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  • Help with route rewrite in asp.net mvc

    - by NachoF
    Im having a really hard time understanding routing. Please help me with this problem. Each of my controllers have these three actions right now Users have Index, Create and Edit Locations have Index, Create and Edit Companies have Index, Create and Edit The thing is, it all gets done through ajax. I have jquery ui tabs with two tabs for each, Create and Edit So the Index method is always the one that gets called for action links. and inside this main view is that you can call(by clicking on the tab icon) the other methods that return an ajax view that gets output into the jqeury tab (I hope thats clear) I have a sidebar with links to the controllers. and to specific methods of these controllers. The wanted behavior is that it should actually go into the Index Method and then with some logic autoload the wanted tab. It all works just fine right now. But my urls are horrible. To get to the create method for Users I have to go this url http://localhost/Users/Index/1 http://localhost/Users/Index/2 I want the behavior of these links to be remapped to these links http://localhost/Users/Create http://localhost/Users/Edit So even though it seems as if you are calling the Create method of the controller you are actualling always calling the Index Method.... (I know how to transform Create into "1" and Edit into two, so dont worry about that part Hope thats clear. Thanks in advance Edit: Just realized that this might not be possible cause then when I actually need to call the methods (with ajax) it wont know what to do.... am I correct?

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  • Using Java Executor on AppEngine causes AccessControlException

    - by Drew
    How do you get java.util.concurrent.Executor or CompletionService to work on Google AppEngine? The classes are all officially white-listed, but I get a runtime security error when trying to submit asynchronous tasks. Code: // uses the async API but this factory makes it so that tasks really // happen sequentially Executor executor = java.util.concurrent.Executors.newSingleThreadExecutor(); // wrap Executor in CompletionService CompletionService<String> completionService = new ExecutorCompletionService<String>(executor); final SomeTask someTask = new SomeTask(); // this line throws exception completionService.submit(new Callable<String>(){ public String call() { return someTask.doNothing("blah"); } }); // alternately, send Runnable task directly to Executor, // which also throws an exception executor.execute(new Runnable(){ public void run() { someTask.doNothing("blah"); } }); } private class SomeTask{ public String doNothing(String message){ return message; } } Exception: java.security.AccessControlException: access denied (java.lang.RuntimePermission modifyThreadGroup) at java.security.AccessControlContext.checkPermission(AccessControlContext.java:323) at java.security.AccessController.checkPermission(AccessController.java:546) at java.lang.SecurityManager.checkPermission(SecurityManager.java:532) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerFactory$CustomSecurityManager.checkPermission(DevAppServerFactory.java:166) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerFactory$CustomSecurityManager.checkAccess(DevAppServerFactory.java:191) at java.lang.ThreadGroup.checkAccess(ThreadGroup.java:288) at java.lang.Thread.init(Thread.java:332) at java.lang.Thread.(Thread.java:565) at java.util.concurrent.Executors$DefaultThreadFactory.newThread(Executors.java:542) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.addThread(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:672) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.addIfUnderCorePoolSize(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:697) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.execute(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:652) at java.util.concurrent.Executors$DelegatedExecutorService.execute(Executors.java:590) at java.util.concurrent.ExecutorCompletionService.submit(ExecutorCompletionService.java:152) This code works fine when run on Tomcat or via command-line JVM. However, it chokes in the AppEngine SDK Jetty container (tried with Eclipse plugin and the maven-gae-plugin). AppEngine is likely designed to not allow potentially dangerous programs to run, so I could see them completely disabling thread creation. However, why would Google allow you to create a class, but not allow you to call methods on it? White-listing java.util.concurrent is misleading. Is there some other way to do parallel/simultaneous/concurrent tasks on GAE?

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  • Programmatically implementing an interface that combines some instances of the same interface in var

    - by namin
    What is the best way to implement an interface that combines some instances of the same interface in various specified ways? I need to do this for multiple interfaces and I want to minimize the boilerplate and still achieve good efficiency, because I need this for a critical production system. Here is a sketch of the problem. Abstractly, I have a generic combiner class which takes the instances and specify the various combinators: class Combiner<I> { I[] instances; <T> T combineSomeWay(InstanceMethod<I,T> method) { // ... method.call(instances[i]) ... combined in some way ... } // more combinators } Now, let's say I want to implement the following interface among many others: Interface Foo { String bar(int baz); } I want to end up with code like this: class FooCombiner implements Foo { Combiner<Foo> combiner; @Override public String bar(final int baz) { return combiner.combineSomeWay(new InstanceMethod<Foo, String> { @Override public call(Foo instance) { return instance.bar(baz); } }); } } Now, this can quickly get long and winded if the interfaces have lots of methods. I know I could use a dynamic proxy from the Java reflection API to implement such interfaces, but method access via reflection is hundred times slower. So what are the alternatives to boilerplate and reflection in this case?

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  • Copy Constructors and calling functions

    - by helixed
    Hello, I'm trying to call an accessor function in a copy constructor but it's not working. Here's an example of my problem: A.h class A { public: //Constructor A(int d); //Copy Constructor A(const A &rhs); //accessor for data int getData(); //mutator for data void setData(int d); private: int data; }; A.cpp #include "A.h" //Constructor A::A(int d) { this->setData(d); } //Copy Constructor A::A(const A &rhs) { this->setData(rhs.getData()); } //accessor for data int A::getData() { return data; } //mutator for data void A::setData(int d) { data = d; } When I try to compile this, I get the following error: error: passing 'const A' as 'this' argument of 'int A::getData()' discards qualifiers If I change rhs.getData() to rhs.data, then the constructor works fine. Am I not allowed to call functions in a copy constructor? Could somebody please tell me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks, helixed

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  • Google App Engine: JDO does the job, JPA does not

    - by Phuong Nguyen de ManCity fan
    I have setup a project using both Jdo and Jpa. I used Jpa Annotation to Declare my Entity. Then I setup my testCases based on LocalTestHelper (from Google App Engine Documentation). When I run the test, a call to makePersistent of Jdo:PersistenceManager is perfectly OK; a call to persist of Jpa:EntityManager raised an error: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Type ("org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.model.ExampleModel") is not that of an entity but needs to be for this operation at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.assertEntity(EntityManagerImpl.java:888) at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:385) Caused by: org.datanucleus.exceptions.NoPersistenceInformationException: The class "org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.model.ExampleModel" is required to be persistable yet no Meta-Data/Annotations can be found for this class. Please check that the Meta-Data/annotations is defined in a valid file location. at org.datanucleus.ObjectManagerImpl.assertClassPersistable(ObjectManagerImpl.java:3894) at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.assertEntity(EntityManagerImpl.java:884) ... 27 more How can it be the case? Below is the link to the source code of the maven projects that reproduce that problem: http://seamoo.com/jpa-bug-reproduce.tar.gz Execute the maven test goal over the parent pom you will notice that 3/4 tests from org.seamoo.persistence.jdo.JdoGenericDAOImplTest passed, while all tests from org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.JpaGenericDAOImplTest failed.

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  • NSIS takes ownership of IIS system files

    - by Lucas
    I recently encountered an issue with NSIS that I believe is related to an interaction with UAC, but I am at a loss to explain it and I do not know how to prevent it in the future. I have an installer that creates and removes IIS virtual directories using the NsisIIS plugin. The installer appeared worked correctly on my Windows 7 workstation. When the installer was run on a Windows 2008 R2 server it installed properly, but the uninstaller removed all of the virtual directories and put IIS is an unusable state; to the point that I had to remove the Default Web Site and re-add it. What I eventually found was that all of the IIS configuration files under C:\Windows\System32\inetsrv\config had a lock icon on them. Some investigation seem to indicate that this means a user account has taken ownership of the file, however all the files listed SYSTEM as the file owner. I did check a different server that I have not run the installer on, and it does not have the lock icon applied to the IIS files. I have also seen the same lock icon appear on other files that the NSIS installer creates. For instance, I have a Web.Config.tpl file that is processed using the NSIS ReplaceInFile which also appears with the lock icon after the installer finished. After I explicitly grant another user account access to the file, the lock icon goes away. I run the installer under the local Administrator account on the 2008 R2 server, so I do not get the UAC prompt. Here is the relevant code from the install.nsi file RequestExecutionLevel admin Section "Application" APP_SECTION SectionIn RO Call InstallApp SectionEnd Section "un.Uninstaller Section" Delete "$PROGRAMFILES\${PROGRAMFILESDIR}\Uninstall.exe" Call un.InstallApp SectionEnd Function InstallApp File /oname=Web.Config Web.Config.tpl !insertmacro ReplaceInFile Web.Config %CONNECTION_STRING% $CONNECTION_STRING FunctionEnd Function un.InstallApp ReadRegStr $0 HKLM "Software\${REGKEY}" "VirtualDir" NsisIIS::DeleteVDir "$0" Pop $0 FunctionEnd I have three questions stemming from this incident: How did this happen? How can I fix my installer to prevent it from happening again? How can I repair the permissions on the IIS config files.

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  • Sending Email from Lotus Notes using Excel and having Attachment & HTML body

    - by Anthony
    Right I'm trying to send an Email form an excel spreadsheet though lotus notes, it has an attachment and the body needs to be in HTML. I've got some code that from all I've read should allow me to do this however it doesn't. Without the HTML body the attachment will send, when I impliment a HTML body the Email still sends but the attachment dissapears, I've tried rearanging the order of the code cutting out bits that might not be needed but all is invain. (You need to reference Lotus Domino Objects to run this code. strEmail is the email addresses strAttach is the string location of the attachment strSubject is the subject text strBody is the body text ) Sub Send_Lotus_Email(strEmail, strAttach, strSubject, strBody) Dim noSession As Object, noDatabase As Object, noDocument As Object Dim obAttachment As Object, EmbedObject As Object Const EMBED_ATTACHMENT As Long = 1454 Set noSession = CreateObject("Notes.NotesSession") Set noDatabase = noSession.GETDATABASE("", "") 'If Lotus Notes is not open then open the mail-part of it. If noDatabase.IsOpen = False Then noDatabase.OPENMAIL 'Create the e-mail and the attachment. Set noDocument = noDatabase.CreateDocument Set obAttachment = noDocument.CreateRichTextItem("strAttach") Set EmbedObject = obAttachment.EmbedObject(EMBED_ATTACHMENT, "", strAttach) 'Add values to the created e-mail main properties. With noDocument .Form = "Memo" .SendTo = strEmail '.Body = strBody ' Where to send the body if HTML body isn't used. .Subject = strSubject .SaveMessageOnSend = True End With noSession.ConvertMIME = False Set Body = noDocument.CreateMIMEEntity("Body") ' MIMEEntity to support HTML Set stream = noSession.CreateStream Call stream.WriteText(strBody) ' Write the body text to the stream Call Body.SetContentFromText(stream, "text/html;charset=iso-8859-1", ENC_IDENTITY_8BIT) noSession.ConvertMIME = True 'Send the e-mail. With noDocument .PostedDate = Now() .Send 0, strEmail End With 'Release objects from the memory. Set EmbedObject = Nothing Set obAttachment = Nothing Set noDocument = Nothing Set noDatabase = Nothing Set noSession = Nothing End Sub If somone could point me in the right direction I'd be greatly appreciated. Edit: I've done a little more investigating and I've found an oddity, if i look at the sent folder the emails all have the paperclip icon of having an attachment even though when you go into the email even in the sent the HTML ones don't show an attachment.

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  • C# Communication between threads.

    - by GT
    Hi, I am using .NET 3.5 and am trying to wrap my head around a problem (not being a supreme threading expert bear with me). I have a windows service which has a very intensive process that is always running, I have put this process onto a separate thread so that the main thread of my service can handle operational tasks - i.e., service audit cycles, handling configuration changes, etc, etc. I'm starting the thread via the typical ThreadStart to a method which kicks the process off - call it workerthread. On this workerthread I am sending data to another server, as is expected the server reboots every now and again and connection is lost and I need to re-establish the connection (I am notified by the lost of connection via an event). From here I do my reconnect logic and I am back in and running, however what I easily started to notice to happen was that I was creating this worker thread over and over again each time (not what I want). Now I could kill the workerthread when I lose the connection and start a new one but this seems like a waste of resources. What I really want to do, is marshal the call (i.e., my thread start method) back to the thread that is still in memory although not doing anything. Please post any examples or docs you have that would be of use. Thanks.

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  • Installing Grails with Apache Camel plugin

    - by Abdullah Jibaly
    I'm having trouble getting the Apache Camel plugin to run in grails-1.1.1. Here's the steps I took: $ grails create-app camelapp Welcome to Grails 1.1.1 - http://grails.org/ ... $ cd camelapp $ grails run-app ... Running Grails application.. Server running. Browse to http://localhost:8080/camelapp $ grails install-plugin camel ... Camel Route directory was created. Plugin camel-0.2 installed Plug-in provides the following new scripts: ------------------------------------------ grails create-route $ grails run-app ... [groovyc] org.codehaus.groovy.control.MultipleCompilationErrorsException: startup failed, Compile error during compilation with javac. [groovyc] /Users/abdullah/.grails/1.1.1/projects/camelapp/plugins/camel-0.2/src/java/org/ix/grails/plugins/camel/ClosureProcessor.java:22: method does not override a method from its superclass [groovyc] @Override [groovyc] ^ ... : Compilation Failed at org.codehaus.groovy.ant.Groovyc.compile(Groovyc.java:807) at org.codehaus.groovy.ant.Groovyc.execute(Groovyc.java:540) at org.apache.tools.ant.dispatch.DispatchUtils.execute(DispatchUtils.java:105) at org.apache.tools.ant.Task.perform(Task.java:348) at _GrailsCompile_groovy$_run_closure3_closure7.doCall(_GrailsCompile_groovy:102) at _GrailsCompile_groovy$_run_closure3_closure7.doCall(_GrailsCompile_groovy) at _GrailsSettings_groovy$_run_closure10.doCall(_GrailsSettings_groovy:274) at _GrailsSettings_groovy$_run_closure10.call(_GrailsSettings_groovy) at _GrailsCompile_groovy$_run_closure3.doCall(_GrailsCompile_groovy:89) at _GrailsCompile_groovy$_run_closure2.doCall(_GrailsCompile_groovy:55) at _GrailsPackage_groovy$_run_closure2_closure9.doCall(_GrailsPackage_groovy:79) at _GrailsPackage_groovy$_run_closure2_closure9.doCall(_GrailsPackage_groovy) at _GrailsSettings_groovy$_run_closure10.doCall(_GrailsSettings_groovy:274) at _GrailsSettings_groovy$_run_closure10.call(_GrailsSettings_groovy) at _GrailsPackage_groovy$_run_closure2.doCall(_GrailsPackage_groovy:78) at RunApp$_run_closure1.doCall(RunApp.groovy:28) at gant.Gant$_dispatch_closure4.doCall(Gant.groovy:324) at gant.Gant$_dispatch_closure6.doCall(Gant.groovy:334) at gant.Gant$_dispatch_closure6.doCall(Gant.groovy) at gant.Gant.withBuildListeners(Gant.groovy:344) at gant.Gant.this$2$withBuildListeners(Gant.groovy) at gant.Gant$this$2$withBuildListeners.callCurrent(Unknown Source) at gant.Gant.dispatch(Gant.groovy:334) at gant.Gant.this$2$dispatch(Gant.groovy) at gant.Gant.invokeMethod(Gant.groovy) at gant.Gant.processTargets(Gant.groovy:495) at gant.Gant.processTargets(Gant.groovy:480) Caused by: org.codehaus.groovy.control.MultipleCompilationErrorsException: startup failed, Compile error during compilation with javac. /Users/abdullah/.grails/1.1.1/projects/camelapp/plugins/camel-0.2/src/java/org/ix/grails/plugins/camel/ClosureProcessor.java:22: method does not override a method from its superclass @Override ^ ... Compilation error: Compilation Failed $ java -version java version "1.6.0_07" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_07-b06-153) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 1.6.0_07-b06-57, mixed mode)

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  • Why is ExecuteFunction method only available through base.ExecuteFunction in a child class of Object

    - by Matt
    I'm trying to call ObjectContext.ExecuteFunction from my objectcontext object in the repository of my site. The repository is generic, so all I have is an ObjectContext object, rather than one that actually represents my specific one from the Entity Framework. Here's an example of code that was generated that uses the ExecuteFunction method: [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCode("System.Data.Entity.Design.EntityClassGenerator", "4.0.0.0")] public global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectResult<ArtistSearchVariation> FindSearchVariation(string source) { global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter sourceParameter; if ((source != null)) { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", source); } else { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", typeof(string)); } return base.ExecuteFunction<ArtistSearchVariation>("FindSearchVariation", sourceParameter); } But what I would like to do is something like this... public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; // ... public ObjectResult<E> ExecuteFunction(string functionName, params[]) { // Create object parameters return _ctx.ExecuteFunction<E>(functionName, /* parameters */) } } Anyone know why I have to call ExecuteFunction from base instead of _ctx? Also, is there any way to do something like I've written out? I would really like to keep my repository generic, but with having to execute stored procedures it's looking more and more difficult... Thanks, Matt

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  • .NET Remoting memory leak?

    - by PrimeTSS
    I have a Remoting Class as a Singleton <configuration> <system.runtime.remoting> <application> <service> <wellknown mode="Singleton" type="PTSSLinkClasses.PTSSLinkClientDesktopRemotable, PTSSLinkClasses" objectUri="PTSSLinkDesktop" /> </service> <channels> <channel ref="http" port="8901"/> </channels> </application> </system.runtime.remoting> </configuration> Its created within a "server" Service. Another client service consumes this remote object. The client is calling the remote object every .5 second using a timer (polling) (for testing) If the server service is stopped, so the remote object is not available, memory useage for the client service keeps increasing...... I have overwritten InitialLifetimeService to return a null public override Object InitializeLifetimeService() { return null; } If a remote object is not available does .net queue all the call requests to this object??? untill all the memory is consumed? How can I dected if the remote object is not available and stop trying to call the remote method?

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  • installing paramiko

    - by fixxxer
    This may sound like a repeated question on SF, but I could not find a clear answer to it, yet.So. I installed Paramiko 1.7 with "setup.py install" command and while running the demo.py program, I got this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\paramiko-1.7\demos\demo.py", line 33, in <module> import paramiko File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\__init__.py", line 69, in <module> from transport import randpool, SecurityOptions, Transport File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\transport.py", line 32, in <module> from paramiko import util File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\util.py", line 31, in <module> from paramiko.common import * File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\common.py", line 99, in <module> from Crypto.Util.randpool import PersistentRandomPool, RandomPool ImportError: No module named Crypto.Util.randpool I'm getting this error even after installing PyCrypto 2.1. On running test.py(which comes with the installation), I got the following error - Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\pycrypto-2.0.1\pycrypto-2.0.1\test.py", line 18, in <module> from Crypto.Util import test File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\pycrypto-2.0.1\pycrypto-2.0.1\build/lib.win32-2.6\Crypto\Util\test.py", line 17, in <module> import testdata File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\pycrypto-2.0.1\pycrypto-2.0.1\test\testdata.py", line 450, in <module> from Crypto.Cipher import AES ImportError: cannot import name AES I don't have the confidence to go ahead and install AES after all this, for all I know I may get another ImportError! Please advice.Is it the way of installation thats problematic?

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  • Rails Autocompletion Issue - Rails 1.2.3 to 2.3.5

    - by Grant Sayer
    I have an issue with rails Autocompletion from some code that i've inherited from an old Rails 1.2.3 project that I'm porting to Rails 2.3.5. The issue revolves around javascript execution within the auto_complete helper :after_update_element. The scenario is: A user is presented with a popup form with a number of fields. In the first field as they enter text the auto_complete AJAX call occurs, returning a result, plus a series of other HTML data wrapped in <divs> so that the after_update_element call can iterate over the other data and fill in the remaining fields. The issue lies with the extraction of the other fields which works on IE, fails on Firefox. Here is the code: <%= text_field_with_auto_complete :item, :product_code, {:value => ""}, {:size => 40, :class => "input-text", :tabindex => 6, :select => 'code', :with => "element.name + '=' + escape(element.value) + '&supplier_id=' + $('item_supplier_id').value", :after_update_element => "function (ele, value) { $('item_supplier_id').value = Utilities.extract_value(value, 'supplier_id'); $('item_supplied_size').value = Utilities.extract_value(value, 'size')}"}%> Now the function Utilities is designed to grab the fields from the string of values and looks like: // // Extract a particular set of data from the autocomplete actions // Utilities.extract_value = function (value, className) { var result; var elements = document.getElementsByClassName(className, value); if (elements && elements.length == 1) { result = elements[0].innerHTML.unescapeHTML(); } return result; }; In Firefox the value of result is undefined

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  • cannot receive UDP broadcast packets

    - by user292792
    Hello I have 2 boxes: - an embedded device (ARM Omap with linux) which I'll call "Omap". - a PC (can either be Windows or linux). Scenario 1 Both boxes are in the same network (example: my office). The Omap gets its address from a DHCP server (ex: 192.168.10.110). The PC has always the same address (ex. 192.168.10.104). I can successfully exchange UDP broadcast packets on any port. Success. Scenario 2 The 2 boxes are in a network withOUT a DHCP server. The PC has a static IP address (example: 10.10.10.20). The Omap boots, looks for a DHCP server, doesn't find it, and is in what I call "bad IP address" state. Now... Broadcasting UDP packets from the Omap works: the PC can see them. The opposite doesn't work: UDP packets broadcasted by the PC are not seen by the Omap. I am using Wireshark on another PC to verify that the packets are being sent. Failure. I tried to change the Omap ip address (with ifconfig)... no luck. What am I missing? To complete the picture, when the Omap is in Scenario 2, if I run udhcpc ... it can communicate with the DHCP server and get an IP address. I also see the packets with Wireshark. So this means that the DHCP client is able to broadcast UDP packets. (Yes, I tried to use DHCP ports 67/68 but it doesn't work). I am using Boost C++ Asio UDP sockets. Specifically, I took the multicast examples and changed them to do broadcasting. Any help is appreciated. Thanks, Benedetto

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  • Strange rare out-of-order data received using Indy

    - by Jim
    We're having a bizarre problem with Indy10 where two large strings (a few hundred characters each) that we send out one after the other are appearing at the other end intertwined oddly. This happens extremely infrequently. Each string is a complete XML message terminated with a LF and in general the READ process reads an entire XML message, returning when it sees the LF. The call to actually send the message is protected by a critical section around the call to the IOHandler's writeln method and so it is not possible for two threads to send at the same time. (We're certain the critical section is implemented/working properly). This problem happens very rarely. The symptoms are odd...when we send string A followed by string B what we received at the other end (on the rare occasions where we have failure) is the trailing section of string A by itself (i.e., there's a LF at the end of it) followed by the leading section of string A and then the entire string B followed by a single LF. We've verified that the "timed out" property is not true after the partial read - we log that property after every read that returns content. Also, we know there are no embedded LF characters in the string, as we explicitly replace all non-alphanumeric characters in the string with spaces before appending the LF and sending it. We have log mechanisms inside the critical sections on both the transmission and receiving ends and so we can see this behavior at the "wire". We're completely baffled and wondering (although always the lowest possibility) whether there could be some low-level Indy issues that might cause this issue, e.g., buffers being sent in the wrong order....very hard to believe this could be the issue but we're grasping at straws. Does anyone have any bright ideas?

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  • Google App Engine on Google Apps Domain

    - by Bob Ralian
    I'm having trouble getting my domain pointed to my website hosted with google app engine. Here's the background... take care to separate the concepts of "google apps" (domain hosting, email, etc.) and "google app engine" (website framework). I have a domain that's using Google Apps for Your Domain, let's call it company.com. So my login for my google apps account is [email protected]. I have a different domain that is aliased back to my google apps account, let's call it mycompany.com. It's been successfully aliased and registered with my primary google apps account using the cname method, and has updated mx records. We have a ton of domains, and I only want to use one "google apps" account to maintain them all. Now I have a website I've built using google app engine, and the url is effectively mycompany.appspot.com. I want to get mycompany.com to point to my website that currently resides at mycompany.appspot.com. There's a spot in the google app engine dashboard under application settings where you can add a domain. So I click there and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying that domain is not using google apps. If I back up to the page I submitted, there's a note saying I need to register the domain with google apps. So I click the link to do that and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying the domain has been registered and is in the process of ownership verification. But that process is already finished. So... what do I do? Does google app engine not support a domain that is only aliased to a primary google apps account? Does mycompany.com need to have its own primary google apps account?

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  • cells order changes in UITableView after reloadSections: method

    - by user304895
    I'm having a problem using a grouped UITableView, and after 3 days of searching, I didn't found the solution... Actually, I have a Grouped table, composed of two sections : The first section contains a UISegmentedControl with three buttons : button0, button1 and button2. When clicking on the button0, I want to show two cells in the second section, with embedded UITextField in each cell. When clicking on the button1, I want to show one cell in the second section with an embedded UITextField. When clicking on the button2, I have to show the camera in ModalView (I think it will be ok). I've also put placeholders in each UITextField. Each time a button is clicked, I call a pickOne: method in order to update my view. In this method, I construct a NSIndexSet with NSRange of (1, 1), and then I call the reloadSections: method from the UITableViewController with NSIndexSet as a parameter. When the view appears for the first time, everything is ok, but when I click many times on the buttons, the order of the cells changes (cells containing the two textFields for the button0), and the new placeHolders are written over the old ones. Even more, sometimes when I click on the button0, it shows me only the second cell... Do you have any idea ? or need some code ? Thank you :)

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  • Delete array of size 1

    - by Arne
    This is possibly a candidate for a one-line answer. I would like know it anyway.. I am writing a simple circular buffer and for some reasons that are not important for the question I need to implement it using an array of doubles. In fact I have not investiated other ways to do it, but since an array is required anyway I have not spent much time on looking for alternatives. template<typename T> class CircularBuffer { public: CircularBuffer(unsigned int size); ~CircularBuffer(); void Resize(unsigned int new_size); ... private: T* buffer; unsigned int buffer_size; }; Since I need to have the buffer dynamically sized the buffer_size is neither const nor a template parameter. Now the question: During construction and in function Resize(int) I only require the size to be at least one, although a buffer of size one is effectively no longer a buffer. Of course using a simple double instead would be more appropriate but anyway. Now when deleting the internal buffer in the destructor - or in function resize for that matter - I need to delete the allocated memory. Question is, how? First candidate is of course delete[] buffer; but then again, if I have allocated a buffer of size one, that is if the pointer was aquired with buffer = new T[0], is it still appropriate to call delete[] on the pointer or do I need to call delete buffer; (without brackets) ? Thanks, Arne

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  • Dealing with asynchronous control structures (Fluent Interface?)

    - by Christophe Herreman
    The initialization code of our Flex application is doing a series of asynchronous calls to check user credentials, load external data, connecting to a JMS topic, etc. Depending on the context the application runs in, some of these calls are not executed or executed with different parameters. Since all of these calls happen asynchronously, the code controlling them is hard to read, understand, maintain and test. For each call, we need to have some callback mechanism in which we decide what call to execute next. I was wondering if anyone had experimented with wrapping these calls in executable units and having a Fluent Interface (FI) that would connect and control them. From the top of my head, the code might look something like: var asyncChain:AsyncChain = execute(LoadSystemSettings) .execute(LoadAppContext) .if(IsAutologin) .execute(AutoLogin) .else() .execute(ShowLoginScreen) .etc; asyncChain.execute(); The AsyncChain would be an execution tree, build with the FI (and we could of course also build one without a FI). This might be an interesting idea for environments that run in a single threaded model like the Flash Player, Silverlight, JavaFX?, ... Before I dive into the code to try things out, I was hoping to get some feedback.

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  • incorporate simple vimeo video request with jquery carousel

    - by Andrew Welch
    Hi, I did a tutorial for a jquery carousel that scrolls a ul. At the moment the ul is hardcoded, but I want to use a simple call to vimeo api to bring in the videos for a certain user into the carousel. I have uploaded my code here: http://www.welchcreative.co.uk/wp-content/infinitecarouselvimeo.zip My problem is that I don't know where I should put the code for the simple vimeo call, because at the moment, I think that the problem is that the vimeo videos load after the jquery stuff because it uses window.onload rather than document ready and I can't seem to work out how to put the two and two together. Ideally, 1. the code loads the vimeo videos first and puts them in a ul wiht the correct classes. 2. the carousel code then acts on the list above. in that order. I hope that isn't too vague. It's a pretty simple idea. I'm new to javascript and jquery. Thanks Andy

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  • Silverlight client never calls WCF Service

    - by Doug Nelson
    Hi all, This one has me completed stumped. I have developed a silverlight application that calls back to WCF services ( it's a silverlight - basicHttpBinding) The site works perfectly fine from my development machine, but when it is deployed to the developement server. The application is delivered with the XAP just fine, but it never attempts to talk to the service. I have a service call in the bootstrapper so it should be calling this when the client starts up. The services are healthy. They can be browsed to and show the standard WCF service display. We have been through the bindings many times and everything seems to be ok. I have added an extensive amount of error handling for displaying any errors, but on this dev server, no service calls and no errors are being raised. Fiddler shows the page being loaded up, but my client never issues a call to the service. The service is in the same folder as the default.aspx which hosts the Silverlight client. This is a Silverlight 3.0 app. Anybody ever seen anything similar?

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  • Creating instance of a service-side DataContract class on client-side in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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  • Programmatically access the CIL for a .NET type

    - by Jordão
    Is there a straighforward library that I can use to access the CIL for a .NET type? Let me demonstrate what I want the fictitious CilExtractor to do: [Serializable] public class Type_For_Extract_Cil_Test { private int _field = 3; public int Method(int value) { checked { return _field + value; } } } [Test] public void Extract_Cil_For_Type_Test() { string actualCil = CilExtractor.ExtractCil(typeof(Type_For_Extract_Cil_Test)); string expectedCil = @" .class public auto ansi serializable beforefieldinit Type_For_Extract_Cil_Test extends [mscorlib]System.Object { .method public hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor() cil managed { .maxstack 8 L_0000: ldarg.0 L_0001: ldc.i4.3 L_0002: stfld int32 Type_For_Extract_Cil_Test::_field L_0007: ldarg.0 L_0008: call instance void [mscorlib]System.Object::.ctor() L_000d: ret } .method public hidebysig instance int32 Method(int32 'value') cil managed { .maxstack 8 L_0000: ldarg.0 L_0001: ldfld int32 Type_For_Extract_Cil_Test::_field L_0006: ldarg.1 L_0007: add.ovf L_0008: ret } .field private int32 _field }"; // indentations and code formatting issues apart, this should succeed Assert.AreEqual(expectedCil, actualCil); } I know I can do this with Mono.Cecil or Reflector, but I also know I have to write a lot of code to achieve this. Since Reflector already does this on its UI, isn't there a simple way to access this functionality, like with a simple method call? Are there other libraries that are better suited to this specific scenario?

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  • My Android ListView item layout looks terrible

    - by jnylen
    I wanted to create a layout like the CyanogenMod call log in that there is a list item and a call button on the left which gets focus separately (screenshot). Instead, I get this mess. Here's my code: <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:minHeight="?android:attr/listPreferredItemHeight" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:paddingLeft="4dip" > <DontPressWithParentImageView android:id="@+id/play_icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:paddingLeft="14dip" android:paddingRight="14dip" android:layout_alignParentRight="true" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:src="@drawable/sym_play" android:background="@drawable/play_background" /> <View android:id="@+id/divider" android:layout_width="1px" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_marginTop="5dip" android:layout_marginBottom="5dip" android:layout_toLeftOf="@id/play_icon" android:layout_marginLeft="2dip" android:background="@drawable/divider_vertical_dark" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/file_info" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:layout_marginBottom="8dip" android:layout_marginTop="-10dip" android:layout_marginLeft="10dip" android:layout_alignWithParentIfMissing="true" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="marquee" android:textAppearance="?android:attr/textAppearanceSmall" android:textStyle="bold" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/file_title" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_alignParentTop="true" android:layout_above="@id/file_info" android:layout_alignWithParentIfMissing="true" android:layout_marginBottom="-10dip" android:layout_marginLeft="4dip" android:textAppearance="?android:attr/textAppearanceLarge" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="marquee" android:gravity="center_vertical" /> </RelativeLayout> For reference, the code I started with is here and here, and the source to DontPressWithParentImageView is here (but as you can see from my screenshot, that part is working). What am I doing wrong?

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  • Why can a struct defined inside a function not be used as functor to std::for_each?

    - by Oswald
    The following code won't compile. The compiler complains about *no matching function for call to for_each*. Why is this so? #include <map> #include <algorithm> struct Element { void flip() {} }; void flip_all(std::map<Element*, Element*> input) { struct FlipFunctor { void operator() (std::pair<Element* const, Element*>& item) { item.second->flip(); } }; std::for_each(input.begin(), input.end(), FlipFunctor()); } When I move struct FlipFunctor before function flip_all, the code compiles. Full error message: no matching function for call to ‘for_each(std::_Rb_tree_iterator<std::pair<Element* const, Element*> >, std::_Rb_tree_iterator<std::pair<Element* const, Element*> >, flip_all(std::map<Element*, Element*, std::less<Element*>, std::allocator<std::pair<Element* const, Element*> > >)::FlipFunctor)’

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