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• What's the best Scala build system?

  - by gatoatigrado

  I've seen questions about IDE's here -- Which is the best IDE for Scala development? and What is the current state of tooling for Scala?, but I've had mixed experiences with IDEs. Right now, I'm using the Eclipse IDE with the automatic workspace refresh option, and KDE 4's Kate as my text editor. Here are some of the problems I'd like to solve: use my own editor IDEs are really geared at everyone using their components. I like Kate better, but the refresh system is very annoying (it doesn't use inotify, rather, maybe a 10s polling interval). The reason I don't use the built-in text editor is because broken auto-complete functionalities cause the IDE to hang for maybe 10s. rebuild only modified files The Eclipse build system is broken. It doesn't know when to rebuild classes. I find myself almost half of the time going to project-clean. Worse, it seems even after it has finished building my project, a few minutes later it will pop up with some bizarre error (edit - these errors appear to be things that were previously solved with a project clean, but then come back up...). Finally, setting "Preferences / Continue launch if project contains errors" to "prompt" seems to have no effect for Scala projects (i.e. it always launches even if there are errors). build customization I can use the "nightly" release, but I'll want to modify and use my own Scala builds, not the compiler that's built into the IDE's plugin. It would also be nice to pass [e.g.] -Xprint:jvm to the compiler (to print out lowered code). fast compiling Though Eclipse doesn't always build right, it does seem snappy -- even more so than fsc. I looked at Ant and Maven, though haven't employed either yet (I'll also need to spend time solving #3 and #4). I wanted to see if anyone has other suggestions before I spend time getting a suboptimal build system working. Thanks in advance! UPDATE - I'm now using Maven, passing a project as a compiler plugin to it. It seems fast enough; I'm not sure what kind of jar caching Maven does. A current repository for Scala 2.8.0 is available [link]. The archetypes are very cool, and cross-platform support seems very good. However, about compile issues, I'm not sure if fsc is actually fixed, or my project is stable enough (e.g. class names aren't changing) -- running it manually doesn't bother me as much. If you'd like to see an example, feel free to browse the pom.xml files I'm using [github]. UPDATE 2 - from benchmarks I've seen, Daniel Spiewak is right that buildr's faster than Maven (and, if one is doing incremental changes, Maven's 10 second latency gets annoying), so if one can craft a compatible build file, then it's probably worth it...

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• How can I make the C# compiler infer these type parameters automatically?

  - by John Feminella

  I have some code that looks like the following. First I have some domain classes and some special comparators for them. public class Fruit { public int Calories { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class FruitEqualityComparer : IEqualityComparer<Fruit> { // ... } public class BasketEqualityComparer : IEqualityComparer<IEnumerable<Fruit>> { // ... } Next, I have a helper class called ConstraintChecker. It has a simple BaseEquals method that makes sure some simple base cases are considered: public static class ConstraintChecker { public static bool BaseEquals(T lhs, T rhs) { bool sameObject = l == r; bool leftNull = l == null; bool rightNull = r == null; return sameObject && !leftNull && !rightNull; } There's also a SemanticEquals method which is just a BaseEquals check and a comparator function that you specify. public static bool SemanticEquals<T>(T lhs, T rhs, Func<T, T, bool> f) { return BaseEquals(lhs, rhs) && f(lhs, rhs); } And finally there's a SemanticSequenceEquals method which accepts two IEnumerable<T> instances to compare, and an IEqualityComparer instance that will get called on each pair of elements in the list via Enumerable.SequenceEquals. public static bool SemanticSequenceEquals<T, U, V>(U lhs, U rhs, V comparator) where U : IEnumerable<T> where V : IEqualityComparer<T> { return SemanticEquals(lhs, rhs, (l, r) => lhs.SequenceEqual(rhs, comparator)); } } // end of ConstraintChecker The point of SemanticSequenceEquals is that you don't have to define two comparators whenever you want to compare both IEnumerable<T> and T instances; now you can just specify an IEqualityComparer<T> and it will also handle lists when you invoke SemanticSequenceEquals. So I could get rid of the BasketEqualityComparer class, which would be nice. But there's a problem. The C# compiler can't figure out the types involved when you invoke SemanticSequenceEquals: return ConstraintChecker.SemanticSequenceEquals(lhs, rhs, new FruitEqualityComparer()); If I specify them explicitly, it works: return ConstraintChecker.SemanticSequenceEquals< Fruit, IEnumerable<Fruit>, IEqualityComparer<Fruit> > (lhs, rhs, new FruitEqualityComparer()); What can I change here so that I don't have to write the type parameters explicitly?

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• Seeking STL-aware c++filt

  - by Don Wakefield

  In my development environment, I'm compiling a code base using GNU C++ 3.4.6. Code is under development, and unfortunately crashes now and then. It's nice to be able to run the traceback through a demangler, and I use c++filt 3.4. The problem comes when functions have a number of STL parameters. Consider My_callback::operator()( Status&, std::set<std::string> const&, std::vector<My_parameter*> const&, My_attribute_set const&, std::vector<My_parameter_base*> const&, std::vector<My_parameter> const&, std::set<std::string> const& ) { // ... } When this function is in the traceback, the mangled output on my platform is: (_ZN30My_callbackclER11StatusRKSt3setISsSt4lessISsESaISsEERKSt6vectorIP13My_parameterSaISB_EERK17My_attribute_setRKS9_IP18My_parameter_baseSaISK_EERKS9_ISA_SaISA_EES8_+0x76a) [0x13ffdaa] c++filt kindly demangles it to (My_callback::operator()(Status&, std::set<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >, std::less<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > >, std::allocator<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > > > const&, std::vector<My_parameter*, std::allocator<My_parameter*> > const&, My_attribute_set const&, std::vector<My_parameter_base*, std::allocator<My_parameter_base*> > const&, std::vector<My_parameter, std::allocator<My_parameter> > const&, std::set<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >, std::less<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > >, std::allocator<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > > > const&)+0x76a) [0x13ffdaa] This is the same problem as compiler errors encountered when using templates. However, the STL is a fairly regular and recognizable package of templates. So what I'm hoping is that someone out there has created an enhanced version of c++filt which would dump something closer to the original function signature. Any hints?

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• Non Document Centric SharePoint Workflow

  - by Dan Revell

  SharePoint workflows are document centric in that the base thing the workflow runs on has to be a thing; be it a document or just a list item. The workflow itself is task based, so stuff a user has to do. Now I can put any sort of code in these tasks that I want to and even put complex InfoPath forms in for the user to perform the task. This has been fine on all my previous workflows. But what if I want the tasks to be actual official forms themselves. The item that the workflow runs on is just some abstract concept like an event. An example could be an accident has happened. There isn't an accident form, but a whole set of forms that need to be completed by different people. Task forms aren't really a nice way to go, because it locks all the forms into the task list. You can only access the forms by not deleting the tasks when complete and going to the workflow summery and following the task links to the InfoPath forms or going straight to the tasks list and doing a filter on particular "accidents". These are official documents so ideally there would be a library for each type of document and the workflow would orchestrate the completion of the right forms. It would mean each task would have to create a new blank form and then link the user to that form. The user would go complete the form but then have to go back to the task form and click yes I've completed it until the workflow could progress. Well this is short of the workflow monitoring the forms library form for some completion trigger. But then it all gets messy with the user experience from clicking the link in the task email, to open the Infopath task form, to clicking the link in the subsequent Infopath library form and then return through these forms on completion. It just gets messy trying to retrofit this non document centric sort of workflow into SharePoint. I would really appreciate any input on what might be the best way to do this. Store the forms as task forms Store the forms as library forms and create/link from the task forms Store the forms as different infopath views, and use a forms library. The workflow would trigger variables that progress the view the infopath form shows. Using the same form template for both task forms and a forms library and when a task form is complete, copy the xml into the forms library to have a official record outside of the workflow. Thanks

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• MySQL foreign key creation with alter table command

  - by user313338

  I created some tables using MySQL Workbench, and then did forward ‘forward engineer’ to create scripts to create these tables. BUT, the scripts lead me to a number of problems. One of which involves the foreign keys. So I tried creating separate foreign key additions using alter table and I am still getting problems. The code is below (the set statements, drop/create statements I left in … though I don’t think they should matter for this): SET @OLD_UNIQUE_CHECKS=@@UNIQUE_CHECKS, UNIQUE_CHECKS=0; SET @OLD_FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS=@@FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS, FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS=0; SET @OLD_SQL_MODE=@@SQL_MODE, SQL_MODE='TRADITIONAL'; DROP SCHEMA IF EXISTS `mydb` ; CREATE SCHEMA IF NOT EXISTS `mydb` DEFAULT CHARACTER SET latin1 COLLATE latin1_swedish_ci ; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`User` -- ----------------------------------------------------- DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `mydb`.`User` ; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`User` ( `UserName` VARCHAR(35) NOT NULL , `Num_Accts` INT NOT NULL , `Password` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `Email` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `User_ID` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`User_ID`) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`User_Space` -- ----------------------------------------------------- DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `mydb`.`User_Space` ; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`User_Space` ( `User_UserName` VARCHAR(35) NOT NULL , `User_Space_ID` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`User_Space_ID`), FOREIGN KEY (`User_UserName`) REFERENCES `mydb`.`User` (`UserName`) ON UPDATE CASCADE ON DELETE CASCADE) ENGINE = InnoDB; SET SQL_MODE=@OLD_SQL_MODE; SET FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS=@OLD_FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS; SET UNIQUE_CHECKS=@OLD_UNIQUE_CHECKS; The error this produces is: Error Code: 1005 Can't create table 'mydb.user_space' (errno: 150) Anybody know what the heck I’m doing wrong?? And anybody else have problems with the script generation done by mysql workbench? It’s a nice tool, but annoying that it pumps out scripts that don’t work for me. [As an fyi here’s the script it auto-generates: SET @OLD_UNIQUE_CHECKS=@@UNIQUE_CHECKS, UNIQUE_CHECKS=0; SET @OLD_FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS=@@FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS, FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS=0; SET @OLD_SQL_MODE=@@SQL_MODE, SQL_MODE='TRADITIONAL'; DROP SCHEMA IF EXISTS `mydb` ; CREATE SCHEMA IF NOT EXISTS `mydb` DEFAULT CHARACTER SET latin1 COLLATE latin1_swedish_ci ; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`User` -- ----------------------------------------------------- DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `mydb`.`User` ; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`User` ( `UserName` VARCHAR(35) NOT NULL , `Num_Accts` INT NOT NULL , `Password` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `Email` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `User_ID` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`User_ID`) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`User_Space` -- ----------------------------------------------------- DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `mydb`.`User_Space` ; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`User_Space` ( `User_Space_ID` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`User_Space_ID`) , INDEX `User_ID` () , CONSTRAINT `User_ID` FOREIGN KEY () REFERENCES `mydb`.`User` () ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; SET SQL_MODE=@OLD_SQL_MODE; SET FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS=@OLD_FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS; SET UNIQUE_CHECKS=@OLD_UNIQUE_CHECKS; ** Thanks!]

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• RenderTargetBitmap + Resource'd VisualBrush = incomplete image

  - by Will

  I've found a new twist on the "Visual to RenderTargetBitmap" question! I'm rendering previews of WPF stuff for a designer. That means I need to take a WPF visual and render it to a bitmap without that visual ever being displayed. Got a nice little method to do it like to see it here it goes private static BitmapSource CreateBitmapSource(FrameworkElement visual) { Border b = new Border { Width = visual.Width, Height = visual.Height }; b.BorderBrush = Brushes.Black; b.BorderThickness = new Thickness(1); b.Background = Brushes.White; b.Child = visual; b.Measure(new Size(b.Width, b.Height)); b.Arrange(new Rect(b.DesiredSize)); RenderTargetBitmap rtb = new RenderTargetBitmap( (int)b.ActualWidth, (int)b.ActualHeight, 96, 96, PixelFormats.Pbgra32); // intermediate step here to ensure any VisualBrushes are rendered properly DrawingVisual dv = new DrawingVisual(); using (var dc = dv.RenderOpen()) { var vb = new VisualBrush(b); dc.DrawRectangle(vb, null, new Rect(new Point(), b.DesiredSize)); } rtb.Render(dv); return rtb; } Works fine, except for one leeetle thing... if my FrameworkElement has a VisualBrush, that brush doesn't end up in the final rendered bitmap. Something like this: <UserControl.Resources> <VisualBrush x:Key="LOLgo"> <VisualBrush.Visual> <!-- blah blah --> <Grid Background="{StaticResource LOLgo}"> <!-- yadda yadda --> Everything else renders to the bitmap, but that VisualBrush just won't show. The obvious google solutions have been attempted and have failed. Even the ones that specifically mention VisualBrushes missing from RTB'd bitmaps. I have a sneaky suspicion this might be caused by the fact that its a Resource, and that lazy resource isn't being inlined. So a possible fix would be to, somehow(???), force resolution of all static resource references before rendering. But I have absolutely no idea how to do that. Anybody have a fix for this?

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• Passing array into constructor to use on JList

  - by OVERTONE

  I know the title sound confusing and thats because it is. its a bit long so try too stay with me. this is the layout i have my code designed variables constructor methods. im trying too fill a Jlist full on names. i want too get those names using a method. so here goes. in my variables i have my JList. its called contactNames; i also have an array which stores 5 strings which are the contacts names; heres the code for that anyway String contact1; String contact2; String contact3; String contact4; String contact5; String[] contactListNames; JList contactList; simple enough. then in my constructor i have the Jlist defined to fill itself with the contents of the array fillContactList(); JList contactList = new JList(contactListNames); that method fillContactList() is coming up shortly. notice i dont have the array defined in the constructor. so heres my first question. can i do that? define the array to contain something in te constructor rather than filling it fromt the array. now heres where stuff gets balls up. ive created three different methods all of which havent worked. basically im trying to fill the array with all of them. this is the simplest one. it doesnt set the Jlist, it doesnt do anything compilicated. all it trys too do is fill the array one bit at a time public void fillContactList() { for(int i = 0;i<3;i++) { try { String contact; System.out.println(" please fill the list at index "+ i); Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); contact = in.next(); contactListNames[i] = contact; in.nextLine(); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } unfortunately this doesnt qwork. i get the print out to fill it at index 0; i input something and i get a nice big stack trace starting at contactListNames[i] = contact; so my two questions in short are how i define an array in a constructor. and why cant i fill the array from that method. ************************888 **************************888 stack trace by request please fill the list at index 0 overtone java.lang.NullPointerException please fill the list at index 1 at project.AdminMessages.fillContactList(AdminMessages.java:408) at project.AdminMessages.<init>(AdminMessages.java:88) at project.AdminUser.createAdminMessages(AdminUser.java:32) at project.AdminUser.<init>(AdminUser.java:18) at project.AdminUser.main(AdminUser.java:47) it was a null poiinter exception

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• When I really need to use [NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:1];

  - by Timbo

  Hi there, I have a program that needs to use sleep. Like really needs to. In lieu of spending ages explaining why, suffice to say that it needs it. Now I'm told to split off my code into a separate thread if it requires sleep so I don't lose interface responsiveness, so I've started learning how to use NSThread. I've created a brand new program that is conceptual so to solve the issue for this example will help me in my real program. Short story is I have a class, it has instance variables and I need a loop with a sleep to be depended on the value of that instance variable. Here's what I've put together anyway, your help is very much appreciated :) Cheers Tim /// Start Test1ViewController.h /// #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface Test1ViewController : UIViewController { UILabel* label; } @property (assign) IBOutlet UILabel *label; @end /// End Test1ViewController.h /// /// Start Test1ViewController.m /// #import "Test1ViewController.h" #import "MyClass.h" @implementation Test1ViewController @synthesize label; - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; label.text = @"1"; [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(backgroundProcess) toTarget:self withObject:nil]; } - (void)backgroundProcess { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; // Create an instance of a class that will eventually store a whole load of variables MyClass *aMyClassInstance = [MyClass new]; [aMyClassInstance createMyClassInstance:(@"Timbo")]; while (aMyClassInstance.myVariable--) { NSLog(@"blah = %i",aMyClassInstance.myVariable); label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"blah = %d", aMyClassInstance.myVariable]; //how do I pass the new value out to the updateLabel method, or reference aMyClassInstance.myVariable? [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(updateLabel) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; //the sleeping of the thread is absolutely mandatory and must be worked around. The whole point of using NSThread is so I can have sleeps [NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:1]; } [pool release]; } - (void)updateLabel {label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"blah = %d", aMyClassInstance.myVariable]; // be nice if i could } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning {[super didReceiveMemoryWarning];} - (void)viewDidUnload {} - (void)dealloc {[super dealloc];} @end /// End Test1ViewController.m /// /// Start MyClass.h /// #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface MyClass : NSObject { NSString* name; int myVariable; } @property int myVariable; @property (assign) NSString *name; - (void) createMyClassInstance: (NSString*)withName; - (int) changeVariable: (int)toAmount; @end /// End MyClass.h /// /// Start MyClass.h /// #import "MyClass.h" @implementation MyClass @synthesize name, myVariable; - (void) createMyClassInstance: (NSString*)withName{ name = withName; myVariable = 10; } - (int) changeVariable: (int)toAmount{ myVariable = toAmount; return toAmount; } @end /// End MyClass.h ///

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• c#: Design advice. Using DataTable or List<MyObject> for a generic rule checker

  - by Andrew White

  Hi, I have about 100,000 lines of generic data. Columns/Properties of this data are user definable and are of the usual data types (string, int, double, date). There will be about 50 columns/properties. I have 2 needs: To be able to calculate new columns/properties using an expression e.g. Column3 = Column1 * Column2. Ultimately I would like to be able to use external data using a callback, e.g. Column3 = Column1 * GetTemperature The expression is relatively simple, maths operations, sum, count & IF are the only necessary functions. To be able to filter/group the data and perform aggregations e.g. Sum(Data.Column1) Where(Data.Column2 == "blah") As far as I can see I have two options: 1. Using a DataTable. = Point 1 above is achieved by using DataColumn.Expression = Point 2 above is acheived by using DataTable.DefaultView.RowFilter & C# code 2. Using a List of generic Objects each with a Dictionary< string, object to store the values. = Point 1 could be achieved by something like NCalc = Point 2 is achieved using LINQ DataTable: Pros: DataColumn.Expression is inbuilt Cons: RowFilter & coding c# is not as "nice" as LINQ, DataColumn.Expression does not support callbacks(?) = workaround could be to get & replace external value when creating the calculated column GenericList: Pros: LINQ syntax, NCalc supports callbacks Cons: Implementing NCalc/generic calc engine Based on the above I would think a GenericList approach would win, but something I have not factored in is the performance which for some reason I think would be better with a datatable. Does anyone have a gut feeling / experience with LINQ vs. DataTable performance? How about NCalc? As I said there are about 100,000 rows of data, with 50 columns, of which maybe 20 are calculated. In total about 50 rules will be run against the data, so in total there will be 5 million row/object scans. Would really appreciate any insights. Thx. ps. Of course using a database + SQL & Views etc. would be the easiest solution, but for various reasons can't be implemented.

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• How to assign class property as display data member in datagridview

  - by KoolKabin

  hi guys, I am trying to display my data in datagridview. I created a class with different property and used its list as the datasource. it worked fine. but I got confused how to do that in case we have nested class. My Classes are as follows: class Category property UIN as integer property Name as string end class class item property uin as integer property name as string property mycategory as category end class my data list as follows: dim myDataList as list(of Item) = new List(of Item) myDataList.Add(new Item(1,"item1",new category(1,"cat1"))) myDataList.Add(new Item(2,"item2",new category(1,"cat1"))) myDataList.Add(new Item(3,"item3",new category(1,"cat1"))) myDataList.Add(new Item(4,"item4",new category(2,"cat2"))) myDataList.Add(new Item(5,"item5",new category(2,"cat2"))) myDataList.Add(new Item(6,"item6",new category(2,"cat2"))) Now I binded the datagridview control like: DGVMain.AutoGenerateColumns = False DGVMain.ColumnCount = 3 DGVMain.Columns(0).DataPropertyName = "UIN" DGVMain.Columns(0).HeaderText = "ID" DGVMain.Columns(1).DataPropertyName = "Name" DGVMain.Columns(1).HeaderText = "Name" DGVMain.Columns(2).DataPropertyName = "" **'here i want my category name** DGVMain.Columns(2).HeaderText = "category" DGVMain.datasource = myDataList DGVMain.refresh() I have tried using mycategory.name but it didn't worked. What can be done to get expected result? Is there any better idea other than this to accomplish the same task? Edited My question as per comment: I have checked the link given by u. It was nice n very usefull. Since the code was in c# i tried to convert it in vb. Everything went good but failed at a point of case sensitive and next one is that i had my nested class name itemcategory and my property name was category. there it arouse the problem. it didn't searched for category but it searched for itemcategory. so confused on it. My Code as follows: Private Sub DGVMain_CellFormatting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellFormattingEventArgs) Handles DGVMain.CellFormatting Dim DGVMain As DataGridView = CType(sender, DataGridView) e.Value = EvaluateValue(DGVMain.Rows(e.RowIndex).DataBoundItem, DGVMain.Columns(e.ColumnIndex).DataPropertyName) End Sub Private Function EvaluateValue(ByRef myObj As Object, ByRef myProp As String) As String Dim Ret As String = "" Dim Props As System.Reflection.PropertyInfo() Dim PropA As System.Reflection.PropertyInfo Dim ObjA As Object If myProp.Contains(".") Then myProp = myProp.Substring(0, myProp.IndexOf(".")) Props = myObj.GetType().GetProperties() For Each PropA In Props ObjA = PropA.GetValue(myObj, New Object() {}) If ObjA.GetType().Name = myProp Then Ret = EvaluateValue(ObjA, myProp.Substring(myProp.IndexOf(".") + 1)) Exit For End If Next Else PropA = myObj.GetType().GetProperty(myProp) Ret = PropA.GetValue(myObj, New Object() {}).ToString() End If Return Ret End Function

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• How to change the extension of a processed xml file (using eXist & cocoon)

  - by Carsten C.

  Hi all, I'm really new to this whole web stuff, so please be nice if I missed something important to post. Short: Is there a possibility to change the name of a processed file (eXist-DB) after serialization? Here my case, the following request to my eXist-db: http://localhost:8080/exist/cocoon/db/caos/test.xml and I want after serialization the follwing (xslt is working fine): http://localhost:8080/exist/cocoon/db/caos/test.html I'm using the followong sitemap.xmap with cocoon (hoping this is responsible for it) <map:match pattern="db/caos/**"> <!-- if we have an xpath query --> <map:match pattern="xpath" type="request-parameter"> <map:generate src="xmldb:exist:///db/caos/{../1}/#{1}"/> <map:act type="request"> <map:parameter name="parameters" value="true"/> <map:parameter name="default.howmany" value="1000"/> <map:parameter name="default.start" value="1"/> <map:transform type="filter"> <map:parameter name="element-name" value="result"/> <map:parameter name="count" value="{howmany}"/> <map:parameter name="blocknr" value="{start}"/> </map:transform> <map:transform src=".snip./webapp/stylesheets/db2html.xsl"> <map:parameter name="block" value="{start}"/> <map:parameter name="collection" value="{../../1}"/> </map:transform> </map:act> <map:serialize type="html" encoding="UTF-8"/> </map:match> <!-- if the whole file will be displayed --> <map:generate src="xmldb:exist:/db/caos/{1}"/> <map:transform src="..snip../stylesheets/caos2soac.xsl"> <map:parameter name="collection" value="{1}"/> </map:transform> <map:transform type="encodeURL"/> <map:serialize type="html" encoding="UTF-8"/> </map:match> So my Question is: How do I change the extension of the test.xml to test.html after processing the xml file? Background: I'm generating some information out of some xml-dbs, this infos will be displayed in html (which is working), but i want to change some entrys later, after I generated the html site. To make this confortable, I want to use Jquery & Jeditable, but the code does not work on the xml files. Saving the generated html is not an option. tia for any suggestions [and|or] help CC Edit: After reading all over: could it be, that the extension is irrelevant and that this is only a problem of port 8080? I'm confused...

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• How to add JSTL to Maven?

  - by La Chamelle

  I'm working on a JSF 2.0 project using Mojarra, PrimeFaces and Tomcat 6.x. I need to use c:forEach for some primefaces component like dynamic number of p:tab but i have problem with the c:forEach. All the other tag of JSTL work nice. I have the following error : java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: javax/servlet/jsp/jstl/core/LoopTagStatus I use the following xmlns:c="http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core", i tried to replace with xmlns:c="http://java.sun.com/jstl/core" but nothing display with the second. This is the exact version of lib: <dependency> <groupId>javax.faces</groupId> <artifactId>jsf-api</artifactId> <version>2.0.2-FCS</version> </dependency> <dependency> <groupId>com.sun.faces</groupId> <artifactId>jsf-impl</artifactId> <version>2.0.4-b03</version> </dependency> <dependency> <groupId>org.primefaces</groupId> <artifactId>primefaces</artifactId> <version>2.2.1</version> </dependency> <dependency> <groupId>javax.el</groupId> <artifactId>el-api</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> </dependency> <dependency> <groupId>org.glassfish.web</groupId> <artifactId>el-impl</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> </dependency> How i can fix it ? I can give more specific information if needed.

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• Code-Golf: Friendly Number Abbreviator

  - by David Murdoch

  Based on this question: Is there a way to round numbers into a friendly format? THE CHALLENGE - UPDATED! (removed hundreds abbreviation from spec) The shortest code by character count that will abbreviate an integer (no decimals). Code should include the full program. Relevant range is from 0 - 9,223,372,036,854,775,807 (the upper limit for signed 64 bit integer). The number of decimal places for abbreviation will be positive. You will not need to calculate the following: 920535 abbreviated -1 place (which would be something like 0.920535M). Numbers in the tens and hundreds place (0-999) should never be abbreviated (the abbreviation for the number 57 to 1+ decimal places is 5.7dk - it is unneccessary and not friendly). Remember to round half away from zero (23.5 gets rounded to 24). Banker's rounding is verboten. Here are the relevant number abbreviations: h = hundred (102) k = thousand (103) M = million (106) G = billion (109) T = trillion (1012) P = quadrillion (1015) E = quintillion (1018) SAMPLE INPUTS/OUTPUTS (inputs can be passed as separate arguments): First argument will be the integer to abbreviate. The second is the number of decimal places. 12 1 => 12 // tens and hundreds places are never rounded 1500 2 => 1.5k 1500 0 => 2k // look, ma! I round UP at .5 0 2 => 0 1234 0 => 1k 34567 2 => 34.57k 918395 1 => 918.4k 2134124 2 => 2.13M 47475782130 2 => 47.48G 9223372036854775807 3 => 9.223E // ect... . . . Original answer from related question (javascript, does not follow spec): function abbrNum(number, decPlaces) { // 2 decimal places => 100, 3 => 1000, etc decPlaces = Math.pow(10,decPlaces); // Enumerate number abbreviations var abbrev = [ "k", "m", "b", "t" ]; // Go through the array backwards, so we do the largest first for (var i=abbrev.length-1; i>=0; i--) { // Convert array index to "1000", "1000000", etc var size = Math.pow(10,(i+1)*3); // If the number is bigger or equal do the abbreviation if(size <= number) { // Here, we multiply by decPlaces, round, and then divide by decPlaces. // This gives us nice rounding to a particular decimal place. number = Math.round(number*decPlaces/size)/decPlaces; // Add the letter for the abbreviation number += abbrev[i]; // We are done... stop break; } } return number; }

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• How to access a named element of a derived user control in silverlight ?

  - by Mrt

  Hello, I have a custom base user control in silverlight. <UserControl x:Class="Problemo.MyBaseControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="400"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White"> <Border Name="HeaderControl" Background="Red" /> </Grid> </UserControl> With the following code behind public partial class MyBaseControl : UserControl { public UIElement Header { get; set; } public MyBaseControl() { InitializeComponent(); Loaded += MyBaseControl_Loaded; } void MyBaseControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { HeaderControl.Child = Header; } } I have a derived control. <me:MyBaseControl x:Class="Problemo.MyControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" xmlns:me="clr-namespace:Problemo" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="400"> <me:MyBaseControl.Header> <TextBlock Name="header" Text="{Binding Text}" /> </me:MyBaseControl.Header> </me:MyBaseControl> With the following code behind. public partial class MyControl : MyBaseControl { public string Text { get; set; } public MyControl(string text) { InitializeComponent(); Text = text; } } I'm trying to set the text value of the header textblock in the derived control. It would be nice to be able to set both ways, i.e. with databinding or in the derived control code behind, but neither work. With the data binding, it doesn't work. If I try in the code behind I get a null reference to 'header'. This is silverlight 4 (not sure if that makes a difference) Any suggestions on how to do with with both databinding and in code ? Cheers

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• Consolidating coding styles: Funcs, private method, single method classes

  - by jdoig

  Hi all, We currently have 3 devs with, some, conflicting styles and I'm looking for a way to bring peace to the kingdom... The Coders: Foo 1: Likes to use Func's & Action's inside public methods. He uses actions to alias off lengthy method calls and Func's to perform simple tasks that can be expressed in 1 or 2 lines and will be used frequently through out the code Pros: The main body of his code is succinct and very readable, often with only one or 2 public methods per class and rarely any private methods. Cons: The start of methods contain blocks of lambda rich code that other developers don't enjoy reading; and, on occasion, can contain higher order functions that other dev's REALLY don't like reading. Foo 2: Likes to create a private method for (almost) everything the public method will have to do . Pros: Public methods remain small and readable (to all developers). Cons: Private methods are numerous. With private methods that call into other private methods, that call into... etc, etc. Making code hard to navigate. Foo 3: Likes to create a public class with a, single, public method for every, non-trivial, task that needs performing, then dependency inject them into other objects. Pros: Easily testable, easy to understand (one object, one responsibility). Cons: project gets littered by classes, opening multiple class files to understand what code does makes navigation awkward. It would be great to take the best of all these techniques... Foo-1 Has really nice, readable (almost dsl-like) code... for the most part, except for all the Action and Func lambda shenanigans bulked together at the start of a method. Foo-3 Has highly testable and extensible code that just feels a bit "belt-&-braces" for some solutions and has some code-navigation niggles (constantly hitting F12 in VS and opening 5 other .cs files to find out what a single method does). And Foo-2... Well I'm not sure I like anything about the one-huge .cs file with 2 public methods and 12 private ones, except for the fact it's easier for juniors to dig into. I admit I grossly over-simplified the explanations of those coding styles; but if any one knows of any patterns, practices or diplomatic-manoeuvres that can help unite our three developers (without just telling any of them to just "stop it!") that would be great. From a feasibility standpoint : Foo-1's style meets with the most resistance due to some developers finding lambda and/or Func's hard to read. Foo-2's style meets with a less resistance as it's just so easy to fall into. Foo-3's style requires the most forward thinking and is difficult to enforce when time is short. Any ideas on some coding styles or conventions that can make this work?

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• java concurrency: many writers, one reader

  - by Janning

  I need to gather some statistics in my software and i am trying to make it fast and correct, which is not easy (for me!) first my code so far with two classes, a StatsService and a StatsHarvester public class StatsService { private Map<String, Long> stats = new HashMap<String, Long>(1000); public void notify ( String key ) { Long value = 1l; synchronized (stats) { if (stats.containsKey(key)) { value = stats.get(key) + 1; } stats.put(key, value); } } public Map<String, Long> getStats ( ) { Map<String, Long> copy; synchronized (stats) { copy = new HashMap<String, Long>(stats); stats.clear(); } return copy; } } this is my second class, a harvester which collects the stats from time to time and writes them to a database. public class StatsHarvester implements Runnable { private StatsService statsService; private Thread t; public void init ( ) { t = new Thread(this); t.start(); } public synchronized void run ( ) { while (true) { try { wait(5 * 60 * 1000); // 5 minutes collectAndSave(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } private void collectAndSave ( ) { Map<String, Long> stats = statsService.getStats(); // do something like: // saveRecords(stats); } } At runtime it will have about 30 concurrent running threads each calling notify(key) about 100 times. Only one StatsHarvester is calling statsService.getStats() So i have many writers and only one reader. it would be nice to have accurate stats but i don't care if some records are lost on high concurrency. The reader should run every 5 Minutes or whatever is reasonable. Writing should be as fast as possible. Reading should be fast but if it locks for about 300ms every 5 minutes, its fine. I've read many docs (Java concurrency in practice, effective java and so on), but i have the strong feeling that i need your advice to get it right. I hope i stated my problem clear and short enough to get valuable help.

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• How do I integrate a new MVC C# Project with an existing Web Forms VB.NET Web Application Project?

  - by Jordan Rieger

  We have a corporate website with a large amount of dynamic business application pages (e.g. Shopping Cart, Helpdesk, Product/Service management, Reporting, etc.) The site was built as an ASP.Net Web Application Project (WAP). Our systems have evolved over the years to use .NET 4.5 and various custom business logic DLLs (written in a mix of C# and VB.NET). However, the site itself is still using VB.NET Web Forms. We now have done a few side projects in MVC 4 using Razor/C#, and we want to use this framework for new pages on the main corporate site going forward. What would be the easiest way to achieve this? I found this nice list of steps to integrate MVC 4 into an existing Web Forms app. The problem is that because our existing app is a VB.NET WAP, it compiles into a single DLL, and .NET allows only one language per DLL. The site is way too big for us to contemplate converting it to C# all at once (yes, I've looked at the conversion tools, and they're good, but even 99% accuracy would leave us a huge amount of cleanup work.) I thought about converting the existing WAP into a Web Site Project (WSP) which does allow mixing languages and then following the steps above, but after a few pages of Google results, I couldn't find any steps for converting a WAP to WSP. (Plenty of sites offer the reverse steps: converting a WSP to a WAP.) Another idea I had was to create a completely separate MVC project, and then somehow squish them together into the same folder structure, where they would share the bin folder but compile to separate DLL's. I have no idea if this is possible, because certain files would collide (e.g. Global.asax, web.config, etc.) Finally, I can imagine a compromise solution where we keep all the MVC stuff in its own separate application under a subfolder of the main solution. We already use our own custom session state solution, so it wouldn't be difficult to pass data between the old site to the new pages. Which of the ideas above do you think makes the most sense for us? Is there another solution that I'm missing?

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• What is the difference between NULL in C++ and null in Java?

  - by Stephano

  I've been trying to figure out why C++ is making me crazy typing NULL. Suddenly it hits me the other day; I've been typing null (lower case) in Java for years. Now suddenly I'm programming in C++ and that little chunk of muscle memory is making me crazy. Wikiperipatetic defines C++ NULL as part of the stddef: A macro that expands to a null pointer constant. It may be defined as ((void*)0), 0 or 0L depending on the compiler and the language. Sun's docs tells me this about Java's "null literal": The null type has one value, the null reference, represented by the literal null, which is formed from ASCII characters. A null literal is always of the null type. So this is all very nice. I know what a null pointer reference is, and thank you for the compiler notes. Now I'm a little fuzzy on the idea of a literal in Java so I read on... A literal is the source code representation of a fixed value; literals are represented directly in your code without requiring computation. There's also a special null literal that can be used as a value for any reference type. null may be assigned to any variable, except variables of primitive types. There's little you can do with a null value beyond testing for its presence. Therefore, null is often used in programs as a marker to indicate that some object is unavailable. Ok, so I think I get it now. In C++ NULL is a macro that, when compiled, defines the null pointer constant. In Java, null is a fixed value that any non-primitive can be assigned too; great for testing in a handy if statement. Java does not have pointers, so I can see why they kept null a simple value rather than anything fancy. But why did java decide to change the all caps NULL to null? Furthermore, am I missing anything here?

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• Deterministic key serialization

  - by Mike Boers

  I'm writing a mapping class which uses SQLite as the storage backend. I am currently allowing only basestring keys but it would be nice if I could use a couple more types hopefully up to anything that is hashable (ie. same requirements as the builtin dict). To that end I would like to derive a deterministic serialization scheme. Ideally, I would like to know if any implementation/protocol combination of pickle is deterministic for hashable objects (e.g. can only use cPickle with protocol 0). I noticed that pickle and cPickle do not match: >>> import pickle >>> import cPickle >>> def dumps(x): ... print repr(pickle.dumps(x)) ... print repr(cPickle.dumps(x)) ... >>> dumps(1) 'I1\n.' 'I1\n.' >>> dumps('hello') "S'hello'\np0\n." "S'hello'\np1\n." >>> dumps((1, 2, 'hello')) "(I1\nI2\nS'hello'\np0\ntp1\n." "(I1\nI2\nS'hello'\np1\ntp2\n." Another option is to use repr to dump and ast.literal_eval to load. This would only be valid for builtin hashable types. I have written a function to determine if a given key would survive this process (it is rather conservative on the types it allows): def is_reprable_key(key): return type(key) in (int, str, unicode) or (type(key) == tuple and all( is_reprable_key(x) for x in key)) The question for this method is if repr itself is deterministic for the types that I have allowed here. I believe this would not survive the 2/3 version barrier due to the change in str/unicode literals. This also would not work for integers where 2**32 - 1 < x < 2**64 jumping between 32 and 64 bit platforms. Are there any other conditions (ie. do strings serialize differently under different conditions)? (If this all fails miserably then I can store the hash of the key along with the pickle of both the key and value, then iterate across rows that have a matching hash looking for one that unpickles to the expected key, but that really does complicate a few other things and I would rather not do it.) Any insights?

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• I have a bunch of images being shown on click via JQuery - any easy way to animate this?

  - by Cenk

  This is the (quite simple) JS code I'm using: $(document).ready(function() { $(".button-list .next").click(function() { project = $(this).parents().filter(".projektweb").eq(0); currentimg = project.find(".images-list li.current"); nextimg = currentimg.next(); firstimg = project.find(".images-list li:first"); currentimg.removeClass("current"); if (nextimg.is("li")) nextimg.addClass("current"); else firstimg.addClass("current"); return false; }); $(".button-list .prev").click(function() { project = $(this).parents().filter(".projektweb").eq(0); currentimg = project.find(".images-list li.current"); previmg = currentimg.prev(); lastimg = project.find(".images-list li:last"); currentimg.removeClass("current"); if (previmg.is("li")) previmg.addClass("current"); else lastimg.addClass("current"); return false; }); }); And this is how the HTML code for the image list looks like: <ul class="images-list"> <li class="current"><img src="img/1.jpg" alt="" /></li> <li><img src="img/1b.jpg" alt="" /></li> </ul> <ul class="button-list"> <li><a class="button prev" href="#">?</a></li> <li><a class="button next" href="#">?</a></li></ul> The CSS: .images-list { height: 460px; list-style-type:none; float:left; width: 460px; overflow:hidden; position:relative; } .images-list img { height: 460px; width: 460px; display:block; } .images-list li { display:none; } .images-list li.current { display:block; } What I'd like to do is animate the images as they come and go - right now they just appear, which is OK but a bit more eye-candy would be nice. Can anyone help me out here? It it even possible to do it this way? Thanks!!

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• Animating a pulsing UILabel?

  - by fuzzygoat

  I am trying to animate the color the the text on a UILabel to pulse from: [Black] to [White] to [Black] and repeat. - (void)timerFlash:(NSTimer *)timer { [[self navTitle] setTextColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] colorWithAlphaComponent:0.0]]; [UIView animateWithDuration:1 delay:0 options:UIViewAnimationOptionAllowUserInteraction animations:^{[[self navTitle] setTextColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] colorWithAlphaComponent:1.0]];} completion:nil]; } . [self setFadeTimer:[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1 target:self selector:@selector(timerFlash:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]]; Firstly I am not sure of my method, my plan (as you can see above) was to set up a animation block and call it using a repeating NSTimer until canceled. My second problem (as you can see above) is that I am animating from black (alpha 0) to white (alpha 1) but I don't know how to animate back to black again so the animation loops seamlessly Essentially what I want is the text color to pulse on a UILabel until the user presses a button to continue. EDIT_001: I was getting into trouble because you can't animate [UILabel setColor:] you can however animated [UILabel setAlpha:] so I am going to give that a go. EDIT_002: - (void)timerFlash:(NSTimer *)timer { [[self navTitle] setAlpha:0.5]; [UIView animateWithDuration:2 delay:0 options:UIViewAnimationOptionAllowUserInteraction animations:^{[[self navTitle] setAlpha:0.9];} completion:nil]; } This works (BTW: I do want it to stop which is why I hooked it up to a NSTimer so I can cancel that) the only thing is that this animates from midGray to nearWhite and then pops back. Does anyone know how I would animate back from nearWhite to midGray so I get a nice smooth cycle? EDIT_003: (Solution) The code suggested by dave DeLong (see below) does indeed work when modified to use the CALayer opacity style attribute: UILabel *navTitle; @property(nonatomic, retain) UILabel *navTitle; . // ADD ANIMATION CABasicAnimation *anim = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"opacity"]; [anim setTimingFunction:[CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseInEaseOut]]; [anim setFromValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.5]]; [anim setToValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:1.0]]; [anim setAutoreverses:YES]; [anim setDuration:0.5]; [[[self navTitle] layer] addAnimation:anim forKey:@"flash"]; . // REMOVE ANIMATION [[[self navTitle] layer] removeAnimationForKey:@"flash__"];

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• IP address numbers in MySQL subquery

  - by Iain Collins

  I have a problem with a subquery involving IPV4 addresses stored in MySQL (MySQL 5.0). The IP addresses are stored in two tables, both in network number format - e.g. the format output by MySQL's INET_ATON(). The first table ('events') contains lots of rows with IP addresses associated with them, the second table ('network_providers') contains a list of provider information for given netblocks. events table (~4,000,000 rows): event_id (int) event_name (varchar) ip_address (unsigned 4 byte int) network_providers table (~60,000 rows): ip_start (unsigned 4 byte int) ip_end (unsigned 4 byte int) provider_name (varchar) Simplified for the purposes of the problem I'm having, the goal is to create an export along the lines of: event_id,event_name,ip_address,provider_name If do a query along the lines of either of the following, I get the result I expect: SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE INET_ATON('192.168.0.1') >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1 SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE 3232235521 >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1 That is to say, it returns the correct provider_name for whatever IP I look up (of course I'm not really using 192.168.0.1 in my queries). However, when performing this same query as a subquery, in the following manner, it doesn't yield the result I would expect: SELECT event.id, event.event_name, (SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE event.ip_address >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1) as provider FROM events Instead the a different (incorrect) value for network_provider is returned - over 90% (but curiously not all) values returned in the provider column contain the wrong provider information for that IP. Using event.ip_address in a subquery just to echo out the value confirms it contains the value I'd expect and that the subquery can parse it. Replacing event.ip_address with an actual network number also works, just using it dynamically in the subquery in this manner that doesn't work for me. I suspect the problem is there is something fundamental and important about subqueries in MySQL that I don't get. I've worked with IP addresses like this in MySQL quite a bit before, but haven't previously done lookups for them using a subquery. The question: I'd really appreciate an example of how I could get the output I want, and if someone here knows, some enlightenment as to why what I'm doing doesn't work so I can avoid making this mistake again. Notes: The actual real-world usage I'm trying to do is considerably more complicated (involving joining two or three tables). This is a simplified version, to avoid overly complicating the question. Additionally, I know I'm not using a between on ip_start & ip_end - that's intentional (the DB's can be out of date, and such cases the owner in the DB is almost always in the next specified range and 'best guess' is fine in this context) however I'm grateful for any suggestions for improvement that relate to the question. Efficiency is always nice, but in this case absolutely not essential - any help appreciated.

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• Arrays become null after passing to function in PHP

  - by William

  So when I pass my filled arrays to the function createform the form is created with $max_avatars options, but they have no name or value. Why are my arrays becoming null? <?php $avatar_image_name = array('hacker','samurai','cool','happy','thatsnice','angry','tv','bang'); $avatar_name = array('Hacker','Samurai','Cool','Happy','That\'s nice','Angry','TV','Bang'); $max_avatars = 6; createform($max_avatars, $avatar_image_name, $avatar_name); ?> The function createform: function createform($max_avatars, $avatar_image_name, $avatar_name) { $string ='<table id="formtable"> <tr><td class="formtext">Name:</td><td><input type="text" name=name size=25 /></td></tr> <tr><td class="formtext">Trip:</td><td><input type="text" name=trip size=25 /> (<font style="color: #ff0000">Don\'t use your password</font>)</td></tr> <tr><td class="formtext">Comment</td><td><textarea name=post rows="4" cols="50"></textarea></td></tr> <tr><td class="formtext">Avatar:</td> <td> <select name=avatar>'; for($i = 0; $i < $max_avatars; $i++){ $string = ($string . '<option value="'.$avatar_image_name[i].'">'.$avatar_name[i].'</option>'); } $string = ($string . '</select> </td> <tr><td class="formtext">Extra</td><td>Fortune: <input type="radio" name="extra" value="fortune" /> Poker: <input type="radio" name="extra" value="poker" /></td></tr> </table> <input type=submit value="Submit" id="submitbutton">'); echo $string; }

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• Smoke testing a .NET web application

  - by pdr

  I cannot believe I'm the first person to go through this thought process, so I'm wondering if anyone can help me out with it. Current situation: developers write a web site, operations deploy it. Once deployed, a developer Smoke Tests it, to make sure the deployment went smoothly. To me this feels wrong, it essentially means it takes two people to deploy an application; in our case those two people are on opposite sides of the planet and timezones come into play, causing havoc. But the fact remains that developers know what the minimum set of tests is and that may change over time (particularly for the web service portion of our app). Operations, with all due respect to them (and they would say this themselves), are button-pushers who need a set of instructions to follow. The manual solution is that we document the test cases and operations follow that document each time they deploy. That sounds painful, plus they may be deploying different versions to different environments (specifically UAT and Production) and may need a different set of instructions for each. On top of this, one of our near-future plans is to have an automated daily deploy environment, so then we'll have to instruct a computer as to how to deploy a given version of our app. I would dearly like to add to that instructions for how to smoke test the app. Now developers are better at documenting instructions for computers than they are for people, so the obvious solution seems to be to use a combination of nUnit (I know these aren't unit tests per se, but it is a built-for-purpose test runner) and either the Watin or Selenium APIs to run through the obvious browser steps and call to the web service and explain to the Operations guys how to run those unit tests. I can do that; I have mostly done it already. But wouldn't it be nice if I could make that process simpler still? At this point, the Operations guys and the computer are going to have to know which set of tests relate to which version of the app and tell the nUnit runner which base URL it should point to (say, www.example.com = v3.2 or test.example.com = v3.3). Wouldn't it be nicer if the test runner itself had a way of giving it a base URL and letting it download say a zip file, unpack it and edit a configuration file automatically before running any test fixtures it found in there? Is there an open source app that would do that? Is there a need for one? Is there a solution using something other than nUnit, maybe Fitnesse? For the record, I'm looking at .NET-based tools first because most of the developers are primarily .NET developers, but we're not married to it. If such a tool exists using other languages to write the tests, we'll happily adapt, as long as there is a test runner that works on Windows.

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• jquery ie6 issue swaping videos through hide/show while playing.

  - by user217181

  So my code is: Click the link show the div. I'm using the jquery flash embed object. $(document).ready( function() { $('a.overview').click( function() { $('#overview').show(); // show div.contact $('#evaulting').hide(); // hide div.contact $('#his').hide(); // hide div.contact }); }); $(document).ready( function() { $('a.evaulting').click( function() { $('#evaulting').show(); // show div.contact $('#overview').hide(); // hide div.contact $('#his').hide(); // hide div.contact }); }); <div id="overview" style="display:none"> <ul> <li rel="play-norelated.swf:680:480:true:ffffff" class="flash-replaced"> <embed width="680" height="480" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" src="play-norelated.swf" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer" flashvars="playVideo=ent_web_480x" bgcolor="ffffff" /> <div class="alt"><h1>To Play Iron Mountain Videos - You will need to upgrade your Flash Player</h1> <p><a href="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer"><img src="http://www.adobe.com/images/shared/download_buttons/get_flash_player.gif" alt="Get Adobe Flash player" /></a></p></div> </li> </ul> </div> <div id="evaulting" style="display:none"> <ul> <li rel="play-norelated.swf:680:480:true:ffffff" class="flash-replaced"> <embed width="680" height="480" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" src="play-norelated.swf" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer" flashvars="playVideo=evaulting_web_480x" bgcolor="ffffff" /> <div class="alt"><h1>To Play Iron Mountain Video's - You will need to upgrade your Flash Player</h1> <p><a href="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer"><img src="http://www.adobe.com/images/shared/download_buttons/get_flash_player.gif" alt="Get Adobe Flash player" /></a></p></div> </li> </ul> </div> When I repeat this code and get the second video to load on click. It works in all browsers. The only issue I'm running into is that in IE6 the video keeps playing and in other browsers it stops the video your watching and loads the one you clicked on. I looked into using the .remove object or the .append to a div, but I can't seem to get that to work and if it does work will it play nice with IE6. Try it out and maybe solve my issues.

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