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  • iPad: Detecting External Keyboard

    - by StuartW
    My app uses a UIAccessoryView to provide additional keyboard functionality (such as forward/backward tabs and arrows keys) for the virtual keyboard, but that causes UIKeyboardDidShowNotification to fire even when a physical keyboard is present (the accessory appears at the bottom of the screen). I'd like to check if a physical keyboard is attached when handling UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, to prevent the accessory view from appearing and to prevent my custom view from scrolling up (to make room for the non-existent virtual keyboard). I've tried examining the UIKeyboardFrameEndUserInfoKey key, but it returns a real size for the virtual keyboard, in spite of nothing being displayed. Is there any way to detect the presence of a physical keyboard to prevent this unwanted behaviour? Hmm, the plot thickens. I tried disabling the input accessory by returning nil from the inputAccessoryView property of the Responder object which triggers the keyboard. That suppresses UIKeyboardWillShowNotification and UIKeyboardDidShowNotification when there is a physical keyboard present, but keeps these notifications when there is no such keyboard. All good so far. Then I tried re-enabling inputAccessoryView only after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification had been received. This only fires when a virtual keyboard is needed, so it should allow me to reintroduce the accessory view in those circumstances. Or so I thought. Unfortunately, it seems the OS doesn't check inputAccessoryView after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, so it fails to show the accessory view when it is needed :o( That leaves me with two options: Include the input accessory view, giving extra functionality for virtual keyboard users, but lose the ability to detect a physical keyboard and hence not supporting physical devices; or Exclude the input accessory altogether, preventing most users from accessing the extra keys, but allowing the app to work with a physical keyboard. Not a great choice, so I'm still keen to see if anyone else has addressed this problem!

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  • Continuous integration with .net and svn

    - by stiank81
    We're currently not applying the automated building and testing of continous integration in our project. We haven't bothered this far as we're only 2 developers working on it, but even with a team of 2 I still think it would be valuable to use continous integration and get a confirmation that our builds don't break or tests start failing. We're using .Net with C# and WPF. We have created Python-scripts for building the application - using MSbuild - and for running all tests. Our source is in SVN. What would be the best approach to apply continous integration with this setup? What tool should we get? It should be one which doesn't require alot of setup. Simple procedures to get started and little maintanance is a must.

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  • wcf generated classes and validation application block attributes

    - by Shaboboo
    Hi, I'm new to the validation application block and trying to use it with wcf... I have a wcf service that has data objects with validation rules defined with attributes, using the validation application block . On my client side (WPF), I have a service reference. When I update the service reference the generated classes do not have the validation rules attributes in them. How can I get the rules from the service? Am I missing some step, or is it not possible?

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  • MVVM (ICommand) in Silverlight

    - by Andrey Khataev
    Hello! Please, don't judge strictly if this question was discussed previously or indirectly answered in huge nearby prism and mvvm blogs. In WPF implementation of RelayCommand or DelegateCommand classes there is a such eventhandler /// <summary> /// Occurs whenever the state of the application changes such that the result of a call to <see cref="CanExecute"/> may return a different value. /// </summary> public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged { add { CommandManager.RequerySuggested += value; } remove { CommandManager.RequerySuggested -= value; } } but in SL subset of namespaces there are no CommandManager class. And this is where I'm stuck. I haven't yet found an workaround for this in MVVM adoptation for SL (PRISM is so complex for me yet). Different simple HelloWorldMVVM apps don't deal with at all. Thanks in advance and sorry for my English -)

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  • Can't find .Net 2.0 XML Schema

    - by Zach Smith
    I'm currently setting up an application config for a WPF application written in .Net 4.0. The connection string in the app.config is encrypted like so: <connectionStrings configProtectionProvider="DataProtectionConfigurationProvider"> <EncryptedData> <CipherData> <CipherValue>CypherValue</CipherValue> </CipherData> </EncryptedData> </connectionStrings> To use the EncryptedData element I need to include the XMLNS "http://schemas.microsoft.com/.NetConfiguration/v2.0". Attempting to include it produces an error as the schema cannot be found. Is there a way to include the schema or perhaps a different element I could use instead of EncryptedData?

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  • Script Errors in Silverlight WebBrowser Control

    - by Whiskas
    Hi, I am showing a HTML page with a Flash video player on it in a Silverlight app using the WebBrowser control. The site itself is displayed perfectly and everything works just fine. But when I want to close the player component, I somehow need to completely dispose the current HTML page with the flash player. I tried navigating to about:blank, or even to other pages like google.com before the player component is hidden. But the flash video keeps on playing and the WebBrowser shows several Script Errors, which must be clicked in order to really leave the flash page. Is there any way to instantly "clear" the WebBrowser control or to surpress the Script Errors so that it leaves the html/flash page? In WPF there seem to be some methods for that, but I couldnt find any on the Silverlight WebBrowser control. Any hints are appreciated, Whiskas

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  • How to detect the error raised on a particular codeline?

    - by infant programmer
    [Please edit the title if you find its not good enough] I have code which triggers XSL-transformation: objMemoryStream = new MemoryStream(); xslTransform = new XslCompiledTransform(); xpathXmlOrig = new XPathDocument("E:\\xslt error\\Simulation_of_error\\input.xml"); xslSettings = new XsltSettings(); xslSettings.EnableScript = true; xslTransform.Load(strXmlQueryTransformPath, xslSettings, new XmlUrlResolver()); xslTransform.Transform(xpathXmlOrig, null, objMemoryStream); objMemoryStream.Position = 0; StreamReader objStreamReader = new StreamReader(objMemoryStream); The method xslTransform.Load(strXmlQueryTransformPath, xslSettings, new XmlUrlResolver()); is a victim, which fails some times due to some time-out issue. I want to detect the failure of this codeline and execute again until it successfully executes! I tried using "TRY CATCH and WHILE methods": bool flag = true; do { try { xslTransform.Load(strXmlQueryTransformPath, xslSettings, new XmlUrlResolver()); flag = false; } catch { flag = true; } } while (flag); but the problem is "error is getting logged in the log file", Well. The whole code is under one more try statement, which I suspect is writing to log. Which is what I don't want... I don't want end user to know about the failure of this codeline. Is there anyway to get it done?

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  • .NET 3.5 SP1 prerequisite, MS giving the clients 4.0

    - by Matt Bridges
    I have been using an MSI to install a WPF application using the .NET Framework 3.5 SP1. I have set up .NET 3.5 as a prerequisite in the MSI, and what has been happening for ages is that when the user does not have .NET 3.5 SP1, the MSI first has them download and install that before resuming the installation of my application. Since yesterday when MS released .NET 4.0, when users don't have .net 3.5 SP1, the MSI is directing them to install 4.0 instead. What happens though, is that after they finish installing 4.0, the MSI still detects that they don't have 3.5, and directs them to the 4.0 install site again. So the user has 4.0, but the MSI doesn't ever get to installing my application. What do I have to change in my application? This seems like an error with how MS is handling the prerequisites either on their server or in the MSI in VS 2008.

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  • x86_64 assembler: only one call per subroutine?

    - by zneak
    Hello everyone, I decided yesterday to start doing assembler. Most of it is okay (well, as okay as assembler can be), but I'm getting some problems with gas. It seems that I can call functions only once. After that, any subsequent call opcode with the same function name will fail. I must be doing something terribly wrong, though I can't see what. Take this small C function for instance: void path_free(path_t path) { if (path == NULL) return; free(((point_list_t*)path)->points); free(path); } I "translated" it to assembler like that: .globl _path_free _path_free: push rbp mov rbp, rsp cmp rdi, 0 jz byebye push rdi mov rdi, qword ptr [rdi] call _free pop rdi sub rsp, 8 call _free byebye: leave ret This triggers the following error for the second call _free: suffix or operands invalid for ``call''. And if I change it to something else, like free2, everything works (until link time, that is). Assembler code gcc -S gave me looks very similar to what I've done (except it's in AT&T syntax), so I'm kind of lost. I'm doing this on Mac OS X under the x86_64 architecture.

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  • ASP.NET - fast Segmented downoad of file through webservice

    - by H4mm3rHead
    Hi, Im doing this project where i need to download files through a webservice (images, videos). The download MUST go through an existing webservice. The existing webservice was made when there were no need to upload and download files but the project has changed and now we need to do It through a webservice. Right now I have implemented the download as a method that returns a byte[], I open a streamreader and resds the entire file into a byte[] and returns it to my method. This is working file on small files <~1Mb, above it takes too long time. I want to show some progress (e.g. when the user downlaods a 20Mb video) which i cannot do right now. And i want to make it download much faster (is a strategy to use multithreading and several threads that downloads a part of the file?). It is within a WPF application i need to do this. Any ideas on how to approach this?

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  • Laggy interface with NSSearchField hooked up to an NSArrayController via bindings

    - by Simone Manganelli
    So I've got an NSSearchField hooked up directly to an NSArrayController via bindings, attached to the filterPredicate, so that without any code, the user can just type in the NSSearchField and filter the list of objects in the NSArrayController presented to him in the interface (an NSCollectionView, to be specific). The NSSearchField is hooked up to provide live searching, so that the NSCollectionView is filtered instantly as the user types, not after waiting for a short period for the user to stop typing. However, the problem is that this makes the interface really laggy. Typing is delayed significantly, by 0.5-1 seconds, and it seems like the NSCollectionView is trying to animate each and every rearrangement of items for each portion of the search string that the user enters. What I'd like is for the searching to be live, but the typing in the search field to be fluid, and the results to filter as fast as possible. Is there a way to do this via bindings, or will I need to put in some custom code that triggers the filterPredicate on a separate thread? (Note that I've got a custom sorting algorithm set up on the NSArrayController, and removing it seems to help a bit with the laggyness, but not completely.)

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  • quartz.net - Can I not add a callback delegate method to JobExecutionContext?

    - by Greg
    Hi, BACKGROUND - I have a synchroisation function within my MainForm class. It gets called manually when the user pushes the SYNC button. I want to also call this synchroisation function when the scheduler triggers too, so effectively want SchedulerJob:IJob.Execute() method to be able to call it. QUESTION - How do I access the MainForm.Sychronization() method from within the SchedulerJob:IJob.Execute() method? I tried creating a delegate for this method in the MainForm class and getting it added via jobDetail.JobDataMap. However when I try I'm not sure that JobDataMap has a method to pull out a Delegate type??? private void Schedule(MainForm.SyncDelegate _syncNow) { var jobDetail = new JobDetail("MainJob", null, typeof(SchedulerJob)); jobDetail.JobDataMap["CallbackMethod"] = _syncNow; // Trigger Setup var trigger = new CronTrigger("MainTrigger"); string expression = GetCronExpression(); trigger.CronExpressionString = expression; trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.Now.ToUniversalTime(); // Schedule Job & Trigger _scheduler.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } public class SchedulerJob : IJob { public SchedulerJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { JobDataMap dataMap = context.JobDetail.JobDataMap; MainForm.SyncDelegate CallbackFunction = dataMap.getDelegate["CallbackMethod"]; **// THIS METHOD DOESN'T EXIST - getDelegate()** CallbackFunction(); } } thanks

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  • When using Clipboard, Toolkit and Transferable, I get an error objecting to image width and height

    - by Mike King
    When I run the following code it triggers an error message. The error message is shown below the code. What code changes, or changes to the image file, are needed to fix this error? Help will be appreciated. import java.awt.*; import java.awt.datatransfer.*; public class LoadToClipboard { public static void main( String [] args ) { Toolkit tolkit = Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit(); Clipboard clip = tolkit.getSystemClipboard(); clip.setContents( new ImageSelection( tolkit.getImage("StackOverflowLogo.png")) , null ); } } class ImageSelection implements Transferable { private Image image; public ImageSelection(Image image) { this.image = image; } // Returns supported flavors public DataFlavor[] getTransferDataFlavors() { return new DataFlavor[]{DataFlavor.imageFlavor}; } // Returns true if flavor is supported public boolean isDataFlavorSupported(DataFlavor flavor) { return DataFlavor.imageFlavor.equals(flavor); } // Returns image public Object getTransferData(DataFlavor flavor) throws UnsupportedFlavorException { if (!DataFlavor.imageFlavor.equals(flavor)) { throw new UnsupportedFlavorException(flavor); } return image; } } Exception in thread "main" java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Width (-1) and height (-1) cannot be <= 0 at java.awt.image.DirectColorModel.createCompatibleWritableRaster(DirectColorModel.java:999) at sun.awt.datatransfer.DataTransferer.imageToStandardBytes(DataTransferer.java:1994) at sun.awt.windows.WDataTransferer.imageToPlatformBytes(WDataTransferer.java:267) at sun.awt.datatransfer.DataTransferer.translateTransferable(DataTransferer.java:1123) at sun.awt.windows.WDataTransferer.translateTransferable(WDataTransferer.java:163) at sun.awt.windows.WClipboard.setContentsNative(WClipboard.java:73) at sun.awt.datatransfer.SunClipboard.setContents(SunClipboard.java:93) at automateSignature.LoadToClipboard.main(LoadToClipboard.java:8) I have tried to find a place in the code where width and height can be specified, but have not succeeded. I also examined the properties of the jpg file and the w and h are specified.enter code here

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  • jQuery: Stop browser scrolling on event update beyond the fold?

    - by neezer
    I have several links at the bottom of my page that update content at the top of my page (more than a viewport away). Here's the gist of what the update looks like: $('#private-photo div').fadeOut(function() { $(this).html('<%= escape_javascript(image_tag current_user.private_photo.image.url(:profile)) %>'); }).fadeIn(); Basically it's just fading out the old content and fading in the new content. My problem is that when this happens, the browser window automatically scrolls up just far enough so that the bottom of the updated content (#private-photo div) appears at the top of the browser viewport. I do not want this to happen. I want the content to be updated (still fading in and out), but without the browser viewport realigning its focus. I want to keep the animation because if the user has a big enough screen, or if they are using a link closer to the top of the page, I still want them to see the animation. Any ideas about how to prevent the browser from scrolling as described? If not, any suggestions for workarounds? FYI, I have this same problem in Safari 4, Chrome (for Mac), & Firefox 3.5. EDIT: Here's the link that calls the update action, which is itself inside a Colorbox: $('a.edit-photo').colorbox({ title: function() { return 'Edit Photo in ' + $(this).attr('rel'); }, overlayClose: false, onComplete: function() { $('#edit-photo-modal').submit(function(e) { $('#photo_submit').after('<span id="saving">Saving...</span>'); e.preventDefault(); $.post($(this).attr('action'), $(this).serialize(), function() { $('#edit-photo-modal #saving').text('Saved!'); }, "script"); }); } }); The lightbox opens, presents a form fetched through an AJAX request, then (on submit) triggers the update action mentioned above. I had these links outside of the Colorbox in an earlier design revision, and they exhibited the same problem, so I've ruled out Colorbox itself as a cause. If you need anymore info, let me know!

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  • javascript: waiting for an iframe page to load before writing to it (but not from the page that's tr

    - by Bill Dawes
    Apologies if this has been answered elsewhere, but I haven't been able to find it referenced. (Probably because nobody else would want to do such a daft thing, I admit). So, I have a page with three iframes in it. An event on one triggers a javascript function which loads new pages into the other two iframes; ['topright'] and ['bottomright']. However, javascript in the page that is being loaded into iframe 'topright' then needs to send information to elements in the 'bottomright' iframe. window.frames['bottomright'].document.subform.ID_client = client; etc But this will only work if the page has fully loaded into the bottomright frame. So what would be the most efficient way for that code in the 'topright' iframe to check and ensure that that form element in the bottomright frame is actually available to write to, before it does write to it? Bearing in mind that the page load has NOT been triggered from the topright frame, so I can't simply use an onLoad function. (I know this probably sounds like a hideously tortuous route for getting data from one page to another, but that's another story. The client is always right, etc...:-))

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  • activemessaging with stomp and activemq.prefetchSize=1

    - by Clint Miller
    I have a situation where I have a single activemq broker with 2 queues, Q1 and Q2. I have two ruby-based consumers using activemessaging. Let's call them C1 and C2. Both consumers subscribe to each queue. I'm setting activemq.prefetchSize=1 when subscribing to each queue. I'm also setting ack=client. Consider the following sequence of events: 1) A message that triggers a long-running job is published to queue Q1. Call this M1. 2) M1 is dispatched to consumer C1, kicking off a long operation. 3) Two messages that trigger short jobs are published to queue Q2. Call these M2 and M3. 4) M2 is dispatched to C2 which quickly runs the short job. 5) M3 is dispatched to C1, even though C1 is still running M1. It's able to dispatch to C1 because prefetchSize=1 is set on the queue subscription, not on the connection. So the fact that a Q1 message has already been dispatched doesn't stop one Q2 message from being dispatched. Since activemessaging consumers are single-threaded, the net result is that M3 sits and waits on C1 for a long time until C1 finishes processing M1. So, M3 is not processed for a long time, despite the fact that consumer C2 is sitting idle (since it quickly finishes with message M2). Essentially, whenever a long Q1 job is run and then a whole bunch of short Q2 jobs are created, exactly one of the short Q2 jobs gets stuck on a consumer waiting for the long Q1 job to finish. Is there a way to set prefetchSize at the connection level rather than at the subscription level? I really don't want any messages dispatched to C1 while it is processing M1. The other alternative is that I could create a consumer dedicated to processing Q1 and then have other consumers dedicated to processing Q2. But, I'd rather not do that since Q1 messages are infrequent--Q1's dedicated consumers would sit idle most of the day tying up memory.

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  • Linq to SQL EntitySet Records causing duplicate insertion

    - by Savvas Sopiadis
    In a WPF application i'm using Linq to SQL in a multi tier application. (This is an archailogy photo filing application), so every excavation has its corresponding Pictures, thus a one-to-many relationship. This relationship is correctly created by SQLMetal (which i'm using to create the POCOs). So here is the situation i 'm having trouble with: Saving changes (either of new or altered objects) is done through UnitOfWork() pattern this way: using (IUnitOfWork unitOfWork = UnitOfWork.Begin()) { //if this is a new record if (SelectedExcavation.excavation.ExcavationId == 0) { IsNewRecord = true; excavService.Add(SelectedExcavation.excavation); } //send the actual changes to the dbms unitOfWork.Commit(); } Everything works fine! BUTTTT!!! Whenever a record gets updated which has (already at least one ) corresponding Picture Record: 1) a new Excavation Record is inserted 2) the current Excavation Record gets updated 3) the previous Picture Record gets its Id changed to the newly created ExcavationId What is going on under the hood? Does Linq to SQL not handle such simple update scenarios? Thanks in advance

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  • jQuery event "looping"

    - by Deryck
    Hi I´m trying to code a tooltip (Yes I know, I have my reasons to avoid plugins in this case) in jQuery. Whe I show the tooltip and leave the mouse in the same place the show and hide repeats forever. It´s like the element triggers the hover event again and again and again. I try unbind for the event but it does not work neither. $("td.with-tooltip").mouseover( function() { var offset = $(this).offset(); var baseX = offset.left; var baseY = offset.top; var inputWidth = $(this).width(); var baseX = baseX + 50; var baseY = baseY - $(".desc").height(); $(".desc div").html($(this).attr("title")); $(".desc").css({"position":"absolute", "left": baseX, "top": baseY }).fadeIn(); $(this).unbind("mouseover"); }).mouseleave( function() { $(".desc").fadeOut(); }); What can I do? thanks.

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  • Should I use the Model-View-ViewModel (MVVM) pattern in Silverlight projects?

    - by Jon Galloway
    One challenge with Silverlight controls is that when properties are bound to code, they're no longer really editable in Blend. For example, if you've got a ListView that's populated from a data feed, there are no elements visible when you edit the control in Blend. I've heard that the MVVM pattern, originated by the WPF development community, can also help with keeping Silverlight controls "blendable". I'm still wrapping my head around it, but here are some explanations: http://www.nikhilk.net/Silverlight-ViewModel-Pattern.aspx http://mark-dot-net.blogspot.com/2008/11/model-view-view-model-mvvm-in.html http://www.ryankeeter.com/silverlight/silverlight-mvvm-pt-1-hello-world-style/ http://jonas.follesoe.no/YouCardRevisitedImplementingTheViewModelPattern.aspx One potential downside is that the pattern requires additional classes, although not necessarily more code (as shown by the second link above). Thoughts?

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  • Silverlight MVVM example which does not use data grids?

    - by Aim Kai
    I was wondering if anyone knew of a great example of using the MVVC pattern for a Silverlight application that does not utilise a data grid? Most of the examples I have read see links below and books such as Pro WPF and Silverlight MVVM by Gary Hall use a silverlight application with a datagrid. Don't get me wrong, these are all great examples. See also: MVVM: Tutorial from start to finish? http://www.silverlight.net/learn/tutorials/silverlight-4/using-the-mvvm-pattern-in-silverlight-applications/ However some recent demo projects I have been working are not necessarily dealing with data grids but I would still want to implement this pattern..

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  • Video Streaming

    - by Josephe
    First I need to state that I am not the developer so I will state the issue in business terms but please respond with a technical solution as I will be passing on your posts to the developer. We are building a web based application in SilverLight and WPF that consists of communication between a customer service rep and a customer. The application will inlcude a webcam that will provide the customer with the ability to see the customer service rep and the rep will also be able to see an image of themselves but will not be able to see the customer. Similar functionality to a live web chat with video component. There could potentially be bandwidth issues and we do not want the customer to have to download anything. Any recommendations on how to do this?

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  • How do I convert a windows forms app from C# to VB ?

    - by SLC
    I've been converting all kinds of other things, classes, interfaces, ASP.NET MVC apps, and WPF applications, but I am stumped as to how to convert a windows forms application, as the whole structure seems to be different. Does anyone have any advice on how to tackle this problem? I see essentially that you have two files, Form1.cs and Form1.Designer.cs. Literally translating them from C# to VB doesn't work because of some intricacies or other of how Visual Basic works. I think you /might/ be able to convert Form1.cs in this way, as it's just a constructor plus event handlers, but the designer contains the references to the controls etc. and I am not sure how to go about doing that. I am using Visual Studio 2010 Beta 2.

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  • How to trigger the event together on each two deferent class.

    - by XBasic3000
    I have two object class on a single unit, is it posible to trigger the two events? let say the FIRSTCLASS event is fired, The SECONDCLASS also will fired? Assuming...... //{Class 1}------------------------------------------------------------- type TOnEventTrigger = procedure(Sender : Tobject; Value :integer); TMyFirstClass = Class(Tcomponent) private .... public .... OnEventTrigger : TOnEventTrigger read Fevent write Fevent; end; procedure TMyFirstClass.FEvnt(Sender : Tobject; Value :integer); begin // here is normaly triggers the event // if Assigned(OnEventTrigger) then OnEventTrigger(Self,FSomevalue); // POSTMessage(GetForegroundWindow,WM_USER+3,0,0); // this is what i did here to get the result of FSomevalue // but this is not ideal. It work only on focus window. end; //{Class 2}------------------------------------------------------------- type TOnEventTrigger = procedure(Sender : Tobject; Value :integer); TMySecondClass = Class(Tobject) private .... public .... OnEventTrigger : TOnEventTrigger; read Fevent write Fevent; end; procedure TMySecondClass.FEvnt(Sender : Tobject; Value :integer); begin // I wanted here to trigger, whenenver the above is fired // if Assigned(OnEventTrigger) then OnEventTrigger(Self,FSomevalue); end;

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  • How can I convert seconds to minutes in jQuery while updating an element with the current time?

    - by pghtech
    So I see a number of ways to display allot of seconds in a (static) hr/min/sec. However, I am trying to produce a visual count down timer: $('#someelement').html(minCounter + ' minutes ' + ((secCounter == 0) ? '' : (secCounter + ' seconds'))); My counter is reduced inside a SetInterval that triggers ever 1 second: //....... var counter = redirectTimer; jQuery('#WarningDialogMsg').html(minCounter + ' minutes ' + ((secCounter == 0) ? '' : (secCounter + ' seconds'))); //........ SetInternval( function() { counter -= 1; secCounter = Math.floor(counter % 60); minCounter = Math.floor(counter / 60); //....... $('#someelement').html(minCounter + ' minutes ' + ((secCounter == 0) ? '' : (secCounter + ' seconds'))); }, 1000) It is a two minute counter but I don't want to display 120 seconds. I want to display 1 : 59 (and counting down). I have managed to get it to work using the above, but my main question is: is there a more elegant way to accomplish the above? (note: I am redirecting once "counter == 0").

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  • Why is my .htaccess file redirecting to full server path instead of relative path?

    - by death.au
    I've never had a problem with cakePHP before, but something's odd about this server and is causing the redirects in the .htaccess files to behave oddly. CakePHP uses mod_rewrite in .htaccess files to redirect requests to its own webroot folder. The problem is that the redirects are listing the wrong path and causing a 404 error. My CakePHP application, which is stored in the listings directory, has a .htaccess file as follows: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^$ app/webroot/ [R=301,L] RewriteRule (.*) app/webroot/$1 [R=301,L] </IfModule> (*note that the R=301 causes an external redirect so we can see what is going on from our end. It should really omit this flag and do the redirect internally, transparent to end-users) This is supposed to redirect any request from http://hostname.com/~username/listings/ to http://hostname.com/~username/listings/app/webroot/ However, rather than simply adding “app/webroot/” to the end as it is supposed to, it is adding the full server path ( /home/username/public_html/listings/app/webroot/ ) resulting in the final URL http://hostname.com/home/username/public_html/listings/app/webroot/ which is obviously incorrect and triggers a 404 error. The hosting is on a shared hosting account, so that limits what I can do with the settings. I've never seen this happen before, and I'm thinking it's something wrong from the hosting side of things, but if anyone has some helpful suggestions then I can put them to the hosting company as well.

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