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  • VB.net avoiding cross thread exception with extension method

    - by user574632
    Hello I am trying to implement a solution for updating form controls without using a delegate. I am attempting to use the 1st solution on this page: http://www.dreamincode.net/forums/blog/143/entry-2337-handling-the-dreaded-cross-thread-exception/ Imports System.ComponentModel Imports System.Runtime.CompilerServices Public Module MyInvoke <Extension()> _ Public Sub CustomInvoke(Of T As ISynchronizeInvoke)(ByVal control As T, ByVal toPerform As Action(Of T)) If control.InvokeRequired Then control.Invoke(toPerform, New Object() {control}) toPerform(control) End If End Sub End Module The site gives this as example of how to use: Label1.CustomInvoke(l => l.Text = "Hello World!") But i get 'l' is not declared error. As you can see im very new to VB or any OOP. I can get the second solution on that page to work (using delegates) but i have quite a few things to do in this thread and it seems like i would need to write a new delegate sub for each thing, which seems wasteful. What i need to do is select the 1st item from a combobox, update a textbox.text with the selected item, and pass the selected item to a function. Then wait for x seconds and start again, selecting the second item. I can get it to work in a single threaded application, but i need the interface to remain responsive. Any help greatly appreciated. EDIT: OK so changing the syntax worked for the example. However if i change it from Label1.CustomInvoke(Sub(l) l.text = "hello world!") (which worked just fine) to: Dim indexnumber As Integer = 0 ComboBox1.CustomInvoke(Sub(l) l.SelectedIndex = indexnumber) I get a cross threading error as though i didnt even use this method: Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'ComboBox1' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on. So now im back to where i started? Any further help very much appreciated.

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  • What could trigger a change of http status to 500 on the client's end?

    - by VexedPanda
    We have a PHP web application that posts data to itself, and either displays an updated page based on that data, or redirects to another page. An example of this is a script with a paged list on it, where clicking on the Next link causes a post to the same page, which then returns an updated version of the page showing the new set of list items. One client is reporting that IE is displaying friendly error messages when the page updates itself instead of the correct behavior of displaying the updated page. Turning friendly error messages off "corrects" this problem, and displays the updated page normally, indicating no actual server error occurred. When testing from any location other than this client's our web app does not produce any http error statuses, and in this specific situation only produces 200 statuses. (According to Fiddler.) What could be interfering with the HTTP POST and changing the response's http status code to 500 (or another code that would trigger friendly errors in IE)? Are there certain proxies or other network tools that could be misconfigured or buggy in this manner? Is there any way we can alter our application (apart from avoiding posts to the same script, which is not feasible) to get around this misbehavior?

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  • jquery focusin() and preventing bubbling.

    - by DA
    I'm showing a div via an onclick event. If you click outside the div, I want to hide it. To do so, I'm binding a one time click event on the body: $('body').one('click.myDivPopup', function(e) { ...close my div... }); Within the div itself, I tell it to not propogate events so that actually clicking within the div won't trigger a click on the body: $myDiv.click(function(e){e.stopPropagation()}); This works fine as intended. I also want to hide the div if one tabs out of the div. My thinking was that in that scenario, I could use a focusin event on the body: $('body').one('focusin.myDivPopup', function(e) { ...close my div... }); Again, I don't want the events to bubble out of the div itself, so added this: $myDiv.focusin(function(e){e.preventDefault()}); This does NOT work. Changing focus within elements within myDiv triggers the focusin event on the body. Is this maybe a bug in jQuery? If so is there a better way to accomplish this?

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  • XML parsing problem

    - by Albinoswordfish
    I'm having this strange XML parsing problem. I have this XML string I'm trying to parse <?xml version="1.0"?> <response status="success"> <lot>32342</lot> </response> I'm using XPath with Java in order to do this. I'm using the Xpath expression "/response/@status" to find the text "success". However whenever I evaluate this expression I get an empty string. However I am able to successfully parse this string using "/response/@type" <?xml version="1.0"?> <response type="success"> <lot>32342</lot> </response> So why would simply changing the name of the attribute change the return string to nothing? is = new InputSource(testWOcreateStrGood); xPathexpressionSuccess = xPath.compile("/response/@status"); responseStr = xPathexpressionSuccess.evaluate(is); reponseStr is the string I posted earlier with the "status" attribute

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  • java label setText and setBounds clashing?

    - by java
    I would like to have a JLabel changint color to a random one, while jumping to a random position, and while changing its text. but the setText and setBounds seem to clash and i don't know why. if you comment out the setText then the setBounds will work, but they won't work together. import java.awt.*; import java.util.*; import javax.swing.*; public class test2 extends JFrame { private static JLabel label = new JLabel("0"); private static Random gen = new Random(); public test2() { JPanel panel = new JPanel(); panel.add(label); this.add(panel); } public static void move() { for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { int n = gen.nextInt(254)+1; int nn = gen.nextInt(254)+1; int nnn = gen.nextInt(254)+1; label.setText(""+i); //the setBounds command will not work with the setText command. why? label.setBounds(n*2, nn*2, 20, 20); label.setForeground(new Color(n, nn, nnn)); try { Thread.sleep(200); } catch (Exception e) {} } } public static void main(String[] args) { test2 frame = new test2(); frame.setVisible(true); frame.setSize(600, 600); frame.setResizable(true); frame.setLocationRelativeTo(null); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); move(); } }

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  • How to access variables in shared memory

    - by user1723361
    I am trying to create a shared memory segment containing three integers and an array. The segment is created and a pointer is attached, but when I try to access the values of the variables (whether changing, printing, etc.) I get a segmentation fault. Here is the code I tried: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdbool.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <errno.h> #include <sys/types.h> #include <sys/ipc.h> #include <sys/sem.h> #define SIZE 10 int* shm_front; int* shm_end; int* shm_count; int* shm_array; int shm_size = 3*sizeof(int) + sizeof(shm_array[SIZE]); int main(int argc, char* argsv[]) { int shmid; //create shared memory segment if((shmid = shmget(IPC_PRIVATE, shm_size, 0644)) == -1) { printf("error in shmget"); exit(1); } //obtain the pointer to the segment if((shm_front = (int*)shmat(shmid, (void *)0, 0)) == (void *)-1) { printf("error in shmat"); exit(1); } //move down the segment to set the other pointers shm_end = shm_front + 1; shm_count = shm_front + 2; shm_array = shm_front + 3; //tests on shm //*shm_end = 10; //gives segmentation fault //printf("\n%d", *shm_front); //gives segmentation fault //clean-up //get rid of shared memory shmdt(shm_front); shmctl(shmid, IPC_RMID, NULL); //printf("\n\n"); return 0; } I tried accessing the shared memory by dereferencing the pointer to the struct, but got a segmentation fault each time.

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  • How to avoid mouse move on Touch

    - by VirtualBlackFox
    I have a WPF application that is capable of being used both with a mouse and using Touch. I disable all windows "enhancements" to just have touch events : Stylus.IsPressAndHoldEnabled="False" Stylus.IsTapFeedbackEnabled="False" Stylus.IsTouchFeedbackEnabled="False" Stylus.IsFlicksEnabled="False" The result is that a click behave like I want except on two points : The small "touch" cursor (little white star) appears where clicked an when dragging. Completely useless as the user finger is already at this location no feedback is required (Except my element potentially changing color if actionable). Elements stay in the "Hover" state after the movement / Click ends. Both are the consequences of the fact that while windows transmit correctly touch events, he still move the mouse to the last main-touch-event. I don't want windows to move the mouse at all when I use touch inside my application. Is there a way to completely avoid that? Notes: Handling touch events change nothing to this. Using SetCursorPos to move the mouse away make the cursor blink and isn't really user-friendly. Disabling the touch panel to act as an input device completely disable all events (And I also prefer an application-local solution, not system wide). I don't care if the solution involve COM/PInvoke or is provided in C/C++ i'll translate. If it is necessary to patch/hook some windows dlls so be it, the software will run on a dedicated device anyway. I'm investigating the surface SDK but I doubt that it'll show any solution. As a surface is a pure-touch device there is no risk of bad interaction with the mouse.

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  • Benefits of "Don't Fragment" on TCP Packets?

    - by taspeotis
    One of our customers is having trouble submitting data from our application (on their PC) to a server (different geographical location). When sending packets under 1100 bytes everything works fine, but above this we see TCP retransmitting the packet every few seconds and getting no response. The packets we are using for testing are about 1400 bytes (but less than 1472). I can send an ICMP ping to www.google.com that is 1472 bytes and get a response (so it's not their router/first few hops). I found that our application sets the DF flag for these packets, and I believe a router along the way to the server has an MTU less than/equal to 1100 and dropping the packet. This affects 1 client in 5000, but since everybody's routes will be different this is expected. The data is a SOAP envelope and we expect a SOAP response back. I can't justify WHY we do it, the code to do this was written by a previous developer. So... Are there are benefits OR justification to setting the DF flag on TCP packets for application data? I can think of reasons it is needed for network diagnostics applications but not in our situation (we want the data to get to the endpoint, fragmented or not). One of our sysadmins said that it might have something to do with us using SSL, but as far as I know SSL is like a stream and regardless of fragmentation, as long as the stream is rebuilt at the end, there's no problem. If there's no good justification I will be changing the behaviour of our application. Thanks in advance.

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  • Importing package as a submodule

    - by wecac
    Hi, I have a package 3rd party open source package "foo"; that is in beta phase and I want to tweak it to my requirements. So I don't want to get it installed in /usr/local/lib/python or anywhere in current sys.path as I can't make frequent changes in top level packages. foo/ __init__.py fmod1.py import foo.mod2 fmod2.py pass I want to install the the package "foo" as a sub package of my namespace say "team.my_pkg". So that the "fullname" of the package becomes "team.my_pkg.foo" without changing the code in inner modules that refer "team.my_pkg.foo" as "foo". team/ __init__.py my_pkg/ __init__.py foo/ fmod1.py import foo.mod2 fmod2.py pass One way to do this is to do this in team.my_pkg.init.py: import os.path import sys sys.path.append(os.path.dirname(__file__)) But I think it is very unsafe. I hope there is some way that only fmod1.py and fmod2.py can call "foo" by its short name everything else should use its complete name "team.my_pkg.foo" I mean this should fail outside team/my_pkg/foo: import team.my_pkg import foo But this should succeed outside team/my_pkg/foo: import team.my_pkg.foo

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  • Should I put actors in the Domain-Model/Class-Diagram?

    - by devoured elysium
    When designing both the domain-model and class-diagrams I am having some trouble understanding what to put in them. I'll give an example of what I mean: I am doing a vacations scheduler program, that has an Administrator and End-Users. The Administrator does a couple of things like registering End-Users in the program, changing their previleges, etc. The End-User can choose his vacations days, etc. I initially defined an Administrator and End-User as concepts in the domain-model, and later as classes in the class-diagram. In the class-diagram, both classes ended up having a couple of methods like Administrator.RegisterNewUser(); Administrator.UnregisterUser(int id); etc. Only after some time I realised that actually both Administrator and End-User are actors, and maybe I got this design totally wrong. Instead of filling Administrator and End-User classes with methods to do what my Use-Cases request, I could define other classes from the domain to do them, and have controllers handle the Use-Cases(actually, I decided to do one for each Use-Case). I could have a UserDatabase.RegisterNewUser() and UserDatabase.UnregisterUser(int id);, for example, instead of having those methods on the Administrator class. The idea would be to try to think of the whole vacation-scheduler as a "closed-program" that has a set of features and doesn't bother with things such as authentication, that should be internal/protected, being that the only public things I'd let the outside world see would be its controllers. Is this the right approach? Or am I getting this totally wrong? Is it generally bad idea to put Actors in the domain-model/class-diagrams? What are good rules of thumb for this? My lecturer is following Applying UML and Patterns, which I find awful, so I'd like to know where I could look up more info on this described actor-models situation. I'm still a bit confused about all of this, as this new approach is radically different from anything I've done before.

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  • Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

    - by Coding Gorilla
    I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

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  • Client side page call/scrape?

    - by Silvre
    Here is the problem: I have a web application - a frequently changing notification system - that runs on a series of local computers. The application refreshes every couple of seconds to display the new information. The computers only display info, and do not have keyboards or ANY input device. The issue is that if the connection to the server is lost (say updates are installed and a server must be rebooted), a page not found error is displayed). We must then either reboot all computers that are running this app, OR add a keyboard and refresh the browser, OR try to access each computer remotely and refresh the browser. None of these are good options and result in a lot of frustration. I cannot change the actual application OR server environment. So what I need is some way to test the call to the application, and if an error is returned or it times out, continue trying every minute or so until the connection is reestablished. My idea is to create a client-side page scraper, that makes a JS request to the application (which displays basic HTML), and can run locally on the machine, no server required. If the scrape returns the correct content, it displays it. If not it continues to request the page until the actual page content is returned. Is this possible? What is the best way to do it?

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  • Symfony 1.3: Any opinion about this code? Coud be shorter or better?

    - by user248959
    Hi, I need your opinion about this code below. I have a list of messages: each message has a link that change the state of the message (read - non read). In the partial "_message" i have this: <div class="switching_link" id="switching_link_<?php echo $message ?>"> echo include_partial('link_switch_state', array('message' => $message)) </div> In the partial "_link_switch_state" i have this: if((int)$message->getState() == 1) { $string_state_message="non read"; } else { $string_state_message="read"; } echo link_to_remote('Mark as '.$string_state_message, array( 'url' => 'message/switchState?id='.$message->getId(), 'update' => 'switching_link_'.$message, "complete" => "switchClassMessage('$message');", )); And in message/actions/actions.class.php i have this: public function executeSwitchState(sfWebRequest $request) { // searching the message we want to change its state. $this->messages = Doctrine::getTable('Message')->findById($request->getParameter('id')); // changing the state of the message. if($this->messages[0]->getState() == 1) { $this->messages[0]->setState(0); } else { $this->messages[0]->setState(1); } $this->messages[0]->save(); // rendering the partial that shows the link ("Mark as read/non read"). return $this->renderPartial('mensaje/link_switch_state', array( 'message' => $this->messages[0])); } Regards Javi

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  • Flex/Flash: Don't show 'bar' cursor when dragging over a TextField/TextArea?

    - by David Wolever
    As the title suggests, how can I prevent the "bar" cursor from appearing when I click-and-drag over a TextField? For example, consider this interaction: I'd like to prevent the cursor changing to the "bar" in step "2". How can I do that? I've tried fiddling with the selectable flag: protected static function fixMouseOverAfordance(field:TextField):void { var iOwnClick:Boolean = false; function handleMouseOver(event:MouseEvent):void { if (event.buttonDown) { field.selectable = iOwnClick; } else { field.selectable = true; iOwnClick = false; } } field.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER, handleMouseOver, false, EventPriority.CURSOR_MANAGEMENT+1); field.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, handleMouseOver, false, EventPriority.CURSOR_MANAGEMENT+1); field.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_MOVE, handleMouseOver, false, EventPriority.CURSOR_MANAGEMENT+1); field.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_DOWN, function(event:MouseEvent):void { iOwnClick = true; field.selectable = true; }); } But the "bar" cursor still appears the first time the mouse is moved over the text field (however, after it has been moved out then moved back in, it does the right thing).

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  • What are the interets of synthetic methods?

    - by romaintaz
    Problem One friend suggested an interesting problem. Given the following code: public class OuterClass { private String message = "Hello World"; private class InnerClass { private String getMessage() { return message; } } } From an external class, how may I print the message variable content? Of course, changing the accessibility of methods or fields is not allowed. (the source here, but it is a french blog) Solution The code to solve this problem is the following: try { Method m = OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethod("access$000", OuterClass.class); OuterClass outerClass = new OuterClass(); System.out.println(m.invoke(outerClass, outerClass)); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Note that the access$000 method name is not really standard (even if this format is the one that is strongly recommanded), and some JVM will name this method access$0. Thus, a better solution is to check for synthetic methods: Method method = null; int i = 0; while ((method == null) && (i < OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods().length)) { if (OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods()[i].isSynthetic()) { method = OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods()[i]; } i++; } if (method != null) { try { System.out.println(method.invoke(null, new OuterClass())); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } So the interesting point in this problem is to highlight the use of synthetic methods. With these methods, I can access a private field as it was done in the solution. Of course, I need to use reflection, and I think that the use of this kind of thing can be quite dangerous... Question What is the interest - for me, as a developer - of a synthetic method? What can be a good situation where using the synthetic can be useful?

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  • Dynamic change .click value Jquery IE issue.

    - by user326100
    Hello guys.. it's i first time i'm asking here. Sorry if the answer is available already. I have a very small jQuery script that canges the paramether for onclick attr on a DIV. IT works like as right and left arrows for some content in the middle. BAsically i set the onclick="foo(1)" then when get clicked sld change the value 1 to 2, and keep changing everytime i click. on jQuery functio i'm using: $("#v_arrow_r").attr('onclick','').unbind().click(newclick_next); it works like a charm on FF and Chrome, but does not work on IE !!!! Argh... here the the code: if (start == 24) { var a = 0; var b = 0; } else { var a = start-6; var b = start+6; } next = "home_featured_videos(" + b + ");"; newclick_next = eval("(function(){"+next+"});"); prev = "home_featured_videos(" + a + ");"; newclick_prev = eval("(function(){"+prev+"});"); $('#video-module').css('background',''); $('#video-module').html(response); $("#v_arrow_l").attr('onclick','').unbind().click(newclick_prev); $("#v_arrow_r").attr('onclick','').unbind().click(newclick_next); The html: //CONTENT So like i said.. i define the attr onclick when page open. It work well on IE. but when i click the arrow and call the function the oncli is set to null and i add the function to .click. IE stop working. the click is dead. If anybody have idea why this is happening. Thanx in advance. Kind Regards Varois

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  • Can a T-SQL variable represent an entire row?

    - by elbillaf
    I'm coding for MS SQL Server 10. I have two databases that contain dozens of tables. Each table in one database contains a table with the same name in the other database. Tables with the same name have identical format (fields and data types). The contents of the two tables are similar but not identical. I need to update one based on changes made to the other, but only under certain circumstances. I think I want to use a cursor for this, but I can't find a good example to go by. So far, the MSDN examples are reading one field at a time into a variable. I do need to be able to read /modify two fields which are identical in each table, but I gotta believe there's something less tedious than declaring variables for every field of every table. I would like to be able to FETCH an entire row, check a couple of fields and then make a decision of whether I want to write the entire row to the other table after changing two fields - but do I have to declare variables for EVERY field I want to fetch / write? There's no way to just FETCH an entire row and write an entire row?

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  • My partial is not where rails expects it to be (nested partials)

    - by new2ruby
    I have a model Submissions which has many Performers. I have a partial for showing an individual submissions (app/views/submissions/_submission.html.erb): <div> Show stuff relating to @submission ... <%= render @performers %> </div> and a partial for showing performers (app/views/performers/_performer.html.erb): <%= div_for performer do %> <%= performer.name %> <% end %> This works fine from (app/views/submissions/show.html.erb): <%= render @submission %> But I want to use this from a different namespace too (app/views/curator/submissions/show.html.erb). But I get this error: Missing partial curator/submissions/submission with {:locale=>[:en], :formats=>[:html], :handlers=>[:erb, :builder, :coffee]}. Searched in: * "/Users/ircmullaney/RubyCode/cif/app/views" * "/Users/ircmullaney/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194@rails3tutorial2ndEd/gems/devise-2.1.2/app/views" I can fix this by changing the render to this: <%= render 'submissions/submission' %> But, then the nested partial fails: Missing partial curator/performers/performer with {:locale=>[:en], :formats=>[:html], :handlers=>[:erb, :builder, :coffee]}. Searched in: * "/Users/ircmullaney/RubyCode/cif/app/views" * "/Users/ircmullaney/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194@rails3tutorial2ndEd/gems/devise-2.1.2/app/views" This doesn't work: <%= render 'performers/performer' %> because of the div_for: undefined method `model_name' for NilClass:Class Any ideas how I should do this?

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  • Mysterious HttpSession and session-config dependency

    - by OneMoreVladimir
    Good day. I'm developing a Java web app with Servlets\JSP using Tomcat 7.0. During request from client I put and object into the session and use forward. After the forward processing the same request the object can be retreived if the secure parameter is false otherwise it is not stored in session. <session-config> <session-timeout>15</session-timeout> <cookie-config> <http-only>true</http-only> <secure>true</secure> </cookie-config> <tracking-mode>COOKIE</tracking-mode> </session-config> I've figured out that "...cookies can be created with the 'secure' flag, which ensures that the browser will never transmit the specified cookie over non-SSL...". I've configured Tomcat to use SSL, but that haven't helped. Changing the tracking mode to SSL haven't helped as well. How do session-config and HttpSession object correlate in this case? What could be the problem?

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  • C# Casting system.__comobject to class type

    - by ijrufus
    I have an Excel Add-In that I'm currently trying to set up a unit test framework for. For the unit tests I've followed this guide: http://blogs.msdn.com/b/varsha/archive/2010/08/17/writing-automated-test-cases-for-vsto-application.aspx It seems to work fine, until I want to return a class object from my interface. Specifying the class object as the return type throws a "return argument has an invalid type" exception when calling the method. Changing the return type from the class to an object allows me to call the method and get the object, but now I'm unable to cast it as the class and use it as intended, getting this exception message when I try: > Unable to cast COM object of type 'System.__ComObject' to class type > 'anaplan.Utility.XYCoordinates'. Instances of types that represent COM > components cannot be cast to types that do not represent COM > components; however they can be cast to interfaces as long as the > underlying COM component supports QueryInterface calls for the IID of > the interface. I've retrieved the Type name using VisualBasic.Information.TypeName and it's showing it as the class I expect. Is there any way to get the comobject cast back to the class? Or another way to access the properties it has? Or am I just being a bit stupid here?

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  • pointer to a pointer in a linked list

    - by user1596497
    I'm trying to set a linked list head through pointer to a pointer. I can see inside the function that the address of the head pointer is changing but as i return to the main progran it becomes NULL again. can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong ?? #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> typedef void(*fun_t)(int); typedef struct timer_t { int time; fun_t func; struct timer_t *next; }TIMER_T; void add_timer(int sec, fun_t func, TIMER_T *head); void run_timers(TIMER_T **head); void timer_func(int); int main(void) { TIMER_T *head = NULL; int time = 1; fun_t func = timer_func; while (time < 1000) { printf("\nCalling add_timer(time=%d, func=0x%x, head=0x%x)\n", time, func, &head); add_timer(time, func, head); time *= 2; } run_timers(&head); return 0; } void add_timer(int sec, fun_t func, TIMER_T *head) { TIMER_T ** ppScan=&head; TIMER_T *new_timer = NULL; new_timer = (TIMER_T*)malloc(sizeof(TIMER_T)); new_timer->time = sec; new_timer->func = func; new_timer->next = NULL; while((*ppScan != NULL) && (((**ppScan).time)<sec)) ppScan = &(*ppScan)->next; new_timer->next = *ppScan; *ppScan = new_timer; }

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  • [FLEX] Images won't dynamically refresh

    - by Bridget
    I am writing a Flex application to receive xml from an httpservice. That works because I can populate a datagrid with the information. The xml sends image pathnames. A combobox sends a new HttpService call onChange. This repopulates the datagrid and puts new images in the folder that flex is accessing. I want to dynamically change the image without changing the pathname of the image. <mx:Canvas id="borderCanvas"><mx:Canvas id="dropCanvas"> <mx:Tile id="adTile"><mx:Image></mx:Image> </mx:Tile></mx:Canvas></mx:Canvas> This is my component. I assign my Image sources using this code: var i:Number = 0; while ( i <= dg_conads.rowCount){ var img:Image = new Image(); img.source = null; img.source = imageSource+i+".jpg"; adTile.addChild(img); i++; } My biggest problem is that the images are not refreshing. I get the same image even though I've prevented caching from the HTML wrapper and the ASP.Net website. The image automatically loads in the folder and refreshes in the folder but I can't get the image to refresh in the application. I've tried removeAllChildren(); delete(adTile.getChildAt(0)); and neither worked.

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  • CMD For Loop does not hold set /a value

    - by Bob Hope
    Didn't know how to explain this well, so here is the code @echo off set test=0 for /f %%a in (textfile.txt) do ( rem loops five times(5 lines in textfile.txt) set /a test=test+1 rem Adds 1 to Test echo %%a rem Echo's correct line in file echo %test% rem Echo's whatever X was before the loop ) echo %test% rem Displays the correct value of X pause this is just an example of where I am finding the problem, txtfile.txt has 5 lines, so the for loop goes 5 times, each time, test gets +1 to it, and the /a displays the correct value of X, but the last echo on the for loop displays 0, which is what test is set to before the loop. The value of test is not changing until the loop is finished... is there any way to fix this? Here is what I want to accomplish, as there may be an easier way: I want to run a for loop that findstr's all rtf's in a series of sub folders, and copies them all to a all directory with a new name, 1.rtf,2.rtf,3.rtf, etc. The reason I need to rename them on the transfer is they all have the same name.

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  • Unexpected behaviour of Process.MainWindowHandle

    - by Ed Guiness
    I've been trying to understand Process.MainWindowHandle. According to MSDN; "The main window is the window that is created when the process is started. After initialization, other windows may be opened, including the Modal and TopLevel windows, but the first window associated with the process remains the main window." (Emphasis added) But while debugging I noticed that MainWindowHandle seemed to change value... which I wasn't expecting, especially after consulting the documentation above. To confirm the behaviour I created a standalone WinForms app with a timer to check the MainWindowHandle of the "DEVENV" (Visual Studio) process every 100ms. Here's the interesting part of this test app... IntPtr oldHWnd = IntPtr.Zero; void GetMainwindowHandle() { Process[] processes = Process.GetProcessesByName("DEVENV"); if (processes.Length!=1) return; IntPtr newHWnd = processes[0].MainWindowHandle; if (newHWnd != oldHWnd) { oldHWnd = newHWnd; textBox1.AppendText(processes[0].MainWindowHandle.ToString("X")+"\r\n"); } } private void timer1Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { GetMainwindowHandle(); } You can see the value of MainWindowHandle changing when you (for example) click on a drop-down menu inside VS. Perhaps I've misunderstood the documentation. Can anyone shed light?

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  • Trouble swapping values as keys in generic java BST class

    - by user1729869
    I was given a generic binary search tree class with the following declaration: public class BST<K extends Comparable<K>, V> I was asked to write a method that reverses the BST such that the values become the keys and keys become values. When I call the following method (defined in the class given) reverseDict.put(originalDict.get(key), key); I get the following two error messages from Netbeans: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.RuntimeException: Uncompilable source code - Erroneous sym type: BST.put And also: no suitable method found for put(V,K) method BST.put(BST<K,V>.Node,K,V) is not applicable (actual and formal argument lists differ in length) method BST.put(K,V) is not applicable (actual argument V cannot be converted to K by method invocation conversion) where V,K are type-variables: V extends Object declared in method <K,V>reverseBST(BST<K,V>) K extends Comparable<K> declared in method <K,V>reverseBST(BST<K,V>) From what the error messages are telling me, since my values do not extend Comparable I am unable to use them as keys. If I am right, how can I get around that without changing the class given (maybe a cast)?

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