Search Results

Search found 7506 results on 301 pages for 'parameter sniffing'.

Page 264/301 | < Previous Page | 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271  | Next Page >

• java.awt.Desktop.open doesn’t work with PDF files?

  - by Jason S

  It looks like I cannot use Desktop.open() on PDF files regardless of location. Here's a small test program: package com.example.bugs; import java.awt.Desktop; import java.io.File; import java.io.IOException; public class DesktopOpenBug { static public void main(String[] args) { try { Desktop desktop = null; // Before more Desktop API is used, first check // whether the API is supported by this particular // virtual machine (VM) on this particular host. if (Desktop.isDesktopSupported()) { desktop = Desktop.getDesktop(); for (String path : args) { File file = new File(path); System.out.println("Opening "+file); desktop.open(file); } } } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } If I run DesktopOpenBug with arguments c:\tmp\zz1.txt c:\tmp\zz.xml c:\tmp\ss.pdf (3 files I happen to have lying around) I get this result: (the .txt and .xml files open up fine) Opening c:\tmp\zz1.txt Opening c:\tmp\zz.xml Opening c:\tmp\ss.pdf java.io.IOException: Failed to open file:/c:/tmp/ss.pdf. Error message: The parameter is incorrect. at sun.awt.windows.WDesktopPeer.ShellExecute(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.windows.WDesktopPeer.open(Unknown Source) at java.awt.Desktop.open(Unknown Source) at com.example.bugs.DesktopOpenBug.main(DesktopOpenBug.java:21) What the heck is going on? I'm running WinXP, I can type "c:\tmp\ss.pdf" at the command prompt and it opens up just fine. edit: if this is an example of Sun Java bug #6764271 please help by voting for it. What a pain. :(

  Read the article

• Counting character count in Access database column ins SQL

  - by jzr

  Good Evening. My problem is possibly very easy, I just have spent some time researching now and probably have a brain lock and unable to solve this, help would be much appreciated. database structure: col1 col2 col3 col4 ==================== 1233+4566+ABCD+CDEF 1233+4566+ACD1+CDEF 1233+4566+D1AF+CDEF I need to count character count in col3, wanted result in from the previous table would be: char count =========== A 3 B 1 C 2 D 3 F 1 1 2 is this possible to achieve by using SQL only? at the moment I am thinking of passing a parameter in to SQL query and count the characters one by one and then sum, however I did not start the VBA part yet, and frankly wouldn't want to do that. this is my query at the moment: PARAMETERS X Long; SELECT First(Mid(TABLE.col3,X,1)) AS [col3 Field], Count(Mid(TABLE.col3,X,1)) AS Dcount FROM TEST GROUP BY Mid(TABLE.col3,X,1) HAVING (((Count(Mid([TABLE].[col3],[X],1)))>=1)); ideas and help are much appreciated, as being said this is probably very for some of your guys, I don't usually work with access and SQL. Thanks.

  Read the article

• How to compare 2 button title using index or tag value

  - by fasil moham

  Here my application i having set of button 12 buttons,button titles are hidden by default.Button titles are shown when it is clikced , -(IBAction)buttonAction:(id)sender { UIButton *button = (UIButton *)sender; int index = button.tag; [self showing:index]; //now, this method accepts a parameter. } -(void) showing:(NSInteger)index { UIButton* btn = nil; index = index - 1; NSArray* subViewArray = [self.view subviews]; NSInteger i = 0; for (UIView *view in subViewArray) { if ([view isKindOfClass:[UIButton class]]) { btn = (UIButton*) view; NSString* text; if (i == index) { text = [self.textArray objectAtIndex:i]; //put the array that you are using self.previousButtonTag = i; //make a class variable }else { text = @""; } i++; [btn setTitle:text forState:UIControlStateNormal]; } } } 1.I want to compare two button title values to check whether it is equal or not.Im facing the problem , 2.Only press button title only visible,when i click other button previous title is hided,I want to enable two button title on click and wen it is wrong it should be hided.Please suggest me the How to solve this issue,Please do the needfully

  Read the article

• Refactoring two methods down to one

  - by bflemi3

  I have two methods that almost do the same thing. They get a List<XmlNode> based on state OR state and schoolType and then return a distinct, ordered IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string,string>>. I know they can be refactored but I'm struggling to determine what type the parameter should be for the linq statement in the return of the method (the last line of each method). I thank you for your help in advance. private IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, string>> getAreaDropDownDataSource() { StateInfoXmlDocument stateInfoXmlDocument = new StateInfoXmlDocument(); string schoolTypeXmlPath = string.Format(STATE_AND_SCHOOL_TYPE_XML_PATH, StateOfInterest, ConnectionsLearningSchoolType); var schoolNodes = new List<XmlNode>(stateInfoXmlDocument.SelectNodes(schoolTypeXmlPath).Cast<XmlNode>()); return schoolNodes.Select(x => new KeyValuePair<string, string>(x.Attributes["idLocation"].Value, x.Value)).OrderBy(x => x.Key).Distinct(); } private IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, string>> getStateOfInterestDropDownDataSource() { StateInfoXmlDocument stateInfoXmlDocument = new StateInfoXmlDocument(); string schoolTypeXmlPath = string.Format(SCHOOL_TYPE_XML_PATH, ConnectionsLearningSchoolType); var schoolNodes = new List<XmlNode>(stateInfoXmlDocument.SelectNodes(schoolTypeXmlPath).Cast<XmlNode>()); return schoolNodes.Select(x => new KeyValuePair<string, string>(x.Attributes["stateCode"].Value, x.Attributes["stateName"].Value)).OrderBy(x => x.Key).Distinct(); }

  Read the article

• Difference between std::result_of and decltype

  - by Luc Touraille

  I have some trouble understanding the need for std::result_of in C++0x. If I understood correctly, result_of is used to obtain the resulting type of invoking a function object with certain types of parameters. For example: template <typename F, typename Arg> typename std::result_of<F(Arg)> invoke(F f, Arg a) { return f(a); } I don't really see the difference with the following code: template <typename F, typename Arg> auto invoke(F f, Arg a) -> decltype(f(a)) //uses the f parameter { return f(a); } or template <typename F, typename Arg> auto invoke(F f, Arg a) -> decltype(F()(a)); //"constructs" an F { return f(a); } The only problem I can see with these two solutions is that we need to either: have an instance of the functor to use it in the expression passed to decltype. know a defined constructor for the functor. Am I right in thinking that the only difference between decltype and result_of is that the first one needs an expression whereas the second does not?

  Read the article

• Generic delegate instances

  - by Luc C

  I wonder if C# (or the underlying .NET framework) supports some kind of "generic delegate instances": that is a delegate instance that still has an unresolved type parameter, to be resolved at the time the delegate is invoked (not at the time the delegate is created). I suspect this isn't possible, but I'm asking it anyway... Here is an example of what I'd like to do, with some "???" inserted in places where the C# syntax seems to be unavailable for what I want. (Obviously this code doesn't compile) class Foo { public T Factory<T>(string name) { // implementation omitted } } class Test { public void TestMethod() { Foo foo = new Foo(); ??? magic = foo.Factory; // No type argument given here yet to Factory! // What would the '???' be here (other than 'var' :) )? string aString = magic<string>("name 1"); // type provided on call int anInt = magic<int>("name 2"); // another type provided on another call // Note the underlying calls work perfectly fine, these work, but i'd like to expose // the generic method as a delegate. string aString2 = foo.Factory<string>("name 1"); int anInt2 = foo.Factory<int>("name 2"); } } Is there a way to actually do something like this in C#? If not, is that a limitation in the language, or is it in the .NET framework?

  Read the article

• iPhone: How to run a Beta build, in addition to the App Store build?

  - by rondoagogo

  Hi, All! I have an app on the Store for which we’re readying an update. The other members of our team have the App Store version already loaded up (~purchased) on their respective iPhones -- and those contain User Data which each member needs to be able to keep. In the meantime, we need to test out a Beta version of the next version of the app. Presumably, we’d need to have the two versions (ad hoc, and app store) co-existing on each device, at least until everyone’s signed off on the beta, and it’s uploaded to the store (at which point, they'd delete the beta version). [Once it’s on the Store, of course, they can each update their main (i.e., Release) version of the app via the usual App Store 'update' mechanism -- and then delete the beta version from their devices. In that case, all their user data is still retained intact.] So assuming that’s the proper workflow ... How do I issue a Beta to the team, and have it not replace/overwrite the existing App Store version? I’ve tried customizing parameters in the beta’s “[appname]-Info.plist”, but haven’t found a setting yet that allows the two versions (beta and release) to co-exist on the same device. Any ideas? And is this this is the proper approach to them being able to keep their data? (And last, how might I do it with & without a script? I assume there's just one parameter that'd need to be changed.) I hope this all makes sense -- thank you in advance for your help!

  Read the article

• Delphi static method of a class returning property value

  - by mitko.berbatov

  I'm making a Delphi VCL application. There is a class TStudent where I have two static functions: one which returns last name from an array of TStudent and another one which returns the first name of the student. Their code is something like: class function TStudent.FirstNameOf(aLastName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].LastName = aLastName then begin result := studentsArray[i].FirstName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; class function TStudent.LastNameOf(aFirstName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].FirstName = aFirstName then begin result := studentsArray[i].LastName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; My question is how can I avoid writing almost same code twice. Is there any way to pass the property as parameter of the functions.

  Read the article

• Joomla get plugin id

  - by Christian Sciberras

  I wrote a Joomla plugin which will eventually load a library. The path to library is a plugin parameter, as such when the path is incorrect, a message pops up in the backend, together with a link to edit the plugin parameters: /administrator/index.php?option=com_plugins&view=plugin&client=site&task=edit&cid[]=36 See the 36 at the end? That's my plugin's id in the database (table jos_plugins). My issue is that this id changes on installation, ie, on different installs, it would be something else. So I need to find this id programmatically. The problem is that I couldn't find this id from the plugin object itself (as to why not, that would be joomla's arguably short-sighted design decision). So unless you know about some neat trick, (I've checked and double checked JPlugin and JPluginHelper classes), I'll be using the DB. Edit; Some useful links: http://docs.joomla.org/Plugin_Developer_Overview http://api.joomla.org/Joomla-Framework/Plugin/JPlugin.html http://api.joomla.org/Joomla-Framework/Plugin/JPluginHelper.html http://forum.joomla.org/viewtopic.php?p=2227737 Guess I'll be using the wisdom from that last link...

  Read the article

• Why would this query cause a Merge Cartesian Join in Oracle

  - by decompiled

  I have a query that was recently required to be modified. Here's the original SELECT RTRIM (position) AS "POSITION", . // Other fields . . FROM schema.table x WHERE hours > 0 AND pay = 'RGW' AND NOT EXISTS( SELECT position FROM schema.table2 y where y.position = x.position ) Here's the new version SELECT RTRIM (position) AS "POSITION", . // Other fields . . FROM schema.table x WHERE hours > 0 AND pay = 'RGW' AND NOT EXISTS( SELECT position FROM schema.table2 y where y.date = get_fiscal_year_start_date (SYSDATE) AND y.position = x.position ) The UDF get_fiscal_year_start_date() returns the fiscal year start date of the date parameter. The first query runs fine, but the second creates a merge Cartesian join. I looked at the indexes on the tables and found that position and date were both indexed. My question for you stackoverflow is why would the addition of 'y.date = get_fiscal_year_start_date (SYSDATE)' cause a merge cartesian join in Oracle 10g.

  Read the article

• POSIX Sockets: How to detect Ctrl-C sent over Telnet?

  - by ogott

  Short Question What's the right way to handle a Ctrl-C event sent over Telnet on the server side? Long Question After calling recv() on a socket, I'd like to handle some situations appropriately. One of them is to return a certain error code when Ctrl-C was received. What's the correct way to detect this? The following works, but it just doesn't seem right: size_t recv_count; static char ctrl_c[5] = {0xff, 0xf4, 0xff, 0xfd, 0x06}; recv_count = recv(socket, buffer, buffer_size, 0); if (recv_count == sizeof(ctrl_c) && memcmp(buffer, ctrl_c, sizeof(ctrl_c) == 0) { return CTRL_C_RECEIVED; } I found a comment on Ctrl-C in a side-note in this UNIX Socket FAQ: [...] (by the way, out-of-band is often used for that ctrl-C, too). As I understand, receiving out-of-band data is done using recv() with a certain flag as the last parameter. But when I'm waiting for data using recv() as I do in the code above, I can't read out-of-band data at the same time. Apart from that, I'm getting something using recv() without that oob-flag.

  Read the article

• Can anyone help with this (Javascript arrays)?

  - by Rich

  Hi I am new to Netui and Javascript so go easy on me please. I have a form that is populated with container.item data retuned from a database. I am adding a checkbox beside each repeater item returned and I want to add the container item data to an array when one of the checkboxes is checked for future processing. The old code used Anchor tag to capture the data but that does not work for me. <!--netui:parameter name="lineupNo" value="{container.item.lineupIdent.lineupNo}" /> here is my checkbox that is a repeater. <netui:checkBox dataSource="{pageFlow.checkIsSelected}" onClick="checkBoxClicked()" tagId="pceChecked"/> this is my Javascript function so far but I want to a way to store the container.item.lineupIdent.lineupNo in the array. function checkBoxClicked() { var checkedPce = []; var elem = document.getElementById("PceList").elements; for (var i = 0; i < elem.length; i ++) { if (elem[i].name == netui_names.pceChecked) { if (elem[i].checked == true) { //do some code. } } } } I hope this is enough info for someone to help me. I have searched the web but could not find any examples. Thanks.

  Read the article

• What is a good solution to log the deletion of a row in MySQL?

  - by hobodave

  Background I am currently logging deletion of rows from my tickets table at the application level. When a user deletes a ticket the following SQL is executed: INSERT INTO alert_log (user_id, priority, priorityName, timestamp, message) VALUES (9, 4, 'WARN', NOW(), "TICKET: David A. deleted ticket #6 from Foo"); Please do not offer schema suggestions for the alert_log table. Fields: user_id - User id of the logged in user performing the deletion priority - Always 4 priorityName - Always 'WARN' timestamp - Always NOW() message - Format: "[NAMESPACE]: [FullName] deleted ticket #[TicketId] from [CompanyName]" NAMESPACE - Always TICKET FullName - Full name of user identified by user_id above TicketId - Primary key ID of the ticket being deleted CompanyName - Ticket has a Company via tickets.company_id Situation/Questions Obviously this solution does not work if a ticket is deleted manually from the mysql command line client. However, now I need to. The issues I'm having are as follows: Should I use a PROCEDURE, FUNCTION, or TRIGGER? -- Analysis: TRIGGER - I don't think this will work because I can't pass parameters to it, and it would trigger when my application deleted the row too. PROCEDURE or FUNCTION - Not sure. Should I return the number of deleted rows? If so, that would require a FUNCTION right? How should I account for the absence of a logged in user? -- Possibilities: Using either a PROC or FUNC, require the invoker to pass in a valid user_id Require the user to pass in a string with the name Use the CURRENT_USER - meh Hard code the FullName to just be "Database Administrator" Could the name be an optional parameter? I'm rather green when it comes to sprocs. Assuming I went with the PROC/FUNC approach, is it possible to outright restrict regular DELETE calls to this table, yet still allow users to call this PROC/FUNC to do the deletion for them? Ideally the solution is usable by my application as well, so that my code is DRY.

  Read the article

• JavaScript Key Codes

  - by Jonathan Wood

  I'm working with a JavaScript routine I didn't write. It is called from a text box's onkeydown attribute to prevent unwanted keystrokes. The first argument is apparently not used. The second argument is a list of characters that should be allowed. function RestrictChars(evt, chars) { var key; var keychar; if (window.event) key = window.event.keyCode; else if (e) key = e.which; else return true; keychar = String.fromCharCode(key); if ((key == null) || (key == 0) || (key == 8) || (key == 9) || (key == 13) || (key == 27)) // Control key return true; else if (((chars).indexOf(keychar) > -1)) return true; else return false; } This seems to work for alpha-numeric characters. However, characters such as . and / cause this function to return false, even when these characters are included in the chars parameter. For example, if the . key is pressed, key is set to 190, and keychar gets set to the "3/4" character. Can anyone see how this was meant to work and/or why it doesn't? I don't know enough about JavaScript to see what it's trying to do.

  Read the article

• Parsing a Multi-Index Excel File in Pandas

  - by rhaskett

  I have a time series excel file with a tri-level column MultiIndex that I would like to successfully parse if possible. There are some results on how to do this for an index on stack overflow but not the columns and the parse function has a header that does not seem to take a list of rows. The ExcelFile looks like is like the following: Column A is all the time series dates starting on A4 Column B has top_level1 (B1) mid_level1 (B2) low_level1 (B3) data (B4-B100+) Column C has null (C1) null (C2) low_level2 (C3) data (C4-C100+) Column D has null (D1) mid_level2 (D2) low_level1 (D3) data (D4-D100+) Column E has null (E1) null (E2) low_level2 (E3) data (E4-E100+) ... So there are two low_level values many mid_level values and a few top_level values but the trick is the top and mid level values are null and are assumed to be the values to the left. So, for instance all the columns above would have top_level1 as the top multi-index value. My best idea so far is to use transpose, but the it fills Unnamed: # everywhere and doesn't seem to work. In Pandas 0.13 read_csv seems to have a header parameter that can take a list, but this doesn't seem to work with parse.

  Read the article

• How to store arbitrary data for some HTML tags

  - by nickf

  I'm making a page which has some interaction provided by javascript. Just as an example: links which send an AJAX request to get the content of articles and then display that data in a div. Obviously in this example, I need each link to store an extra bit of information: the id of the article. The way I've been handling it in case was to put that information in the href link this: <a class="article" href="#5"> I then use jQuery to find the a.article elements and attach the appropriate event handler. (don't get too hung up on the usability or semantics here, it's just an example) Anyway, this method works, but it smells a bit, and isn't extensible at all (what happens if the click function has more than one parameter? what if some of those parameters are optional?) The immediately obvious answer was to use attributes on the element. I mean, that's what they're for, right? (Kind of). <a articleid="5" href="link/for/non-js-users.html"> In my recent question I asked if this method was valid, and it turns out that short of defining my own DTD (I don't), then no, it's not valid or reliable. A common response was to put the data into the class attribute (though that might have been because of my poorly-chosen example), but to me, this smells even more. Yes it's technically valid, but it's not a great solution. Another method I'd used in the past was to actually generate some JS and insert it into the page in a <script> tag, creating a struct which would associate with the object. var myData = { link0 : { articleId : 5, target : '#showMessage' // etc... }, link1 : { articleId : 13 } }; <a href="..." id="link0"> But this can be a real pain in butt to maintain and is generally just very messy. So, to get to the question, how do you store arbitrary pieces of information for HTML tags?

  Read the article

• Manipulate method functionality call

  - by danrichardson

  Hello, is it possibly in c# to have some sort of base class functionality which is manipulated slightly based on the class. For instance say i have the following code (which will quite obviously not compile it's meant to only be for demonstrative purposes) class BaseFunctionality { public virtual bool adminCall public static string MethodName(int id, string parameter) { if (adminCall) return dbcall.Execute(); else return dbcall.ExecuteMe(); } } class Admin : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = true; } class Front : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = false; } Now what i would like to be able to do is; string AdminCall = Admin.MethodName(1, "foo"); string FrontCall = Front.MethodName(2, "bar"); Is their any way to do something like this? I'm trying to do everything with static methods so i do not have to instantiate classes all the time, and have nice clean code which is only being manipulated in one place. The idea behind this is so that there is minimal code repeating and makes things easier to expand on, so for instance another class could implement the BaseFunctionality later on. Thanks Dan

  Read the article

• Select Query Joined on Two Fields?

  - by btollett

  I've got a few tables in an access database: ID | LocationName 1 | Location1 2 | Location2 ID | LocationID | Date | NumProductsDelivered 1 | 1 | 12/10 | 3 2 | 1 | 01/11 | 2 3 | 1 | 02/11 | 2 4 | 2 | 11/10 | 1 5 | 2 | 12/10 | 1 ID | LocationID | Date | NumEmployees | EmployeeType 1 | 1 | 12/10 | 10 | 1 (=Permanent) 2 | 1 | 12/10 | 3 | 2 (=Temporary) 3 | 1 | 12/10 | 1 | 3 (=Support) 4 | 2 | 10/10 | 1 | 1 5 | 2 | 11/10 | 2 | 1 6 | 2 | 11/10 | 1 | 2 7 | 2 | 11/10 | 1 | 3 8 | 2 | 12/10 | 2 | 1 9 | 2 | 12/10 | 1 | 3 What I want to do is pass in the LocationID as a parameter and get back something like the following table. So, if I pass in 2 as my LocationID, I should get: Date | NumProductsDelivered | NumPermanentEmployees | NumSupportEmployees 10/10 | | 1 | 11/10 | 1 | 2 | 1 12/10 | 1 | 2 | 1 It seems like this should be a pretty simple query. I really don't even need the first table except as a way to fill in the combo box on the form from which the user chooses which location they want a report for. Unfortunately, everything I've done has resulted in me getting a lot more data than I should be getting. My confusion is in how to set up the join (presumably that's what I'm looking for here) given that I want both the date and locationID to be the same for each row in the result set. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• get the right id of a record in database in each click on the edit button

  - by kawtousse

  hi every one, i am facing a big problem right now. I have a html table in each row i have a button called edit allowing user to relod the form with parameter that he has selected. for this i define a hidden type to get the id of the record in database to access to various colonne and to refresh the form with those parameters. My challenge now is how to get the right id in every click on the edit button to let me after to get the right record and to update it in the data base. I am preceeding like the following: retour.append("<td style=border-right:#FFF bordercolor=#FFFFFF>"); retour.append("<input type=\"hidden\" id=\"id_"+nomTab+"_"+compteur+"\" value=\""+object.getIdDailyTimeSheet()+"\" name=\"hd"+compteur+"\" />"); retour.append("<button id=edit name=edit type=button onClick= editarow()>"); retour.append("<img src=edit.gif />"); retour.append("</button>"); retour.append("</td>"); i realise the submit in javascript and i want to get the idDailyTimesheet everyonce the user click the submit button. thanks for help.

  Read the article

• initialize jquery slider with hidden input value from database.

  - by ludwigs3rd

  I'm using a slider as user input for a screen. Basically it's a bulk update screen where there is a table with multiple rows, thus multiple sliders. I created it so that the hidden value is what gets posted in the form. <td> <input class="percentageProvidedHidden" type="hidden" name='<%= "Values[" + i + "].Percentage" %>' value='<%=item.Percentage %>' /> <div class="percentageProvidedSlider"></div> </td> I have the update working just fine (move slider changes hidden input value, submit, values are updated in db), however, I can't get the damn thing to initialize with the value of the hidden input (note the "value: " parameter below). In this case I think $(this) isn't actually $('percentageProvidedSlider') but the page itself. Can someone help me get the slider value to initialize with the hidden input field? I'm using ASP .Net MVC 2 so if there are any methods I should try with that I welcome them as well. $('.percentageProvidedSlider').slider( { min: 0, max: 100, step: 25, value: $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(), slide: function(e, ui) { var mypos = ui.value; $(this).find('.ui-slider-handle').text(ui.value); }, change: function(event, ui) { var myVal = $(this).slider("option", "value"); $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(myVal); var myDropDown = $(this).parents('tr').find('select.verified'); } });

  Read the article

• Corrupt output with an HttpModule

  - by clementi

  I have an HttpModule that looks at the query string for a parameter called "cmd" and executes one of a small set of predefined commands that display server stats in XML. For example, http://server01?cmd=globalstats. Now, on rare occasions, like once out of hundreds of times, I will get corrupt output like this: <!-- the stats start displaying fine... --> <stats> <ServerName>SERVER01</ServerName> <StackName>Search</StackName> <TotalRequests>945</TotalRequests> <!-- ...until something has gone awry and now we're getting the markup of the home page! --> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> ...the rest of the home page markup... (Remove the comments in the example above.) I'm not all that familiar with HttpModules and the IIS pipeline, but could this be a threading problem? Or, what else?

  Read the article

• System.Threading.Timer won't trigger

  - by mijatovic

  Hello guys, I am new here... I have one question, if somebody can help me. It is about timers (System.Threading.Timer). I want to break inevitable recursion: I have two columns in datarow and they are mutually dependant (price_without_VAT and price_with_VAT). Setting one of them will definitely cause StackOverflowException. So here's the idea: bool flag = true; void Reset(object state) { flag = true; } Now, wrap the method for changing value of one of the columns: { if(flag) { flag = false; System.Threading.Timer tmr = new System.Threading.Timer(new System.Threading.TimerCallback(Reset), null, 10, System.Threading.Timeout.Infinite); datarow.other_column = value; } } datarow.other_column.value line will immediately trigger the above method, but there will be no recursion because flag is false. In 10 ms flag should be back to true, and everything is back to normal. Now, when i follow the code in DEBUGGER, everything works fine, but when I start app NORMALLY Reset function simply will not trigger, flag is stuck to false forever and everything false apart. I play around with due_time parameter but nothing seems to help. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• java class that simulates a simple database table

  - by ericso

  I have a collection of heterogenous data that I pull from a database table mtable. Then, for every unique value uv in column A, I compute a function of (SELECT * FROM mtable WHERE A=uv). Then I do the same for column B, and column C. There are rather a lot of unique values, so I don't want to hit the db repeatedly - I would rather have a class that replicates some of the functionality (most importantly some version of SELECT WHERE). Additionally, I would like to abstract the column names away from the class definition, if that makes any sense - the constructor should take a list of names as a parameter, and also, I suppose, a list of types (right now this is just a String[], which seems hacky). I'm getting the initial data from a RowSet. I've more or less done this by using a hashmap that maps Strings to lists/arrays of Objects, but I keep getting bogged down in comparisons and types, and am thinking that my current implementation really isn't as clean and clear as it could be. I'm pretty new to java, also, and am not sure if I'm not going down a completely incorrect path. Does anyone have any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Usage of CRTP in a call chain

  - by fhw72

  In my widget library I'd like to implement some kind of call chain to initialize a user supplied VIEW class which might(!) be derived from another class which adds some additional functionality like this: #include <iostream> template<typename VIEW> struct App { VIEW view; void init() {view.initialize(); } }; template<typename DERIVED> struct SpecializedView { void initialize() { std::cout << "SpecializedView" << std::endl; static_cast<DERIVED*>(this)->initialize(); } }; struct UserView : SpecializedView<UserView> { void initialize() {std::cout << "UserView" << std::endl; } }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { // Cannot be altered to: App<SpecializedView<UserView> > app; App<UserView> app; app.init(); return 0; } Is it possible to achieve some kind of call chain (if the user supplied VIEW class is derived from "SpecializedView") such that the output will be: console output: SpecializedView UserView Of course it would be easy to instantiate variable app with the type derived from but this code is hidden in the library and should not be alterable. In other words: The library code should only get the user derived type as parameter.

  Read the article

• How to emulate a BEFORE DELETE trigger in SQL Server 2005

  - by Mark

  Let's say I have three tables, [ONE], [ONE_TWO], and [TWO]. [ONE_TWO] is a many-to-many join table with only [ONE_ID and [TWO_ID] columns. There are foreign keys set up to link [ONE] to [ONE_TWO] and [TWO] to [ONE_TWO]. The FKs use the ON DELETE CASCADE option so that if either a [ONE] or [TWO] record is deleted, the associated [ONE_TWO] records will be automatically deleted as well. I want to have a trigger on the [TWO] table such that when a [TWO] record is deleted, it executes a stored procedure that takes a [ONE_ID] as a parameter, passing the [ONE_ID] values that were linked to the [TWO_ID] before the delete occurred: DECLARE @Statement NVARCHAR(max) SET @Statement = '' SELECT @Statement = @Statement + N'EXEC [MyProc] ''' + CAST([one_two].[one_id] AS VARCHAR(36)) + '''; ' FROM deleted JOIN [one_two] ON deleted.[two_id] = [one_two].[two_id] EXEC (@Statement) Clearly, I need a BEFORE DELETE trigger, but there is no such thing in SQL Server 2005. I can't use an INSTEAD OF trigger because of the cascading FK. I get the impression that if I use a FOR DELETE trigger, when I join [deleted] to [ONE_TWO] to find the list of [ONE_ID] values, the FK cascade will have already deleted the associated [ONE_TWO] records so I will never find any [ONE_ID] values. Is this true? If so, how can I achieve my objective? I'm thinking that I'd need to change the FK joining [TWO] to [ONE_TWO] to not use cascades and to do the delete from [ONE_TWO] manually in the trigger just before I manually delete the [TWO] records. But I'd rather not go through all that if there is a simpler way.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271  | Next Page >