

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  • CREATE VIEW called multiple times not creating all views

    - by theninepoundhammer
    Noticing strange behavior in SQL 2005, both Express and Enterprise Edition: In my code I need to loop through a series of values (about five in a row), and for each value, I need to insert the value into a table and dynamically create a new view using that value as part of the where clause and the name of the view. The code runs pretty quickly, but what I'm noticing is that all the values are inserted into the table correctly but only the LAST view is being created. Every time. For example, if the values I'm using are X1, X2, X3, X4, and X5, I'll run the process, open up Mgmt Studio, and see five rows in the table with the correct five values, but only one view named MyView_x5 that has the correct WHERE clause. At first, I had this loop in an SSIS package as part of a larger data flow. When I started noticing this behavior, I created a stored proc that would create the CREATE VIEW statement dynamically after the insert and called EXECUTE to create the view. Same result. Finally, I created some C# code using the Enterprise Library DAAB, and did the insert and CREATE VIEW statements from my DLL. Same result every time. Most recently, I turned on Profiler while running against the Enterprise Edition and was able to verify that the Batch Started and Batch Completed events were being fired off for each instance of the view. However, like I said, only the last view is actually being created. Does anyone have any idea why this might be happening? Or any suggestions about what else to check or profile? I've profiled for error messages, exceptions, etc. but don't see any in my trace file. My express edition is 9.00.1399.06. Not sure about the Enterprise edition but think it is SP2.

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  • Converting string to a simple type

    - by zespri
    .Net framework contains a great class named Convert that allows conversion between simple types, DateTime type and String type. Also the class support conversion of the types implementing IConvertible interface. The class has been implemented in the very first version of .Net framework. There were a few things in the first .Net framework that were not done quite right. For example .Parse methods on simple types would throw an exception if the string couldn't be parsed and there would be no way to check if exception is going to be thrown in advance. A future version of .Net Framework removed this deficiency by introducing the TryParse method that resolved this problem. The Convert class dates back to time of the old Parse method, so the ChangeType method on this class in implemented old style - if conversion can't be performed an exception is thrown. Take a look at the following code: public static T ConvertString<T>(string s, T @default) { try { return (T)Convert.ChangeType(s, typeof(T), CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); } catch (Exception) { return @default; } } This code basically does what I want. However I would pretty much like to avoid the ugly try/catch here. I'm sure, that similar to TryParse, there is a modern method of rewriting this code without the catch-all. Could you suggest one?

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  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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  • Updating a Database from DataBound Controls

    - by Avatar_Squadron
    Hi. I'm currently creating a WinForm in VB.NET bound to an access database. Basically what i have are two forms: one is a search form used to search the database, and the other is a details form. You run a search on the searchForm and it returns a list of Primary Keys and a few other identifying values. You then double click on the entry you want to view, and it loads the details form. The Details form has a collection of databound controls to display the data: mostly text boxes and checkboxs. The way i've set it up is i used the UI to build the form and then set the DataBindings Property of each control to "TblPropertiesBindingSource - " where value name is one of the values in the table (such as PropertyID or HasWoodFloor). Then, when you double click an entry in the searchform, I handle the event by parsing the Primary Key (PropertyID) out of the selected row and then storing this to the details form: Note: Detail is the details form that is opened to display the info Private Sub propView_CellDoubleClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles propView.CellDoubleClick Dim detail As frmPropertiesDetail = New frmPropertiesDetail detail.id = propView.Rows(e.RowIndex).Cells(0).Value detail.Show() End Sub Then, upon loading the details form, it set's the filter on the BindSource as such: TblPropertiesBindingSource.Filter() = "PropertyID=" & id This works great so far. All the controls on the details form will display the correct info. The problem is updating changes. Scenario: If i have the user load the details for say, property 10001, it will show a description in a textBox named descriptionBox which is identical to the value of the description value of for that entry in the database. I want the user to then be able to change the text of the text box (which they can currently do) and click the save button (saveBut) and have the form update all the values in the controls to the database. Theorectically, it should do this as the controls are DataBound, thus i can avoid writing code that tells each entry in the database row to take the value of the aligned control. I've tried calleding PropertiesTableAdapter.Update(PropertiesBindingSource.DataSource), but that doesnt seem to do it.

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  • Jquery tabs with cookie support restore wrong tab position after page refresh.

    - by zenonych
    Hello, all. I have tricky problem which I can't completely understand... It's jquery tabs with cookie support. I've following code: $(document).ready(function() { var $tabs = $("#tabs").tabs(); $tabs.tabs('select', $.cookie("tabNumber")); $('#tabs ul li a').click(function() { $.cookie("tabNumber", $tabs.tabs('option', 'selected')); }); $('#btnSelect').click(function() { //alert($.cookie("tabNumber")); //$tabs.tabs('select', 2); $tabs.tabs('select', $.cookie("tabNumber")); }); }); So, I've 3 tabs (with positions 0,1,2) inside div named "tabs". When user selects one tab, then tab position stores in cookie. After that if user refresh page, active tab position must be restored. But each time I refresh page I get active tab in previous position (if I select 2nd tab, then after refresh I got active tab in position 1, etc.). I add some test in code (button btnSelect with onclick handler which duplicates load position functionality). So, if I uncomment and use $tabs.tabs('select', 2); Then after I click btnSelect I've got right position. Ok, that's right. Then I comment that line and uncomment next one: alert($.cookie("tabNumber")); So, I select tab, click button, get dialog message "2", and after that tab in position 1 became active. Why?? In both cases I call 'select' method with parameter 2... I know I can use aliases for tabs, but I want to understate why my code doesn't work properly.

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  • Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

    - by ropstah
    I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

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  • Reading HTML header info of files via JS

    - by Morten Repsdorph Husfeldt
    I have a product list that is generated in ASP. I have product descriptions for each product in an HTML file. Each HTML file is named: <product.id>.html. Each HTML file size is only 1-3 kb. Within the HTML file is <title> and <meta name="description" content="..." />. I want to access these in an efficient way so that I can output this as e.g.: document.write(<product.id>.html.title);<br/> document.write(<product.id>.html.description); I have a working solution for the individual products, where I use the description file - but I hope to find a more efficient / simple approach. Preferably, I want to avoid having 30+ hidden iframes - Google might think that I am trying to tamper with search result and blacklist my page. Current code: <script type="text/javascript"> document.getElementById('produkt').onload = function(){ var d = window.frames[frame].document; document.getElementById('pfoto').title = d.title : ' '; document.getElementById('pfoto').alt = d.getElementsByName('description')[0].getAttribute('content', 0) : ' '; var keywords = d.getElementsByName('keywords')[0].getAttribute('content', 0) : ' '; }; </script>

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  • jQuery.data() works in Mac OS WebKit, but not on iPhone OS?

    - by rpj
    I'm playing around with jQTouch for an iPhone OS app that I've been toying with off and on for a while. I wanted to try my hand building it as a web app so I started playing with jQTouch. For reference, here is the page+source (all my code is currently in index.html so you can just "View Source" to see it all): http://rpj.me/doughapp.com/wd/ Essentially, I'm trying to save pertinent JSON objects retrieved from Google Local into DOM objects using the data() method (in this example, obj is the Google Local object): $('#locPane').data('selected', obj); then later (in a different "pane"), retrieving that object to be used: $('#locPane').bind('pageAnimationEnd', function(e, inf) { var selobj = $(this).data('selected'); // use 'selobj' here ... } In Chromium and Safari on the desktop OS (Snow Leopard in my case), this works perfectly (try it out). However, the same code returns undefined for the call to $(this).data('selected') in the second snippet above. I've also tried $('#' + e.target.id).data('selected') and even the naive $('#locPane').data('selected'). All variants return undefined in the iPhone OS version of WebKit, but not on the desktop. Interestingly, the running this on Mobile Safari in the iPhone Simulator fails as well. If you look at the full source, you'll see that I even try to save this object into my global jQTouch object (named jqt in my code). This, too, fails on the mobile platform. Has anyone else ever ran into this? I'll admit to not being a web/javascript programmer by trade, so if I'm making an idiot's error please call me out on it. Thank you in advance for the help! -RPJ Update: I didn't make it clear in the original post, but I'm open to any workaround if it works consistently. Since I'm having trouble storing these objects in general, anything that allows me to keep them around is good enough for now. Thanks!

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  • What is the best practice for including jQuery ext functions?

    - by Metropolis
    Hey everyone, Currently I have a file that I named JQuery.ext.js which I am including in all of my pages. Inside this file I have numerous functions that do things like the following, (function($) { /** * Checks to see is the value inside ele is blank * @param message string The message that needs to be displayed if the element is blank * @return bool */ $.fn.isEmpty = function(message) { var b_IsEmpty = false; //Loop through all elements this.each(function() { //Check to see if an empty value is found if($(this).val().length <= 0) { //If message is not blank if(message) { alert(message); $(this).focus().select(); } b_IsEmpty = true; return false; } return true; }); //Return false if the evaluation failed, otherwise return the jquery object so we can reuse it return (b_IsEmpty) ? true : false; }; /** * Checks to see if the value inside ele is numbers only * @param message string The message that needs to be displayed if the element is not numeric * @return bool */ $.fn.isNumeric = function(message) { var expression = /^[0-9]+$/; var b_IsNumeric = true; //Loop through elements checking each one this.each( function() { //Check to see if this value is not numeric if(!$(this).val().match(expression) && $(this).val().length > 0) { //If message is not blank if(message) { alert(message); $(this).focus().select(); } b_IsNumeric = false; } return b_IsNumeric; }); return b_IsNumeric; }; })(jQuery); Is there another way to do this? or is this the way most people do it? Thanks for any help, Metropolis

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  • Hibernate NamingStrategy implementation that maintains state between calls

    - by Robert Petermeier
    Hi, I'm working on a project where we use Hibernate and JBoss 5.1. We need our entity classes to be mapped to Oracle tables that follow a certain naming convention. I'd like to avoid having to specify each table and column name in annotations. Therefore, I'm currently considering implementing a custom implementation of org.hibernate.cfg.NamingStrategy. The SQL naming conventions require the name of columns to have a suffix that is equivalent to a prefix of the table name. If there is a table "T100_RESOURCE", the ID column would have to be named "RES_ID_T100". In order to implement this in a NamingStrategy, the implementation would have to maintain state, i.e. the current class name it is creating the mappings for. It would rely on Hibernate to always call classToTableName() before propertyToColumnName() and to determine all column names by calling propertyToColumnName() before the next call to classToTableName() Is it safe to do that or are there situations where Hibernate will mix things up? I am not thinking of problems through multiple threads here (which can be solved by keeping the last class name in a ThreadLocal) but also of Hibernate deliberately calling this out of order in certain circumstances. For example Hibernate asking for mappings of three properties of class A, then one of class B, then again more attributes of class A.

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  • Timestamps and Intervals: NUMTOYMINTERVAL SYSTDATE CALCULATION SQL QUERY

    - by MeachamRob
    I am working on a homework problem, I'm close but need some help with a data conversion I think. Or sysdate - start_date calculation The question is: Using the EX schema, write a SELECT statement that retrieves the date_id and start_date from the Date_Sample table (format below), followed by a column named Years_and_Months_Since_Start that uses an interval function to retrieve the number of years and months that have elapsed between the start_date and the sysdate. (Your values will vary based on the date you do this lab.) Display only the records with start dates having the month and day equal to Feb 28 (of any year). DATE_ID START_DATE YEARS_AND_MONTHS_SINCE_START 2 Sunday , February 28, 1999 13-8 4 Monday , February 28, 2005 7-8 5 Tuesday , February 28, 2006 6-8 Our EX schema that refers to this question is simply a Date_Sample Table with two columns: DATE_ID NUMBER NOT Null START_DATE DATE I Have written this code: SELECT date_id, TO_CHAR(start_date, 'Day, MONTH DD, YYYY') AS start_date , NUMTOYMINTERVAL((SYSDATE - start_date), 'YEAR') AS years_and_months_since_start FROM date_sample WHERE TO_CHAR(start_date, 'MM/DD') = '02/28'; But my Years and months since start column is not working properly. It's getting very high numbers for years and months when the date calculated is from 1999-ish. ie, it should be 13-8 and I'm getting 5027-2 so I know it's not correct. I used NUMTOYMINTERVAL, which should be correct, but don't think the sysdate-start_date is working. Data Type for start_date is simply date. I tried ROUND but maybe need some help to get it right. Something is wrong with my calculation and trying to figure out how to get the correct interval there. Not sure if I have provided enough information to everyone but I will let you know if I figure it out before you do. It's a question from Murach's Oracle and SQL/PL book, chapter 17 if anyone else is trying to learn that chapter. Page 559.

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  • MTD Expression on a single column - SSRS

    - by Eric
    I need a bit of help here. I have been unable to create an 'Month To Date' expression to a single column on SSRS. I tested the following expression from a similar question in the forum, but it gives me a squiggly line below the variable 'd' =IIF(Fields!CreateDate.Value >= DateAdd(d,-7,Today()), Sum(Fields!Sales.Value), 0) If I run it, of course I got an error telling me that 'd' is not declared. ;) I changed it to ... DateAdd("d",-7,Today()), Sum(Fields!Sales.Value) ... following the example and the squiggly goes below the brackets of "today()" and needless to say it...but still not working. I tried a Dateadd(mm..Datediff ... and still nothing. My report has the following columns: Country | CustomerName | Sales | InvNotProcessed | Open Order | Orders | TotalbyCust What I need is to show the new MTD sales only in the column named "Sales" while the other three shows the rest of the query, which should be open as some orders may take quite a while to manufacture and invoice. the last column sums the totals of all other columns. Any help will be much appreciated. Regards, Eric

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  • em.createQuery keeps returning null

    - by Developer106
    I have this application which i use JSF 2.0 and EclipseLink, i have entities created for a database made in MySQL, Created these entities using netbeans 7.1.2, it gets created automaticly. Then i use session beans to work with these entities, the thing is the em.createQuery always returns a null, though I checked NamedQueries in the entities and they perfectly match a sample from the entities named queries:- @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findAll", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u"), @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findByUserId", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u WHERE u.userId = :userId"), @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findByUsername", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u WHERE u.username = :username"), @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findByEmail", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u WHERE u.email = :email"), notice how i use this findByEmail query in the session bean :- public Users findByEmail(String email){ em.getTransaction().begin(); String find = "Users.findByEmail"; Query query = em.createNamedQuery(find); query.setParameter("email", email); Users user = (Users) query.getSingleResult(); but it always returns null from this em.createNamedQuery, i tried using .createQuery first but it also was no good. the stacktrace of the exception Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.readme.entities.sessionBeans.UsersFacade.findByEmail(UsersFacade.java:48) at com.readme.user.signup.SignupBean.checkAvailability(SignupBean.java:137) at com.readme.user.signup.SignupBean.save(SignupBean.java:146) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:57) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:601) What Seems To Be The Problem Here ?

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  • Custom UITableViewCell from xib isn't displaying properly

    - by Kenny Wyland
    I've created custom UITableCells a bunch of times and I've never run into this problem, so I'm hoping you can help me find the thing I've missed or messed up. When I run my app, the cells in my table view appear to be standard cells with Default style. I have SettingsTableCell which is a subclass of UITableViewCell. I have a SettingsTableCell.xib which contains a UITableViewCell and inside that are a couple labels and a textfield. I've set the class type in the xib to be SettingsTableCell and the File's Owner of the xib to my table controller. My SettingsTableController has an IBOutlet property named tableCell. My cellForRowAtIndexPath contains the following code to load my table view xib and assign it to my table controller's tableCell property: static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"CellSettings"; SettingsTableCell *cell = (SettingsTableCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"SettingsTableCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = self.tableCell; self.tableCell = nil; NSLog(@"cell=%@", cell); } This is what my xib set up looks like in IB: When I run my app, the table displays as if all of the cells are standard Default style cells though: The seriously weird part is though... if I tap on the area of the cell where the textfield SHOULD be, the keyboard does come up! The textfield isn't visible, there's no cursor or anything like that... but it does respond. The visible UILabel is obviously not the UILabel from my xib though because the label in my xib is right justified and the one showing in the app is left justified. I'm incredibly confused about how this is happening. Any help is appreciated.

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  • Merging ILists to bind on datagridview to avoid using a database view

    - by P.Bjorklund
    In the form we have this where IntaktsBudgetsType is a poorly named enum that only specifies wether to populate the datagridview after customer or product (You do the budgeting either after product or customer) private void UpdateGridView() { bs = new BindingSource(); bs.DataSource = intaktsbudget.GetDataSource(this.comboBoxKundID.Text, IntaktsBudgetsType.PerKund); dataGridViewIntaktPerKund.DataSource = bs; } This populates the datagridview with a database view that merge the product, budget and customer tables. The logic has the following method to get the correct set of IList from the repository which only does GetTable<T>.ToList<T> public IEnumerable<IntaktsBudgetView> GetDataSource(string id, IntaktsBudgetsType type) { IList<IntaktsBudgetView> list = repository.SelectTable<IntaktsBudgetView>(); switch (type) { case IntaktsBudgetsType.PerKund: return from i in list where i.kundId == id select i; case IntaktsBudgetsType.PerProdukt: return from i in list where i.produktId == id select i; } return null; } Now I don't want to use a database view since that is read-only and I want to be able to perform CRUD actions on the datagridview. I could build a class that acts as a wrapper for the whole thing and bind the different table values to class properties but that doesn't seem quite right since I would have to do this for every single thing that requires "the merge". Something pretty important (and probably basic) is missing the the thought process but after spending a weekend on google and in books I give up and turn to the SO community.

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  • Exemplars of large document-centric applications with COM/XPCOM/.NET interfaces.

    - by Warren P
    I am looking for exemplars (design examples) showing the use of interfaces (aka 'protocols' for you smalltalkers) to design a document management architecture in a large Word Processor, Spreadsheet, vector graphic or publishing package, or office-productivity (non-database) application with support for as many of the following as possible: any open source project, will be ideal, and language of implementation is unimportant since I am looking for design examples, however an object oriented language with support for "interfaces" is a must. I know at least a dozen languages, and I'm willing to study any application's source. use of "interface" could loosely be applied to either XPCOM or COM interfaces, or .NET interfaces, or even the use of pure-virtual (virtual+abstract) base-classes for OOP languages that lack the ability to declare an interface distinct from a class. I am mostly looking for a robust, thorough and flexible implementation for a document, IDocument, various document views (IDocumentView), and whatever operations make sense in that case. I am particular interested in cases where the product in question is a real-world product. For example, if anybody familiar with OpenOffice can tell me if the code contains a good sample design. I am looking for design documentation that outlines the design of the interfaces for such an application. So for example, if the openoffice spreadsheet has such an interface design, then that might be the best case, because it is a widely used real-world design, with millions of users, rather than a textbook example, which is minimal, and contrived. I know that the Mozilla platform uses XPCOM, and its design is heavily "interface" oriented, but I am looking more for a "word processor" or "spreadsheet" type of document design, rather than a web-browser. I am particularly interested in the interfaces used to access to data and meta-data such as markup (attributes like bold, and italics, and font size), and the ability to search and look up named entities within a document.

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  • EF in a UserControl can't see the app.config?

    - by Sven
    I just created a user control. This control also makes use of my static Entity Framework class to load two comboboxes. All is well and runs without a problem. Design and runtime are working. Then when I stop the application all the forms that contain my UserControl don't work any more in design time. I just see two errors: Error1: The specified named connection is either not found in the configuration, not intended to be used with the EntityClient provider, or not valid. Error 2: The variable ccArtikelVelden is either undeclared or was never assigned. (ccArtikelVelde is my UserControl) Runtime everything is still working My static EF Repositoy class: public class BSManagerData { private static BSManagerEntities _entities; public static BSManagerEntities Entities { get { if (_entities == null) _entities = new BSManagerEntities(); return _entities; } set { _entities = value; } } } Some logic happening in my UserControl to load the data in the comboboxes: private void LaadCbx() { cbxCategorie.DataSource = (from c in BSManagerData.Entities.Categories select c).ToList(); cbxCategorie.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxCategorie.ValueMember = "Id"; } private void cbxCategorie_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { cbxFabrikant.DataSource = from f in BSManagerData.Entities.Fabrikants where f.Categorie.Id == ((Categorie)cbxCategorie.SelectedItem).Id select f; cbxFabrikant.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxFabrikant.ValueMember = "Id"; } The only way to make my forms work again, design time, is to comment out the EF part in the UserControl (see above) and rebuild. It's very strange, everything is in the same assembly, same namespace (for the sake of simplicity). Anyone an idea?

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  • Proper API Design for Version Independence?

    - by Justavian
    I've inherited an enormous .NET solution of about 200 projects. There are now some developers who wish to start adding their own components into our application, which will require that we begin exposing functionality via an API. The major problem with that, of course, is that the solution we've got on our hands contains such a spider web of dependencies that we have to be careful to avoid sabotaging the API every time there's a minor change somewhere in the app. We'd also like to be able to incrementally expose new functionality without destroying any previous third party apps. I have a way to solve this problem, but i'm not sure it's the ideal way - i was looking for other ideas. My plan would be to essentially have three dlls. APIServer_1_0.dll - this would be the dll with all of the dependencies. APIClient_1_0.dll - this would be the dll our developers would actual refer to. No references to any of the mess in our solution. APISupport_1_0.dll - this would contain the interfaces which would allow the client piece to dynamically load the "server" component and perform whatever functions are required. Both of the above dlls would depend upon this. It would be the only dll that the "client" piece refers to. I initially arrived at this design, because the way in which we do inter process communication between windows services is sort of similar (except that the client talks to the server via named pipes, rather than dynamically loading dlls). While i'm fairly certain i can make this work, i'm curious to know if there are better ways to accomplish the same task.

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  • EFv1 mapping 1 to many Relationship to POCOs

    - by Scott
    I'm trying to work through a problem where I'm mapping EF Entities to POCO which serve as DTO. I have two tables within my database, say Products and Categories. A Product belongs to one category and one category may contain many Products. My EF entities are named efProduct and efCategory. Within each entity there is the proper Navigation Property between efProduct and efCategory. My Poco objects are simple public class Product { public string Name { get; set; } public int ID { get; set; } public double Price { get; set; } public Category ProductType { get; set; } } public class Category { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public List<Product> products { get; set; } } To get a list of products I am able to do something like public IQueryable<Product> GetProducts() { return from p in ctx.Products select new Product { ID = p.ID, Name = p.Name, Price = p.Price ProductType = p.Category }; } However there is a type mismatch error because p.Category is of type efCategory. How can I resolve this? That is, how can I convert p.Category to type Category? I know in .NET EF has added support for POCO, but I'm forced to use .NET 3.5 SP1.

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  • get_bookmarks() object doesn't return link_category

    - by ninja
    I'm trying to fetch all link-categories from the built in Wordpress linklist (or bookmarks if you will). To do this, I simply stored all links in a variable like this: <?php $lists = get_bookmarks(); foreach($lists as $list) { $cats[] = $list->link_category; } ?> To my surprise even var_dump'ing $cats gave me "String(0)", so I var_dump'ed out $lists instead, and it gave me this: array(8) { [0]=> object(stdClass)#5126 (13) { ["link_id"]=> string(1) "1" ["link_url"]=> string(27) "http://codex.wordpress.org/" ["link_name"]=> string(13) "Documentation" ["link_image"]=> string(0) "" ["link_target"]=> string(0) "" ["link_description"]=> string(0) "" ["link_visible"]=> string(1) "Y" ["link_owner"]=> string(1) "1" ["link_rating"]=> string(1) "0" ["link_updated"]=> string(19) "0000-00-00 00:00:00" ["link_rel"]=> string(0) "" ["link_notes"]=> string(0) "" ["link_rss"]=> string(0) "" } Now, codex.wordpress.org is a default link that comes with wordpress, it's in a category called "Linklist", and as you can see, the object contains everything about that link, EXCEPT the categoryname. According to the codex this object should contain a field named "link_category", so I'm getting confused here. Am I missing something? Is the function broke? Regards NINJA

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  • Programmatically Update UITableView in Response to Button Press

    - by Kyle Begeman
    I have a completely custom view that holds a UITableView and a Custom Tab Bar (basically a UIView that contains 6 UIButtons). I am loading data from a plist file, and then I am sorting the data into multiple arrays based on categories (an array for misc items, and array for mail items, etc.) Each button in the tab bar represents a category, and when I press the button I call the custom function "miscSelected" and so on. How can I have the table view completely reload and then display the tableview based on the array selected (select the misc category and the tableview clears itself and loads the misc array data, same for any other category)? The method I have experimented with is created and NSString named "selection" and then in each button function I set selected to equal whatever section I am selecting. In my cellForRoxAtIndexPath method I have this: if ([self.selection isEqualToString:@"All Items"]) { NSArray *mainDataArray = [NSArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:self.plistFile]; NSSortDescriptor *brandDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [NSArray arrayWithObject:brandDescriptor]; self.sortedData = [mainDataArray sortedArrayUsingDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; } else if ([self.selection isEqualToString:@"Misc Items"]){ self.sortedData = [NSArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:self.plistFile]; } cell.itemTitle.text = [[self.sortedData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"name"]; For the sake of example and testing I am simply displaying the same data, just one button displays it in alphabetical order and the other does not. This code works only when I start to scroll down and back up, but it does not actually update on button press. Calling myTable reloadData does not do anything either. Any help would be great, thanks!

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  • RewriteRule to store thousands of files in subdirectories

    - by Brandon
    I have a website that will have millions of pages in a directory. I'd like to store those files on-disk in a bunch of subdirectories based on the first characters of the page name. For example http://mysite.com/hugedir/somefile.html would be stored in /var/www/html/hugedir/s/o/m/e/f/ile.html That is fairly trivial to do with a RewriteRule like so: RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}/{$5}/$6.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}/{$5}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}.html However, the file name may contain hyphens or other non-standard characters and I'd really like to avoid having a directory named with a strange character. Ideally, I'd like to have a list of 'approved' characters and either eliminate or transform the unapproved characters to an underscore. Can anybody think of a way to do that? Or something else equivalent? Part of the requirement is that these be physical files on disk and it not be parsed with a scripting language.

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  • Django: Create custom template tag -> ImportError

    - by Alexander Scholz
    I'm sorry to ask this again, but I tried several solutions from stack overflow and some tutorials and I couldn't create a custom template tag yet. All I get is ImportError: No module named test_tag when I try to start the server via python manage.py runserver. I created a very basic template tag (found here: django templatetag?) like so: My folder structure: demo manage.py test __init__.py settings.py urls.py ... templatetags __init__.py test_tag.py test_tag.py: from django import template register = template.Library() @register.simple_tag def test_tag(input): if "foo" == input: return "foo" if "bar" == input: return "bar" if "baz" == input: return "baz" return "" index.html: {% load test_tag %} <html> <head> ... </head> <body> {% cms_toolbar %} {% foobarbaz "bar" %} {% foobarbaz "elephant" %} {% foobarbaz "foo" %} </body> </html> and my settings.py: INSTALLED_APPS = ( ... 'test_tag', ... ) Please let me know if you need further information from my settings.py and what I did wrong so I can't even start my server. (If I delete 'test_tag' from installed apps I can start the server but I get the error that test_tag is not known, of course). Thanks

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  • Just for fun (C# and C++)...time yourself [closed]

    - by Ted
    Possible Duplicate: What is your solution to the FizzBuzz problem? OK guys this is just for fun, no flamming allowed ! I was reading the following http://www.codinghorror.com/blog/2007/02/why-cant-programmers-program.html and couldn't believe the following sentence... " I've also seen self-proclaimed senior programmers take more than 10-15 minutes to write a solution." For those that can't be bothered to read the article, the background is this: ....I set out to develop questions that can identify this kind of developer and came up with a class of questions I call "FizzBuzz Questions" named after a game children often play (or are made to play) in schools in the UK. An example of a Fizz-Buzz question is the following: Write a program that prints the numbers from 1 to 100. But for multiples of three print "Fizz" instead of the number and for the multiples of five print "Buzz". For numbers which are multiples of both three and five print "FizzBuzz". SO I decided to test myself. I took 5 minutes in C++ and 3mins in c#! So just for fun try it and post your timings + language used! P.S NO UNIT TESTS REQUIRED, NO OUTSOURCING ALLOWED, SWITCH OFF RESHARPER! :-) P.S. If you'd like to post your source then feel free

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