Search Results

Search found 23808 results on 953 pages for 'call centre'.

Page 269/953 | < Previous Page | 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276  | Next Page >

  • Java NoClassDefFoundError when calling own class from instrumented method

    - by lethal_possum
    Hello, I am working on a kit of simple Java agents to help me (and hopefully others) troubleshoot Java applications. One of the agents I would like to create instruments the JComponent.getToolTipText() method to quickly identify any GUI class by just hovering the mouse cursor over it. You can find the code of my transformer and the rest of the project here: http://sfn.cvs.sourceforge.net/viewvc/sfn/core/src/main/java/org/leplus/sfn/transformer/JComponentTransformer.java?view=markup I launch my test GUI with the agent attached as follow: $ java -javaagent:target/jars/sfn-0.1-agent.jar=JComponent -cp lib/jars/bcel-5.2.jar:target/jars/sfn-0.1-test.jar:target/jars/sfn-0.1-agent.jar org.leplus.sfn.test.Main sfn-0.1-agent.jar contains the org.leplus.sfn.transformer.JComponentTransformer class. sfn-0.1-test.jar contains the org.leplus.sfn.test.Main class. Here is what the application prints when I launch it and I put the mouse over it: Loading agent: JComponent Instrumentation ready! Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-0" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/leplus/sfn/tracer/ComponentTracer at javax.swing.JComponent.getToolTipText(JComponent.java) at javax.swing.ToolTipManager$insideTimerAction.actionPerformed(ToolTipManager.java:662) ... What is surprising to me is that if I change my transformer to call any class from the JRE, it works. But it doesn't work when I call my own class org.leplus.sfn.tracer.ComponentTracer. My first guess was a classpath issue but the ComponentTracer is both in the classpath and in the agent's jar. So I am lost. If any of you see where I am missing something. Cheers, Tom

    Read the article

  • Cannot convert IAsyncResult to AsyncResult when using a service refrence

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I have a WCF service running, I added a reference to the service by using Add Service Reference in the solution explorer, and I checked the box for create asynchronous operations. My call works fine, I have a two way channel that reports back some events from the server and I am receiving the events. However, when the asynchronous task finishes in my callback handeler I get the error Unable to cast object of type 'SendAsyncResult' to type 'System.Runtime.Remoting.Messaging.AsyncResult'. Code that calls the method. DatabaseManagement.DatabaseManagementClient d = new DatabaseManagement.DatabaseManagementClient(new InstanceContext(new DatabaseManagementCallback())); d.Open(); d.BeginCreateDatabase("", "PreConfSA", "_test", new AsyncCallback(BeginCreateDatabaseCallback), null); The Async callback static void BeginCreateDatabaseCallback(IAsyncResult ar) { AsyncResult result = (AsyncResult)ar; //Execption happens here DatabaseManagement.DatabaseManagementClient caller = (DatabaseManagement.DatabaseManagementClient)result.AsyncDelegate; Console.WriteLine(caller.EndCreateDatabase(ar)); //Do more stuff here } Execption Details System.InvalidCastException was unhandled by user code Message=Unable to cast object of type 'SendAsyncResult' to type 'System.Runtime.Remoting.Messaging.AsyncResult'. Source=Sandbox Console StackTrace: at Sandbox_Console.Program.BeginCreateDatabaseCallback(IAsyncResult ar) in E:\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\Sandbox Console\Program.cs:line 26 at System.ServiceModel.AsyncResult.Complete(Boolean completedSynchronously) InnerException: I don't really need the result from the EndCreateDatabase but everywhere I read it says that you must call EndYouFunctionHere() or bad things happen. Any recomendations?

    Read the article

  • Possible to use multiple ServiceReference.ClientConfig files?

    - by Maciek
    I'm building a modular Silverlight application, using Prism. In the Shell project, I'm loading 2x modules, each hailing from a separate assembly. For convenience let's call them ModuleA and ModuleB ModuleA makes calls to WebServiceA. A ServiceReference.ClientConfig file is present in ModuleA's assembly. In order for this to work, in the shell project, I've added an "existing item" (path set to the forementioned config file in ModuleA's folder) as a link. The shell launched and the ModuleA made a successful call to the WebServiceA. Currently, I'm working on ModuleB, it also needs to make webservice calls, this time to WebServiceB. The service reference has been added, and a ServiceReference.ClientConfig file has appeared in ModuleB's assembly. I've attempted to add that config file as a link to the shell project as well, but I've failed. Q1 : Is it possible to use multiple ServiceReference.ClientConfig files like this? Q2 : Are there any best-practices for this case? Q3 : Is it possible to rename a *.config or *.ClientConfig file ? How is it done? How do I tell the application what file to use? Edit : Formatting

    Read the article

  • MATLAB Builder NE (.NET Assembly) Data type question

    - by Brett
    Hi coders, I am using MATLAB Builder NE (MATLAB's integrated .NET assmebly builder), but I am having an issue with data types. I have compiled a small, very simple, function in matlab and build it for .NET. I am able to call the namespace and even the function just fine. However, my function returns a value, and MATLAB defaults to returning it as an "object[]" data type. However, I know that the value is an integer, but I can't figure out how to cast it. My MATLAB function looks like this: function addValue = Myfunction(value1, value2) addValue=value1+value2; end Pretty simple right? And then in .NET I can call it as: xClass.addValue (1, 3, 4); where xClass is the name of the MATLAB built class but when I try: int x = xClass.addValue (1, 3, 4); C# errors out. Typical .NET casting (int) doesn't work. The compiler states it cannot convert object[] to int. Does anyone have experience with the .NET builder in MATLAB that can help me with this? It is really throwing me for a loop. I have scanned through most of the MATLAB BUILDER doc (484 pages!) with zero help. Thank you, Brett

    Read the article

  • Paypal subscriptions IPN - problem with users subscribing multiple times

    - by Brian Armstrong
    I'm using paypal subscriptions and the instant payment notification (IPN) to handle subscribers on my site. For the most part it works well but there is one occasional problem I've encountered. Usually if a user cancels their subscription, I wait for the "end of term" (subscr_eot) notification before disabling access to my site. So if they prepay for the whole month, and then cancel right away, they still have access for the rest of the month (as it should be). But some users are having this problem where they: Cancel their subscription Before the "end of term" is reached they decide to re-subscribe When the "end of term" is reached for their first subscription, my app receives the notification and fires off an email to the user with something like "your account has been disabled, if you ever want to sign up again, you can re-subscribe by clicking here". This confuses them because they are thinking...that's weird, I thought I subscribed like a week ago (and they did). So they go subscribe AGAIN. Now they have two concurrent running subscriptions to my site and I get a support email in a month or two ("wtf you billed me twice this month jerk!!") So I haven't found a good way to fix this. I guess the best solution would be to do an additional API call when the "end of term" notification is received which asks paypal "hey did this person already re-subscribe?". If so then no need to fire off that email. But I haven't seen any way to do this API call yet. Another solution is to disable their account immediately when they cancel (the "subscr_cancel" notification) but then I get different angry support emails "hey I prepaid for the whole month why was my account disabled already!!". Anyone else solved this?

    Read the article

  • custom httphandler in asp.net cannot get request querystring?

    - by Sander
    i've been trying to get this to work. its basicly a way to have certain MVC pages work within a webforms cms (umbraco) someone tried it before me and had issues with MVC2.0 (see here), i read the post, did what was announced there, but with or without that code, i seem to get stuck on a different matter. it seems like, if i call an url, it fires the handler, but fails to request the querystring passed, the variable originalPath is always empty, for example i call this url: http://localhost:8080/mvc.ashx?mvcRoute=/home/RSVPForm the handler is supposed to get the mvcRoute but it is always empty. thus gets rewritten to a simple / and then returns resource cannot be found error. here is the code i use now public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) { string originalPath = httpContext.Request.Path; string newPath = httpContext.Request.QueryString["mvcRoute"]; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(newPath)) newPath = "/"; HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(newPath, false); IHttpHandler ih = (IHttpHandler)new MvcHttpHandler(); ih.ProcessRequest(httpContext); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(originalPath, false); } i would like some new input on this as i'm staring myself blind on such a simple issue, while i thought i would have more problems with mvc itself :p Edit have no time to investigate, but after copying the site over to different locations, using numerous web.config changes (unrelated to this error but was figuring other things out) this error seems to have solved itself. so its no longer an issue, however i have no clue as to what exactly made this to work again.

    Read the article

  • WPF Background Thread Invocation

    - by jeffn825
    Maybe I'm mis-remembering how Winforms works or I'm overcomplicating the hell out of this, but here's my problem. I have a WPF client app application that talks to a server over WCF. The current user may "log out" of the WPF client, which closes all open screens, leaves only the navigation pane, and minimizes the program window. When the user re-maximizes the program window, they are prompted to log in. Simple. But sometimes things happen on background threads - like every 5 minutes the client tries to make a WCF calls that refreshes some cached data. And what if the user is logged out when this 5 minute timer triggers? Well, then the user should be prompted to log back in...and this must of course happen on the UI thread. private static ISecurityContext securityContext; public static ISecurityContext SecurityContext { get { if (securityContext == null) { // Login method shows a window and prompts the user to log in Application.Current.Dispatcher.Invoke((Action)Login); } return securityContext; } } So far so good, right? But what happens when multiple threads hit this spot of code? Well, my first intuition was that since I'm syncrhonizing across the Application.Current.Dispatcher, I should be fine, and whichever thread hit first would be responsible for showing the login form and getting the user logged in... Not the case... Thread 1 will hit the code and call ShowDialog on the login form Thread 2 will also hit the code and will call Login as soon as Thread 1 has called ShowDialog, since calling ShowDialog unblocked Thread 1 (I believe because of the way the WPF message pump works) All I want is a synchronized way of getting the user logged back into the application...what am I missing here? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Trying to grab just absolute links from a webpage using BeautifulSoup

    - by Kevin
    I am reading the contents of a webpage using BeautifulSoup. What I want is to just grab the <a href> that start with http://. I know in beautifulsoup you can search by the attributes. I guess I am just having a syntax issue. I would imagine it would go something like. page = urllib2.urlopen("http://www.linkpages.com") soup = BeautifulSoup(page) for link in soup.findAll('a'): if link['href'].startswith('http://'): print links But that returns: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 2, in <module> File "C:\Python26\lib\BeautifulSoup.py", line 598, in __getitem__ return self._getAttrMap()[key] KeyError: 'href' Any ideas? Thanks in advance. EDIT This isn't for any site in particular. The script gets the url from the user. So internal link targets would be an issue, that's also why I only want the <'a'> from the pages. If I turn it towards www.reddit.com, it parses the beginning links and it gets to this: <a href="http://www.reddit.com/top/">top</a> <a href="http://www.reddit.com/saved/">saved</a> Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 2, in <module> File "C:\Python26\lib\BeautifulSoup.py", line 598, in __getitem__ return self._getAttrMap()[key] KeyError: 'href'

    Read the article

  • Japanese text garbled while passing to a http restlet service

    - by satish-gunuputi
    Hi , I have a perl client which is calling a http restlet service (put method). Some of the parameters in this call contain japanese text. when I printed the contents of these request parameters in the restlet service I found these chars garbled ! This is my PERL client code: my %request_headers = ( 'DocumentName' => $document_name, --> This name is a JAPANESE String 'DocumentDescription' => 'Test Japanese Chars', 'content-length' => 200, 'Content-Type' => 'application/octet-stream; charset=utf-8', 'User-Agent' => "JPCharTester", ); $s-write_request('PUT', '/test-document/TEST/TEST_DOCUMENT' , %request_headers, $content); in this call both the values of $context and $document_name are JAPANESE Strings. But ONLY the document_name is received as garbled in my backend service. Here goes the Service code: String URL_ENCODING = "UTF-8"; String documentName = requestHeaders.getFirstValue("DocumentName"); System.out.println("Encoded Document Name : "+documentName+" <<<"); --> documentName is garbled here try { documentName = URLDecoder.decode(documentName, URL_ENCODING); System.out.println(>>> Decoded Document Name : "+documentName+" <<<"); --> documentName is garbled here } catch (java.io.UnsupportedEncodingException ex) { throwException(ex.getMessage(), Status.SERVER_ERROR_INTERNAL, ex); } both the above log statements printed GARBLED TEXT !! Can someone tell me what is the mistake I am doing and how to fix this ? Thanks in advance for your help. Regards, Satish.

    Read the article

  • NoSuchMethod exception thrown in GWT

    - by eb1
    I'm starting to get my feet wet in the latest Google Web Toolkit using the Eclipse plugin on OS X 10.5.8. So far I've been able to get the client up and running, which is great. The server, though, is a different matter. I'm trying to link to a .jar file that has some classes I want to use in a server ServiceImpl class, but it seems to have glommed onto a previous iteration of the .jar - I've added a method, rebuilt the jar, removed the jar from the libraries tab on the GWT project's build path (as well as on the exports) and reincluded the jar. No luck - I'm still getting: [WARN] Exception while dispatching incoming RPC call com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.UnexpectedException: Service method 'public abstract org.gwtapplication.client.LWDocument org.gwtapplication.client.DocumentService.getDocument()' threw an unexpected exception: java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: org.externalmodel.MyReallyValidClass.toSomething()Ljava/lang/String; at com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.RPC.encodeResponseForFailure(RPC.java:378) at com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.RPC.invokeAndEncodeResponse(RPC.java:581) ... Caused by: java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: org.externalmodel.MyReallyValidClass.toSomething()Ljava/lang/String; at org.application.server.DocumentServiceImpl.getDocument(DocumentServiceImpl.java:45) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) Eclipse's code sense has no problems resolving the MyReallyValidClass.toSomething() call, and there are no errors with other calls into the externalmodel classes. Any clue where I should be looking?

    Read the article

  • Import error ft2font from matplotlib (python, macosx)

    - by Tomas K
    I was installing matplotlib to use basemap today when I had to install a lot of stuff to make it work. After installing matplotlib and be able to import it I installed basemap but I can't import basemap because of this error: from mpl_toolkits.basemap import Basemap Traceback (most recent call last): File "", line 1, in File "/usr/local/Cellar/python/2.7.2/lib/python2.7/site-packages/mpl_toolkits/basemap/init.py", line 36, in from matplotlib.collections import LineCollection File "/usr/local/Cellar/python/2.7.2/lib/python2.7/site-packages/matplotlib/collections.py", line 22, in import matplotlib.backend_bases as backend_bases File "/usr/local/Cellar/python/2.7.2/lib/python2.7/site-packages/matplotlib/backend_bases.py", line 38, in import matplotlib.widgets as widgets File "/usr/local/Cellar/python/2.7.2/lib/python2.7/site-packages/matplotlib/widgets.py", line 16, in from lines import Line2D File "/usr/local/Cellar/python/2.7.2/lib/python2.7/site-packages/matplotlib/lines.py", line 23, in from matplotlib.font_manager import FontProperties File "/usr/local/Cellar/python/2.7.2/lib/python2.7/site-packages/matplotlib/font_manager.py", line 52, in from matplotlib import ft2font ImportError: dlopen(/usr/local/Cellar/python/2.7.2/lib/python2.7/site-packages/matplotlib/ft2font.so, 2): Symbol not found: _FT_Attach_File Referenced from: /usr/local/Cellar/python/2.7.2/lib/python2.7/site-packages/matplotlib/ft2font.so Expected in: dynamic lookup So when I tried to import ft2font in python by: from matplotlib import ft2font I got this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: dlopen(/usr/local/Cellar/python/2.7.2/lib/python2.7/site-packages/matplotlib/ft2font.so, 2): Symbol not found: _FT_Attach_File Referenced from: /usr/local/Cellar/python/2.7.2/lib/python2.7/site-packages/matplotlib/ft2font.so Expected in: dynamic lookup Any idea what to do? I'm using Mac OSX 10.6 and python 2.7.2 installed by homebrew.

    Read the article

  • CKEditor plugin to close editor

    - by David Lawson
    The problem with destroying the editor from within a plugin, is that certain code tries to use the editor after the destructive plugin code, when in fact the editor is no longer there, causing errors and instability. I have come up with the following code for a plugin which closes the editor using both async:true and setTimeout: var cancelAddCmd = { modes : { wysiwyg:1, source:1 }, async: true, exec : function( editor ) { if(confirm('Are you sure you want to cancel editing and discard all content?')) setTimeout(function() { editor.destroy(); }, 100); } }; The problem I see is that it uses a dodgy setTimout call that would likely have mixed results depending on the computer's speed of execution - 100ms might not have passed by the time it would be OK to destroy the editor. Is there a proper way to destroy the editor from within a plugin? Even with async: true; and no setTimeout errors are created. Maybe a possible solution would be to stop any existing/any more code related to the editor from running afterwards, if possible? I have tried using events, like on('afterCommandExec', function(){ editor.destroy(); }) and some other events, but that hasn't helped much... doesn't seem like there is an event for when the editor has jumped out of its stack call for handling the button. And there is no way to stop execution by disposing of the CKEditor instance more properly?

    Read the article

  • Did I find a bug in WriteableBitmap when using string literals

    - by liserdarts
    For performance reasons I'm converting a large list of images into a single image. This code does exactly what I want. Private Function FlattenControl(Control As UIElement) As Image Control.Measure(New Size(1000, 1000)) Control.Arrange(New Rect(0, 0, 1000, 1000)) Dim ImgSource As New Imaging.WriteableBitmap(1000, 1000) ImgSource.Render(Control, New TranslateTransform) ImgSource.Invalidate Dim Img As New Image Img.Source = ImgSource Return Img End Function I can add all the images into a canvas pass the canvas to this function and I get back one image. My code to load all the images looks like this. Public Function BuildTextures(Layer As GLEED2D.Layer) As FrameworkElement Dim Container As New Canvas For Each Item In Layer.Items If TypeOf Item Is GLEED2D.TextureItem Then Dim Texture = CType(Item, GLEED2D.TextureItem) Dim Url As New Uri(Texture.texture_filename, UriKind.Relative) Dim Img As New Image Img.Source = New Imaging.BitmapImage(Url) Container.Children.Add(Img) End If Next Return FlattenControl(Container) End Function The GLEED2D.Layer and GLEED2D.TextureItem classes are from the free level editor GLEED2D (http://www.gleed2d.de/). The texture_filename on every TextureItem is "Images/tree_clipart_pine_tree.png" This works just fine, but it's just a proof of concept. What I really need to do (among other things) is have the path to the image hard coded. If I replace Texture.texture_filename in the code above with the string literal "Images/tree_clipart_pine_tree.png" the images do not appear in the final merged image. I can add a breakpoint and see that the WriteableBitmap has all of it's pixels as 0 after the call to Invalidate. I have no idea how this could cause any sort of difference, but it gets stranger. If I remove the call to FlattenControl and just return the Canvas instead, the images are visible. It's only when I use the string literal with the WriableBitmap that the images do not appear. I promise you that the value in the texture_filename property is exactly "Images/tree_clipart_pine_tree.png". I'm using Silverlight 3 and I've also reproduced this in Silverlight 4. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • vbCrLf in Multiline TextBox shows up only when .Trim() is called

    - by Brandon Montgomery
    I have an ASP TextBox with TextMode set to MultiLine. I'm having problems with preserving the vbCrLf characters when a user tries to put line breaks into the text. When a button on the page is pressed, I'm taking the text from the control, trimming it using String.Trim, and assigning that value to a String property on an object (which, in turn assigns it to a private internal String variable on the object). The object then takes the value from the private internal variable and throws it into the database using a stored procedure call (the SP parameter it is put into is an nvarchar(4000)). ASPX Page: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel2" runat="server" RenderMode="Inline" UpdateMode="Conditional" ChildrenAsTriggers="true"> <ContentTemplate> <!-- some other controls and things --> <asp:TextBox TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server" ID="txtComments" Width="100%" Height="60px" CssClass="TDTextArea" Style="border: 0px;" MaxLength="2000" /> <!-- some other controls and things --> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> code behind: ProjectRequest.StatusComments = txtComments.Text.Trim object property: Protected mStatusComments As String = String.Empty Property StatusComments() As String Get Return mStatusComments.Trim End Get Set(ByVal Value As String) mStatusComments = Value End Set End Property stored proc call: Common.RunSP(mDBConnStr, "ProjectStatusUpdate", _ Common.MP("@UID", SqlDbType.NVarChar, 40, mUID), _ Common.MP("@ProjID", SqlDbType.VarChar, 40, mID), _ Common.MP("@StatusID", SqlDbType.Int, 8, mStatusID), _ Common.MP("@Comments", SqlDbType.NVarChar, 4000, mStatusComments), _ Common.MP("@PCTComp", SqlDbType.Int, 4, 0), _ Common.MP("@Type", Common.TDSqlDbType.TinyInt, 1, EntryType)) Here's the strangest part. When I debug the code, if I type "test test" (without the quotes) into the comments text box, then click the save button and use the immediate window to view the variable values as I step through, here is what I get: ?txtComments.Text "test test" ?txtComments.Text.Trim "test test" ?txtComments.Text(4) " "c ?txtComments.Text.Trim()(4) " "c Anyone have a clue as to what's going on here?

    Read the article

  • Loading through Ajax request and bookmarked URL

    - by Varun
    I am working on a ticket system, having the following requirement: The home page is divided into two sections: Sec-1. Some filter options are shown here.(like closed-tickets, open-tickets, all-tickets, tickets-assigned-to-me etc.). You can select one or more of these filters. sec-2. List of tickets satisfying above filters will be displayed here. Now this is what I want: As I change the filters -- the change should be reflected in the URL, so that one is able to bookmark it. -- an ajax request will go and list of tickets satisfying the selected filters will be updated in sec-2. I want the same code to be used to load the tickets in both ways- (a) by selecting that set of filters and (b) by using the bookmark to reload the page. I have little idea on how to do it: The URL will contain the selected filters.(appended after #) changing filters on the page will modify the hash part of URL and call a function (say ajaxHandler()) to parse the URL to get the filters and then make an ajax request to get the list of tickets to be displayed in section2. and I will call the same function ajaxHandler() in window.onload. Is this the way? Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • C# Regex replace url

    - by Martijn
    I have a bunch of links in a document which has to be replaced by a javascript call. All the links looks the same: <a href="http://domain/ViewDocument.aspx?id=3D1&doc=form" target="_blank">Document naam 1</a> <a href="http://domain/ViewDocument.aspx?id=3D2&doc=form" target="_blank">Document naam 2</a> <a href="http://domain/ViewDocument.aspx?id=3D3&doc=form" target="_blank">Document naam 3</a> Now I want all this links to be replaced to: <a href="javascript:loadDocument('1','form')">Document naam 1</a> <a href="javascript:loadDocument('2','form')">Document naam 2</a> <a href="javascript:loadDocument('3','form')">Document naam 3</a> So the Id=3D in the url is the first parameter in the function and the doc parameter is the second parameter in the function call. I want to do this using Regex because I think this is the quickest way. But the problem is my regex knowledge is too limited

    Read the article

  • Web service SSL handshake fails in production environment unless SSL debugging enabled

    - by JST
    Scenario: calling a client web service over SSL (https) with mutual SSL authentication. Different service endpoint URLs and certs (both keystore and truststore) for test vs. production environments. Both test and production environments run tomcat / JBoss clustered. Production environment has load balancing / BigIP, runs Blade and non-Blade machines. Truststore is set (using -Djavax.net.ssl.trustStore=value) at startup. Keystore is set using System.setProperty("javax.net.ssl.keyStore", "value") in Java code. Web service call made using Axis2. All works fine in test environment, but when we moved to production environment (6 servers), it appears certs are not being forwarded for the handshake. Here's what we've done: in test environment, handshake using test versions of certs has been working all along, with no ssl debugging enabled confirmed in test environment that handshake with client production endpoint succeeds (production certs, both ours and theirs, are fine) -- this was done using -Djavax.net.debug=handshake,ssl confirmed that the error condition occurs on all 6 production servers took one server out of the cluster, turned on ssl debugging for just that one (with a restart), hit it directly, handshake works! switched to a different server without the debugging turned on, handshake error condition occurs turned debugging on on that second server (with a restart), hit it directly, handshake works! From the evidence, it seems like somehow the debugging being enabled causes the certificates to be properly retrieved/conveyed, although that makes no sense! I wonder whether somehow the enabled debugging makes the system pay attention to the System.setProperty call, and ignore it otherwise. However, in local and test environments, handshake worked without debugging enabled. Do I maybe need to be setting keystore on server startup like I'm setting truststore? Have been avoiding that because the keystore will differ for each of our test environments (16 of them).

    Read the article

  • Will IOC solve our problems?

    - by user127954
    Just trying to implement unit testing into a brownfield type system. Be aware i'm relatively new into the unit testing world. Its going to be a gradual migration of course because there are just so many areas of pain. The current problem i'm trying to solve is we followed a lot of bad practices from our VB6 days and in the conversion of our app to .Net. We have LOT AN LOTS of shared/static functions which call other shared functions and those call others and so on. Sometimes depedencies are passed in as parameters and sometimes they are just newed up within the calling function. I've already instructed our developers to stop creating shared functions and instead create instance members and only use those instance members off of interfaces but that doesn't alleviate the current situation. So you must recursively pass in each and every dependency at the top layer for each function in your code path and method signatures are turning into a mess. I'm hoping this is something that IOC will fix. Currently we are using NUnit/Moq and i'm starting to investigate StructureMap. So far i understand that you pretty much tell StructureMap for x interface i want to default to the concrete class y: ObjectFactory.Initialize(x=>{x.ForRequestType<IInterface>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<MyClass>()}); Then to runtime: var mytype = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IInterface>(); the IOC container will initialize the correct type for you. Not sure yet how to swap a fake in for the concrete type but hopefully thats simple. Again will IOC solve the problems i was talking about above? Is there a specific IOC framework that will do it better than StructureMap or can they all handle this situation. Any help would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Django custom managers - how do I return only objects created by the logged-in user?

    - by Tom Tom
    I want to overwrite the custom objects model manager to only return objects a specific user created. Admin users should still return all objects using the objects model manager. Now I have found an approach that could work. They propose to create your own middleware looking like this: #### myproject/middleware/threadlocals.py try: from threading import local except ImportError: # Python 2.3 compatibility from django.utils._threading_local import local _thread_locals = local() def get_current_user(): return getattr(_thread_locals, 'user', None) class ThreadLocals(object): """Middleware that gets various objects from the request object and saves them in thread local storage.""" def process_request(self, request): _thread_locals.user = getattr(request, 'user', None) #### end And in the Custom manager you could call the get_current_user() method to return only objects a specific user created. class UserContactManager(models.Manager): def get_query_set(self): return super(UserContactManager, self).get_query_set().filter(creator=get_current_user()) Is this a good approach to this use-case? Will this work? Or is this like "using a sledgehammer to crack a nut" ? ;-) Just using: Contact.objects.filter(created_by= user) in each view doesn`t look very neat to me. EDIT Do not use this middleware approach !!! use the approach stated by Jack M. below After a while of testing this approach behaved pretty strange and with this approach you mix up a global-state with a current request. Use the approach presented below. It is really easy and no need to hack around with the middleware. create a custom manager in your model with a function that expects the current user or any other user as an input. #in your models.py class HourRecordManager(models.Manager): def for_user(self, user): return self.get_query_set().filter(created_by=user) class HourRecord(models.Model): #Managers objects = HourRecordManager() #in vour view you can call the manager like this and get returned only the objects from the currently logged-in user. hr_set = HourRecord.objects.for_user(request.user)

    Read the article

  • Access static method from non static class possible in java and not in c#

    - by sagar_kool
    Access static method from non static class with object. It is not possible in C#. Where it is done by JAVA. How it works? example of java /** * Access static member of the class through object. */ import java.io.*; class StaticMemberClass { // Declare a static method. public static void staticDisplay() { System.out.println("This is static method."); } // Declare a non static method. public void nonStaticDisplay() { System.out.println("This is non static method."); } } class StaticAccessByObject { public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { // call a static member only by class name. StaticMemberClass.staticDisplay(); // Create object of StaticMemberClass class. StaticMemberClass obj = new StaticMemberClass(); // call a static member only by object. obj.staticDisplay(); // accessing non static method through object. obj.nonStaticDisplay(); } } Output of the program: This is static method. This is static method. This is non static method. How to do this in C#? thanks in advance..

    Read the article

  • AutoMapper How To Map Object A To Object B Differently Depending On Context

    - by IanT8
    Calling all AutoMapper gurus! I'd like to be able to map object A to object B differently depending on context at runtime. In particular, I'd like to ignore certain properties in one mapping case, and have all properties mapped in another case. What I'm experiencing is that Mapper.CreateMap can be called successfully in the different mapping cases however, once CreateMap is called, the map for a particular pair of types is set and is not subsequently changed by succeeding CreateMap calls which might describe the mapping differently. I found a blog post which advocates Mapper.Reset() to get round the problem, however, the static nature of the Mapper class means that it is only a matter of time before a collision and crash occur. Is there a way to do this? What I think I need is to call Mapper.CreateMap once per appdomain, and later, be able to call Mapper.Map with hints about which properties should be included / excluded. Right now, I'm thinking about changing the source code by writing a non-static mapping class that holds the mapping config instance based. Poor performance, but thread safe. What are my options. What can be done? Automapper seems so promising.

    Read the article

  • Can I use boost::make_shared with a private constructor?

    - by Billy ONeal
    Consider the following: class DirectoryIterator; namespace detail { class FileDataProxy; class DirectoryIteratorImpl { friend class DirectoryIterator; friend class FileDataProxy; WIN32_FIND_DATAW currentData; HANDLE hFind; std::wstring root; DirectoryIteratorImpl(); explicit DirectoryIteratorImpl(const std::wstring& pathSpec); void increment(); public: ~DirectoryIteratorImpl() {}; }; class FileDataProxy //Serves as a proxy to the WIN32_FIND_DATA struture inside the iterator. { friend class DirectoryIterator; boost::shared_ptr<DirectoryIteratorImpl> iteratorSource; FileDataProxy(boost::shared_ptr<DirectoryIteratorImpl> parent) : iteratorSource(parent) {}; public: std::wstring GetFolderPath() const { return iteratorSource->root; } }; } class DirectoryIterator : public boost::iterator_facade<DirectoryIterator, detail::FileDataProxy, std::input_iterator_tag> { friend class boost::iterator_core_access; boost::shared_ptr<detail::DirectoryIteratorImpl> impl; void increment() { impl->increment(); }; detail::FileDataProxy dereference() const { return detail::FileDataProxy(impl); }; public: DirectoryIterator() { impl = boost::make_shared<detail::DirectoryIteratorImpl>(); }; }; It seems like DirectoryIterator should be able to call boost::make_shared<DirectoryIteratorImpl>, because it is a friend of DirectoryIteratorImpl. However, this code fails to compile because the constructor for DirectoryIteratorImpl is private. Since this class is an internal implementation detail that clients of DirectoryIterator should never touch, it would be nice if I could keep the constructor private. Is this my fundamental misunderstanding around make_shared or do I need to mark some sort of boost piece as friend in order for the call to compile?

    Read the article

  • Why is TransactionScope operation is not valid?

    - by Cragly
    I have a routine which uses a recursive loop to insert items into a SQL Server 2005 database The first call which initiates the loop is enclosed within a transaction using TransactionScope. When I first call ProcessItem the myItem data gets inserted into the database as expected. However when ProcessItem is called from either ProcessItemLinks or ProcessItemComments I get the following error. “The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction” I am running this in debug with VS 2008 on Windows 7 and have the MSDTC running to enable distributed transactions. The code below isn’t my production code but is set out exactly the same. The AddItemToDatabase is a method on a class I cannot modify and uses a standard ExecuteNonQuery() which creates a connection then closes and disposes once completed. I have looked at other posting on here and the internet and still cannot resolve this issue. Any help would be much appreciated. using (TransactionScope processItem = new TransactionScope()) { foreach (Item myItem in itemsList) { ProcessItem(myItem); } processItem.Complete(); } private void ProcessItem(Item myItem) { AddItemToDatabase(myItem); ProcessItemLinks(myItem); ProcessItemComments(myItem); } private void ProcessItemLinks(Item myItem) { foreach (Item link in myItem.Links) { ProcessItem(link); } } private void ProcessItemComments(Item myItem) { foreach (Item comment in myItem.Comments) { ProcessItem(comment); } } Here is top part of the stack trace. Unfortunatly I cant show the build up to this point as its company sensative information which I can not disclose. Hope this is enough information. at System.Transactions.TransactionState.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(InternalTransaction tx, IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification, Transaction atomicTransaction) at System.Transactions.Transaction.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.EnlistNonNull(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.Enlist(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.Activate(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionInternal.ActivateConnection(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open()

    Read the article

  • Reading a Serial Port - Ignore portion of data written to serial port for certain time

    - by farmerjoe
    I would like to read data coming and Arduino on a serial port on intervals. So essentially something like Take a reading Wait Take a reading Wait Take ... etc. The problem I am facing is that the port will buffer its information so as soon as I call a wait function the data on the serial port will start buffering. Once the wait function finishes I try and read the data again but I am reading from the beginning of the buffer and the data is not current anymore, but instead is the reading taken at roughly the time the wait function began. My question is whether there is a way that I am unaware of to ignore the portion of data read in during that wait period and only read what is currently being delivered on the serial port? I have this something analogous to this so far: import serial s = serial.Serial(path_to_my_serial_port,9600) while True: print s.readline() time.sleep(.5) For explanation purposes I have the Arduino outputting the time since it began its loop. By the python code, the time of each call should be a half second apart. By the serial output the time is incrementing in less than a millisecond. These values do not change regardless of the sleep timing. Sample output: 504 504 504 504 505 505 505 ... As an idea of my end goal, I would like to measure the value of the port, wait a time delay, see what the value is then, wait again, see what the value is then, wait again. I am currently using Python for this but am open to other languages.

    Read the article

  • Gmail like URL scheme

    - by Varun
    I am working on a ticket system, having the following requirement: The home page is divided into two sections: Sec-1. Some filter options are shown here.(like closed-tickets, open-tickets, all-tickets, tickets-assigned-to-me etc.). You can select one or more of these filters. sec-2. List of tickets satisfying above filters will be displayed here. Now this is what I want: As I change the filters -- the change should be reflected in the URL, so that one is able to bookmark it. -- an ajax request will go and list of tickets satisfying the selected filters will be updated in sec-2. I want the same code to be used to load the tickets in both ways- (a) by selecting that set of filters and (b) by using the bookmark to reload the page. I have little idea on how to do it: The URL will contain the selected filters.(appended after #) changing filters on the page will modify the hash part of URL and call a function (say ajaxHandler()) to parse the URL to get the filters and then make an ajax request to get the list of tickets to be displayed in section2. and I will call the same function ajaxHandler() in window.onload. I feel this is what Yahoo maps does. What's the best way to implement such URL scheme? Am I headed in the right direction?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276  | Next Page >