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• Best practices for "search data class" in ASP.NET MVC

  - by Tim Ridgely

  Hi everybody, I'm hoping this isn't too subjective, but I'm new to ASP.NET MVC and I'm trying to figure out how others may have solved similar problems. Basically, I have two entities, Customers and Orders. A customer has many orders; an order belongs to exactly one customer. I'm making an Order Search feature that should allow a user to search for orders based on order or customer information. Pretty straightforward, I think. I've read in other posts that the search controller should use GET, but I think it makes more sense to use POST because of the large number of search params. I'm using Entity Framework to create my models, and that's in a separate class library project and namespace. This article talks about using binding instead of Request.Form to get at the POST data. Would it make decent sense to make a class to hold all the search data that could be materialized by the magic model binding? Otherwise I'd just be poking through the FormCollection to pull out particular values, which might be fine. Where would you recommend making such a class?

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• How should I be using IoC in this winform piece of code?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I've got a winform app in visual studio 2010. My app does the following Get a list of files which I need to read the data then insert into a database. For each file, read data and insert into DB. So .. this is the code i have. var list = _repository.GetFileList(); if (list != null) { int i = 0; foreach(var file in list) { i++; var service = new MyService(i, _repository); service.ParseAndSave(); } } So i was hoping to have a new repository for each 'service' i create. Firstly, i'm not sure if I should be using IoC in this case. I believe I should be because then i don't need to tightly couple this winform to a repository. Secondly, I've tried using a Singleton repo, which I don't want and can confirm that it kills that code (crashes with an exception). Some other notes (which shouldn't impact this question) - Using Entity Framework for ASP.NET 4. - Using StructureMap for IoC Can someone help, please?

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• Database (and ORM) choice for an small-medium size .NET Application

  - by jim

  I have a requirement to develop a .NET-based application whose data requirements are likely to exceed the 4 gig limit of SQL 2005 Express Edition. There may be other customers of the same application (in the future) with a requirement to use a specific DB platform (such as Oracle or SQL Server) due to in-house DBA expertise. Questions What RDBMS would you guys recommend? From the looks of it the major choices are PostGreSQL, MySQL or FireBird. I've only got experience of MYSQL from these. Which ORM tool (if any) would you recommend using - ideally one that can be swapped out between DB platforms with minimal effort? I like the look of the entity framework but unsure as to the degree to which platforms other than SQL Server are supported. If it helps, we'll be using the 3.5 version of the Framework. I'm open to the idea of using a tool such as NHibernate. On the other hand, if it's going to be easier, I'm happy to write my own stored procedures / DAL code - there won't be that many tables (perhaps 30-35).

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• What are the linkage of the following functions?

  - by Derui Si

  When I was reading the c++ 03 standard (7.1.1 Storage class specifiers [dcl.stc]), there are some examples as below, I'm not able to tell how the linkage of each successive declarations is determined? Could anyone help here? Thanks in advance! static char* f(); // f() has internal linkage char* f() { /* ... */ } // f() still has internal linkage char* g(); // g() has external linkage static char* g() { /* ... */ } // error: inconsistent linkage void h(); inline void h(); // external linkage inline void l(); void l(); // external linkage inline void m(); extern void m(); // external linkage static void n(); inline void n(); // internal linkage static int a; // a has internal linkage int a; // error: two definitions static int b; // b has internal linkage extern int b; // b still has internal linkage int c; // c has external linkage static int c; // error: inconsistent linkage extern int d; // d has external linkage static int d; // error: inconsistent linkage UPD: Additionally, how can I understand the statement in the standard, " The linkages implied by successive declarations for a given entity shall agree. That is, within a given scope, each declaration declaring the same object name or the same overloading of a function name shall imply the same linkage. Each function in a given set of overloaded functions can have a different linkage, however."

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• Getting Values from fetched Core Data

  - by user571905

  Hi there, Thanks to the wonderful people on this forum, I have overcome most of my Core Data woes. However one persists, and I'm certain it is a simple fix. I have a recipe app that parses an XML doc on load and puts the data in Core Data. Then I search that Core Data for particular recipes, ingredients, etc. Everything is working with one exception... I cannot do anything with the data I retrieve. For example, I search the core data for "eggplant" and get this at the end of the process: "<RecipeData: 0x6112a40> (entity: RecipeData; id: 0x6113880 <x-coredata:///RecipeData/tCDE9A0EE-DA3F-4BD0-AEF8-3C038586991D4> ; data: {\n ingredients = \"Eggplant|Cheese|Tomatoes|\";\n name = \"Eggplant Parm\";\n time = 40;\n})" How do I get the info out of there? I tried looping through, but that causes the app to crash: for (NSString* key in selectedRecipe) { id value = [selectedRecipe objectForKey:key]; NSLog(@"IN LOOP: %@", value); } Any suggestions? Thank you for your time.

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• Problem in homemade function to merge objects

  - by Eric

  I'm trying to make a function that merges arrays. The reason is, I have a function that supposed to get the settings of an entity, and merge them with the global defaults. //So for example, let's say globalOptions is something like this var globalOptions={opt1:'foo',opt2:'something'}; //and this is entityOptions var entityOptions={opt1:'foofoo',opt2:null}; The only difference is it has objects in objects and objects in objects in objects, so what I made was a function that loops through all objects, thinking I would later, easily be able to loop through it all. Please ignore the array thing. That is defected, but unneeded. function loopObj(obj, call, where, objcall, array) { if ($.isArray(obj) || $.isPlainObject(obj)) { for (i in obj) { if ($.isArray(obj)) { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = i, true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'['+i+']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } else { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = parseInt(i), true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'[\''+i+'\']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } } } else { return call(obj,where); } } Then I made this program to convert it: function mergeObj(a,b) { temp.retd = new Object(); loopObj(a,function (c,d) { if (c) { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=c; } else { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=eval(d.replace('%par%','b')); } },'%par%', true); return temp.retd(); } I get the error: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment (anonymous function)base.js:51 loopObjbase.js:40 loopObjbase.js:31 mergeObjbase.js:46 (anonymous function)base.js:72 I know what it means, the eval returns an anonomys variable (copy of the variable), so I can't set it, only get it.

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• NSMagedObjectContext, threads and NSFechedResultsController

  - by tmpz

  Dear iphone developers, Core Data newbie speaking here. In my application I have two NSManagedObjectContext that refer to that same NSPersistentStorageController. One ManagedObjectContext (c1) is in the main thread --created when I create a NSFetchedResultsController -- and the second ManagedObjectContext (c2) created in a second thread, running in the background, detached from the main thread. In the background thread I pull some data off a website and insert the entities created for the pulled data in the thread's ManagedObjectContext (c2). In the meanwhile, the main thread sits doing nothing and displaying a UITableView whose data do be display should be provided by the NSFetchedResultsController. When the background thread has finished pulling the data and inserting entities in c2, c2 saves, and the background thread notifies the main thread that the processing has finished before it exiting. As a matter of fact, the entities that I have inserted in c2 are know by c1 because it can ask it about one particular entity with [c1 existingObjectWithID:ObjectID error:&error]; I would expect at this point, if I call on my tableview reloadData to see some rows showing up with the data I pulled from the web in the background thread thanks to the NSFetchedResults controller which should react to the modifications of its ManagedObjectContext (c1). But nothing is happening! Only if I restart the application I see what I have previously pulled from the web! Where am I doing things wrong? Thank you in advance!

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• WPF A good way to make a view/edit control?

  - by Jefim

  Hi, this is just a question to discuss - what is the best way to make a view/edit control in WPF? E.g. we have an entity object Person, that has some props (name, surname, address, phone etc.). One presentation of the control would be a read-only view. And the other would have the edit view for this same person. Example: <UserControl x:Name="MyPersonEditor"> <Grid> <Grid x:Name="ViewGrid" Visibility="Visible"> <TextBlock Text="Name:"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Person.Name}"/> <Button Content="Edit" Click="ButtonEditStart_Click"/> </Grid> <Grid x:Name="EditGrid" Visibility="Collapsed"> <TextBlock Text="Name:"/> <TextBox Text="{Binding Person.Name}"/> <Button Content="Save" Click="ButtonEditEnd_Click"/> </Grid> </Grid> </UserControl> I hope that the idea is clear. The two options I see right now two grids with visibility switching and a TabControl without its header panel This is just a discussion question - not much trouble with it, yet I am just wondering if there are any other possibilities and elegant solutions to this.

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• What considerations should be made when creating a reporting framework for a business?

  - by Andrew Dunaway

  It's a pretty classic problem. The company I work for has numerous business reports that are used to track sales, data feeds, and various other metrics. Of course this also means that there is a conglomerate of disparate frameworks, ASP.net pages, and areas where these reports can be found. There have been some attempts at consolidating these into a single entity, but nothing has stuck yet. Since this is a common problem, and I am sure solved innumerable times, I wanted to see what others have done. For the most part these can be boiled down to the following pieces: A SQL query against our database to gather data A presentation of data, generally in a data grid Filtering that can vary based on data types and the business needs Some way to organize the reports, a single drop down gets long and unmanageable quickly A method to download data to alter further, perhaps a csv file My first thought was to create a framework in Silverlight with Linq to Sql. Mainly just because I like it and want to play with it which probably is not the best reason. I also thought the controls grant a lot of functionality like sorting, dragging columns, etc. I was also curious about the printing in Silverlight 4. Which brings me around to my original question, what is the best way to do this? Is there a package out there I can just buy that will do it for me? The Silverlight approach seems pretty easy, after it's setup and templated, but maybe it's a bad idea and I can learn from someone else?

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• Recommendation for using equals in Entities and avoiding LazyInitializationExceptions?

  - by huxendupsel

  In the beginning there is a problem that wants to be solved. In my case i got an LazyInitializationException while using indexof in a Collection to retrieve an Object for manipulation. Here i start to think about using equals in EntityBeans (OR-Mapper at all). I know there are some discussions about overriding equals in association with OR-Mapper as hibernate like [1] Entities equals(), hashCode() and toString(). How to correctly implement them? [2] To equals and hashcode or not on entity classes, that is the question. [3] Overriding equals and hashCode in Java I currently have some entities which implements the equals but inside the code i could not use equals several times because of the LazyInitializationExceptions. So i had to workaround and use eg. the name property of the object to identify it's equality. From my point of view the whole 'LazyInitializationException-thing' is not really mentioned in this questions. I'd like to know have you got some good patterns or real live recommendations how to avoid such exception in an equal-Method. Shall i use some helper Methodes to distinguish if a Object of a class is already initialized (4) or should i apdicate the use of equals and use helper classes instead (2)? And what is about catching LazyInitializationExceptions in the equals? [Edit]: If you put equals in context with the initialization of the Object then it will gain importance. Sometimes it is nessesary to have the Object fully initialized but sometimes you don't want to. Because you just need the Object itself (name, id, ...) not its Collection-Properties. So just for equalization you have to reattach the Object and load the whole bunch you don't realy need? Are there any other solutions for such a problem?

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• Parsing an XML string containing "&#x20;" (which must be preserved)

  - by Zoodor

  I have code that is passed a string containing XML. This XML may contain one or more instances of &#x20; (an entity reference for the blank space character). I have a requirement that these references should not be resolved (i.e. they should not be replaced with an actual space character). Is there any way for me to achieve this? Basically, given a string containing the XML: <pattern value="[A-Z0-9&#x20;]" /> I do not want it to be converted to: <pattern value="[A-Z0-9 ]" /> (What I am actually trying to achieve is to simply take an XML string and write it to a "pretty-printed" file. This is having the side-effect of resolving occurrences of &#x20; in the string to a single space character, which need to be preserved. The reason for this requirement is that the written XML document must conform to an externally-defined specification.) I have tried creating a sub-class of XmlTextReader to read from the XML string and overriding the ResolveEntity() method, but this isn't called. I have also tried assigning a custom XmlResolver.

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• Socket send recv functions

  - by viswanathan

  I have created a socket using the following lines of code. Now i change the value of the socket i get like this m_Socket++; Even now the send recv socket functions succeeds without throwing SOCKET_ERROR. I expect that it must throw error. Am i doing something wrong. struct sockaddr_in ServerSock; // Socket address structure to bind the Port Number to listen to char *localIP ; SOCKET SocServer; //To Set up the sockaddr structure ServerSock.sin_family = AF_INET; ServerSock.sin_addr.s_addr = INADDR_ANY; ServerSock.sin_port = htons(pLantronics->m_wRIPortNo); // To Create a socket for listening on wPortNumber if(( SocServer = socket( AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, 0 )) == INVALID_SOCKET ) { return FALSE; } //To bind the socket with wPortNumber if(bind(SocServer,(sockaddr*)&ServerSock,sizeof(ServerSock))!=0) { return FALSE; } // To Listen for the connection on wPortNumber if(listen(SocServer,SOMAXCONN)!=0) { return FALSE; } // Structure to get the IP Address of the connecting Entity sockaddr_in insock; int insocklen=sizeof(insock); //To accept the Incoming connection on the wPortNumber pLantronics->m_Socket=accept(SocServer,(struct sockaddr*)&insock,&insocklen); if(pLantronics->m_Socket == INVALID_SOCKET) { shutdown(SocServer, 2 ); closesocket(SocServer ); return FALSE; } // To make socket non-blocking DWORD dwNonBlocking = 1; if(ioctlsocket( pLantronics->m_Socket, FIONBIO, &dwNonBlocking )) { shutdown(pLantronics->m_Socket, 2); closesocket(pLantronics->m_Socket); return FALSE; } pLantronics->m_sModemName = inet_ntoa(insock.sin_addr); Now i do m_Socket++;//change to some other number ideally expecting send recv to fail. Even now the send recv socket functions succeeds without throwing SOCKET_ERROR. I expect that it must throw error. Am i doing something wrong.

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• how can i read the integer value from xml document in objective-c

  - by uttam

  this is my xml document, i want to use the value of id and mlsid in in my viewcontroller. how can i read it. <Table> <ID>1</ID> <MLSID>70980420</MLSID> <STREET_NO>776</STREET_NO> <STREET_NAME>Boylston</STREET_NAME> <AreaName>Back Bay</AreaName <Table> i have created one object file book which store the all value of xml data and then i put that objects in the array . now i am able to retrive the string value but not getting the integer value. this is my object class. @interface Book : NSObject { NSInteger ID; NSInteger MLSID //Same name as the Entity Name. } how to trieve the value of MLSID in the viewcontroller. or how to print it.

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• What constitutes explicit creation of entities in LINQ to SQL? What elegant "solutions" are there to

  - by Marcelo Zabani

  Hi SO, I've been having problems with the rather famous "Explicit construction of entity type '##' in query is not allowed." error. Now, for what I understand, this exists because if explicit construction of these objects were allowed, tracking changes to the database would be very complicated. So I ask: What constitutes the explicit creation of these objects? In other terms: Why can I do this: Product foo = new Product(); foo.productName = "Something"; But can't do this: var bar = (from item in myDataContext.Products select new Product { productName = item.productName }).ToList(); I think that when running the LINQ query, some kind of association is made between the objects selected and the table rows retrieved (and this is why newing a Product in the first snippet of code is no problem at all, because no associations were made). I, however, would like to understand this a little more in depth (and this is my first question to you, that is: what is the difference from one snippet of code to another). Now, I've heard of a few ways to attack this problem: 1) The creation of a class that inherits the linq class (or one that has the same properties) 2) Selecting anonymous objects And this leads me to my second question: If you chose one of the the two approaches above, which one did you choose and why? What other problems did your approach introduce? Are there any other approaches?

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• MySql: Is it reasonable to use 'view' or I would better denormalize my DB?

  - by Budda

  There is 'team_sector' table with following fields: Id, team_id, sect_id, size, level It contains few records for each 'team' entity (referenced with 'team_id' field). Each record represent sector of team's stadium (totally 8 sectors). Now it is necessary to implement few searches: by overall stadium size (SUM(size)); the best quality (SUM(level)/COUNT(*)). I could create query something like this: SELECT TS.team_id, SUM(TS.size) as OverallSize, SUM(TS.Level)/COUNT(TS.Id) AS QualityLevel FROM team_sector GROUP BY team_id ORDER BY OverallSize DESC / ORDER BY QualityLevel DESC But my concern here is that calculation for each team will be done each time on query performed. It is not too big overhead (at least now), but I would like to avoid performance issues later. I see 2 options here. The 1st one is to create 2 additional fields in 'team' table (for example) and store there OverallSize and QualityLevel fields. If information if 'sector' table is changed - update those table too (probably would be good to do that with triggers, as sector table doesn't change too often). The 2nd option is to create a view that will provide required data. The 2nd option seems much easier for me, but I don't have a lot of experience/knowledge of work with views. Q1: What is the best option from your perspective here and why? Probably you could suggest other options? Q2: Can I create view in such way that it will do calculations rarely (at least once per day)? If yes - how? Q3: Is it reasonable to use triggers for such purpose (1st option). P.S. MySql 5.1 is used, overall number of teams is around 1-2 thousand, overall number of records in sector table - overall 6-8 thousand. I understand, those numbers are pretty small, but I would like to implement the best practice here.

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• Is it possible to Store Enum value in String?

  - by Narasimham K

  Actally my java progrem like... public class Schedule{ public static enum RepeatType { DAILY, WEEKLY, MONTHLY; } public static enum WeekdayType { MONDAY(Calendar.MONDAY), TUESDAY(Calendar.TUESDAY), WEDNESDAY( Calendar.WEDNESDAY), THURSDAY(Calendar.THURSDAY), FRIDAY( Calendar.FRIDAY), SATURDAY(Calendar.SATURDAY), SUNDAY( Calendar.SUNDAY); private int day; private WeekdayType(int day) { this.day = day; } public static List<Date> generateSchedule(RepeatType repeatType,List<WeekdayType> repeatDays) { ----------------------------- ----------------------------//hear some logic i wrote }//Method } And i'm calling the method into my Business class like following... @RemotingInclude public void createEvent(TimetableVO timetableVO) { if ("repeatDays".equals(timetableVO.getSearchKey())) { List<Date> repeatDaysList=Schedule.generateSchedule(timetableVO.getRepeatType(),timetableVO.getRepeatDays()); } } And Finally TimetableVO is @Entity @Table(name="EC_TIMETABLE") public class TimetableVO extends AbstractVO{ ----- private RepeatType repeatType; private List<WeekdayType> repeatDays;//But in this case the method generateSchedule(-,-) was not calling. ----- } So my Question is Which one is Better Statement in the Following... private List<WeekdayType> repeatDays; (or) private String repeatDays;//if we give like this `How to Convert Enum type to String` because generateSchedule() method taking enum type value....

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• C# remote web request certificate error

  - by Ben

  Hi. I am currently integrating a payment gateway into an application. Following a successful transaction the remote payment gateway posts details of the transaction back to my application (ITN). It posts to a HttpHandler that is used to read and validate the data. Part of the validation performed is a POST made by the handler to a validation service provided by the payment gateway. This effectively posts some of the original form values received back to the payment gateway to ensure they are valid. The url that I am posting back to is: "https://sandbox.payfast.co.za/eng/query/validate" and the code I am using: /// <summary> /// Posts the data back to the payment processor to validate the data received /// </summary> public static bool ValidateITNRequestData(NameValueCollection formVariables) { bool isValid = true; try { using (WebClient client = new WebClient()) { string validateUrl = (UseSandBox) ? SandboxValidateUrl : LiveValidateUrl; byte[] responseArray = client.UploadValues(validateUrl, "POST", formVariables); // get the resposne and replace the line breaks with spaces string result = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(responseArray); result = result.Replace("\r\n", " ").Replace("\r", "").Replace("\n", " "); if (result == null || !result.StartsWith("VALID")) { isValid = false; LogManager.InsertLog(LogTypeEnum.OrderError, "PayFast ITN validation failed", "The validation response was not valid."); } } } catch (Exception ex) { LogManager.InsertLog(LogTypeEnum.Unknown, "Unable to validate ITN data. Unknown exception", ex); isValid = false; } return isValid; } However, on calling WebClient.UploadValues the following exception is raised: System.Net.WebException: The underlying connection was closed: Could not establish trust relationship for the SSL/TLS secure channel. ---> System.Security.Authentication.AuthenticationException: The remote certificate is invalid according to the validation procedure. at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartSendAuthResetSignal(ProtocolToken message, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest, Exception exception) at For the sake of brevity I haven't listed the full call stack (I can do if anyone thinks it will help). The remote certificate does appear to be valid. To get around the problem I did try adding a new RemoteCertificateValidationCallback that always returned true but just ended up getting the following exception: System.Security.SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Security.Permissions.SecurityPermission, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. at System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.Check(Object demand, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean isPermSet) at System.Security.CodeAccessPermission.Demand() at System.Net.ServicePointManager.set_ServerCertificateValidationCallback(RemoteCertificateValidationCallback value) at NopSolutions.NopCommerce.Payment.Methods.PayFast.PayFastPaymentProcessor.ValidateITNRequestData(NameValueCollection formVariables) The action that failed was: Demand The type of the first permission that failed was: System.Security.Permissions.SecurityPermission The Zone of the assembly that failed was: MyComputer So I am not sure this will work in medium trust? Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks Ben

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• Stop lazy loading or skip loading a property in NHibernate? Proxy cannot be serialized through WCF

  - by HelloSam

  Consider I have a parent, child relationship class and mapping. I am using NHibernate to read the object from the database, and intended to use WCF to send the object across the wire. Goal For reading the parent object, I want to selectively, at different execution path, decide when I would want to load the child object. Because I don't want to read more than what I needed. Those partially loaded object must be able to sent through WCF. When I mean I don't load it, neither side will access such property. Problem When such partially loaded object is being sent through WCF, as those property is marked as [DataContract], it cannot be serialized as the property is lazy load proxy instead of real known type. What I want to archive, or solution that I can think of lazy=false or lazy=true doesn't work. Former will eagerly fetch all the relationships, latter will create a proxy. But I want nothing instead - a null would be the best. I don't need lazy load. I hope to get a null for those references that I don't want to fetch. A null, but not just a proxy. This will makes WCF happy, and waste less time to have a lazy-load proxy constructed. Like could I have a null proxy factory? -OR- Or making WCF ignoring those property that's a proxy instead of real. I tried the IDataContractSurrogate solution, but only parent is passed to GetObjectToSerialize, I never observe an proxy being passed through GetObjectToSerialize, leaving no chance to un-proxy it. Edit After reading the comments, more surfing on the Internet... It seems to me that DTO would shift major part of the computation to the server side. But for the project I am working on, 50% of time the client is "smarter" than the server and the server is more like a data store with validation and verification. Though I agree the server is not exactly dumb - I have to decide when to fetch the extra references already, and DTO will make this very explicit. Maybe I should just take the pain. I didn't know http://automapper.codeplex.com/ before, this motivates me a little more to take the pain. On the other hand, I found http://trentacular.com/2009/08/how-to-use-nhibernate-lazy-initializing-proxies-with-web-services-or-wcf/, which seems to be working with IDataContractSurrogate.GetObjectToSerialize.

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• One-to-one Mapping issue with NHibernate/Fluent: Foreign Key not updateing

  - by Trevor

  Summary: Parent and Child class. One to one relationship between the Parent and Child. Parent has a FK property which references the primary key of the Child. Code as follows: public class NHTestParent { public virtual Guid NHTestParentId { get; set; } public virtual Guid ChildId { get { return ChildRef.NHTestChildId; } set { } } public virtual string ParentName { get; set; } protected NHTestChild _childRef; public virtual NHTestChild ChildRef { get { if (_childRef == null) _childRef = new NHTestChild(); return _childRef; } set { _childRef = value; } } } public class NHTestChild { public virtual Guid NHTestChildId { get; set; } public virtual string ChildName { get; set; } } With the following Fluent mappings: Parent Mapping Id(x => x.NHTestParentId); Map(x => x.ParentName); Map(x => x.ChildId); References(x => x.ChildRef, "ChildId").Cascade.All(); Child Mapping: Id(x => x.NHTestChildId); Map(x => x.ChildName); If I do something like (pseudo code) ... HTestParent parent = new NHTestParent(); parent.ParentName = "Parent 1"; parent.ChildRef.ChildName = "Child 1"; nhibernateSession.SaveOrUpdate(aParent); Commit; ... I get an error: "Invalid index 3 for this SqlParameterCollection with Count=3" If I change the parent 'References' line as follows (i.e. provide the name of the child property I'm pointing at): References(x => x.ChildRef, "ChildId").PropertyRef("NHTestChildId").Cascade.All(); I get the error: "Unable to resolve property: NHTestChildId" So, I tried the 'HasOne()' reference setting, as follows: HasOne<NHTestChild>(x => x.ChildRef).ForeignKey("ChildId").Cascade.All().Fetch.Join(); This results in the save working, but the load fails to find the child. If I inspect the SQL Nhibernate produces I can see that NHibernate is assuming the Primary key of the parent is the link to the child (i.e. load join condition is "parent.NHTestParentId = child.NHTestChildId). The 'ForeignKey' specified appears to be ignored. I can set any value and no error occurs - the join just always fails and no child is returned. I've tried a number of slight variations on the above. It seems like it should be a simple thing to achieve. Any ideas?

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• Run MySQL INSERT Query multiple times (insert values into multiple tables)

  - by Derek

  Hi, basically, I have 3 tables; users and projects (which is a many-to-many relationship), then I have 'usersprojects' to allow the one-to-many formation. When a user adds a project, I need the project information stored and then the 'userid' and 'projectid' stored in the usersprojects table. It sounds like its really straight forward but I'm having problems with the syntax I think!? As it stands, I have this as my INSERT queries (values going into 2 different tables): $project_id = $_POST['project_id']; $projectname = $_POST['projectname']; $projectdeadline = $_POST['projectdeadline']; $projectdetails = $_POST['projectdetails']; $user_id = $_POST['user_id']; $sql = "INSERT INTO projects (projectid, projectname, projectdeadline, projectdetails) VALUES ('{$projectid}','{$projectname}','{$projectdeadline}','{$projectdetails}')"; $sql = "INSERT INTO usersprojects (userid, projectid) VALUES ('{$userid}','{$projectid}')"; None of the information is being stored in the projects table, but the user ID is being stored in the usersprojects table (but not project ID!?)... I did have it working where the project information is stored correctly with a project ID, before I added this bit: $sql = "INSERT INTO usersprojects (userid, projectid) VALUES ('{$userid}','{$projectid}')"; But before the code above was put in, obviously no info is being stored in usersprojects table. The source code that links the script: <form id="addform" name="addform" method="POST" action="addproject-run.php"> <label>Project Name:</label> <input name="projectname" size="40" id="projectname" value="<?php if (isset($_POST['projectname'])); ?>"/><br /> <input name="user_id" input type="hidden" size="40" id="user_id" value="<?php echo $_SESSION['SESS_USERID']; ?>"/> <label>Project Deadline:</label> <input name="projectdeadline" size="40" id="projectdeadline" value="In the format of 'YYYY-MM-DD'<?php if (isset($_POST['projectdeadline'])); ?>"/><br /> <label>Project Details:</label> <textarea rows="5" cols="20" name="projectdetails" id="projectdetails"><?php if (isset($_POST['projectdetails'])); ?></textarea> <br /> <br /> <input value="Create Project" class="addbtn" type="submit" /> </form></div> So I think I'm right in saying I have the syntax for the SQL statement to be run an insert query of values into 2 tables? Any help is much appreciated! Thanks.

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• MVC2 Client validation with Annotations in View with RenderAction

  - by Olle

  I'm having problem with client side validation on a View that renders a dropdownlist with help of a Html.RenderAction. I have two controllers. SpecieController and CatchController and I've created ViewModels for my views. I want to keep it as DRY as possible and I will most probably need a DropDownList for all Specie elsewhere in the near future. When I create a Catch i need to set a relationship to one specie, I do this with an id that I get from the DropDownList of Species. ViewModels.Catch.Create [Required] public int Length { get; set; } [Required] public int Weight { get; set; } [Required] [Range(1, int.MaxValue)] public int SpecieId { get; set; } ViewModels.Specie.List public DropDownList(IEnumerable<SelectListItem> species) { this.Species = species; } public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> Species { get; private set; } My View for the Catch.Create action uses the ViewModels.Catch.Create as a model. But it feels that I'm missing something in the implemetation. What I want in my head is to connect the selected value in the DropDownList that comes from the RenderAction to my SpecieId. View.Catch.Create <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.SpecieId) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%-- Before DRY refactoring, works like I want but not DRY <%: Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.SpecieId, Model.Species) %> --%> <% Html.RenderAction("DropDownList", "Specie"); %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.SpecieId) %> </div> CatchController.Create [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(ViewModels.CatchModels.Create myCatch) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Can we make this StronglyTyped? int specieId = int.Parse(Request["Species"]); // Save to db Catch newCatch = new Catch(); newCatch.Length = myCatch.Length; newCatch.Weight = myCatch.Weight; newCatch.Specie = SpecieService.GetById(specieId); newCatch.User = UserService.GetUserByUsername(User.Identity.Name); CatchService.Save(newCatch); } This scenario works but not as smooth as i want. ClientSide validation does not work for SpecieId (after i refactored), I see why but don't know how I can ix it. Can I "glue" the DropDownList SelectedValue into myCatch so I don't need to get the value from Request["Species"] Thanks in advance for taking your time on this.

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• Sharing a UIView between UIViewControllers in a UITabBarController

  - by Wireless Designs

  Hi all - I have a UIScrollView that houses a gallery of images the user can scroll through. This view needs to be visible on each of three separate UIViewControllers that are housed within a UITabBarController. Right now, I have three separate UIScrollView instances in the UITabBarController subclass, and the controller manages keeping the three synchronized (when a user scrolls the one they can see, programmatically scrolling the other two to match, etc.), which is not ideal. I would like to know if there is a way to work with only ONE instance of the UIScrollView, but have it show up only in the UIViewController that the user is currently interacting with. This would completely eliminate all the synchronization code. Here is basically what I have now in the UITabBarController (which is where all this is currently managed): @interface ScrollerTabBarController : UITabBarController { FirstViewController *firstView; SecondViewController *secondView; ThirdViewController *thirdView; UIScrollView *scrollerOne; UIScrollView *scrollerTwo; UIScrollView *scrollerThree; } @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet FirstViewController *firstView; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet SecondViewController *secondView; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet ThirdViewController *thirdView; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UIScrollView *scrollerOne; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UIScrollView *scrollerTwo; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UIScrollView *scrollerThree; @end @implementation ScrollerTabBarController - (void)layoutScroller:(UIScrollView *)scroller {} - (void)scrollToMatch:(UIScrollView *)scroller {} - (void)viewDidLoad { [self layoutScroller:scrollerOne]; [self layoutScroller:scrollerTwo]; [self layoutScroller:scrollerThree]; [scrollerOne setDelegate:self]; [scrollerTwo setDelegate:self]; [scrollerThree setDelegate:self]; [firstView setGallery:scrollerOne]; [secondView setGallery:scrollerTwo]; [thirdView setGallery:scrollerThree]; } - (void)scrollViewDidEndDecelerating:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { [self scrollToMatch:scrollView]; } @end The UITabBarController gets notified (as the scroll view's delegate) when the user scrolls one of the instances, and then calls methods like scrollToMatch: to sync up the other two with the user's choice. Is there something that can be done, using a many-to-one relationship on IBOutlet or something like that, to narrow this down to one instance so I'm not having to manage three scroll views? I tried keeping a single instance and moving the pointer from one view to the next using the UITabBarControllerDelegate methods (calling setGallery:nil on the current and setGallery:scrollerOne on the next each time it changed), but the scroller never moved to the other tabs. Thanks in advance!

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• Fluent NHibernate - How to map a non nullable foreign key that exists in two joined tables

  - by vakman

  I'm mapping a set of membership classes for my application using Fluent NHibernate. I'm mapping the classes to the asp.net membership database structure. The database schema relevant to the problem looks like this: ASPNET_USERS UserId PK ApplicationId FK NOT NULL other user columns ... ASPNET_MEMBERSHIP UserId PK,FK ApplicationID FK NOT NULL other membership columns... There is a one to one relationship between these two tables. I'm attempting to join the two tables together and map data from both tables to a single 'User' entity which looks like this: public class User { public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual Guid ApplicationId { get; set; } // other properties to be mapped from aspnetuser/membership tables ... My mapping file is as follows: public class UserMap : ClassMap<User> { public UserMap() { Table("aspnet_Users"); Id(user => user.Id).Column("UserId").GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); Map(user => user.ApplicationId); // other user mappings Join("aspnet_Membership", join => { join.KeyColumn("UserId"); join.Map(user => user.ApplicationId); // Map other things from membership to 'User' class } } } If I try to run with the code above I get a FluentConfiguration exception Tried to add property 'ApplicationId' when already added. If I remove the line "Map(user = user.ApplicationId);" or change it to "Map(user = user.ApplicationId).Not.Update().Not.Insert();" then the application runs but I get the following exception when trying to insert a new user: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'ApplicationId', table 'ASPNETUsers_Dev.dbo.aspnet_Users'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. And if I leave the .Map(user = user.ApplicationId) as it originally was and make either of those changes to the join.Map(user = user.ApplicationId) then I get the same exception above except of course the exception is related to an insert into the aspnet_Membership table So... how do I do this kind of mapping assuming I can't change my database schema?

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• link_to passing paramater and display problem - tag feature - Ruby on Rails

  - by bgadoci

  I have gotten a great deal of help from KandadaBoggu on my last question and very very thankful for that. As we were getting buried in the comments I wanted to break this part out. I am attempting to create a tag feature on the rails blog I am developing. The relationship is Post has_many :tags and Tag belongs_to :post. Adding and deleting tags to posts are working great. In my /view/posts/index.html.erb I have a section called tags where I am successfully querying the Tags table, grouping them and displaying the count next to the tag_name (as a side note, I mistakenly called the column containing the tag name, 'tag_name' instead of just 'name' as I should have) . In addition the display of these groups are a link that is referencing the index method in the PostsController. That is where the problem is. When you navigate to /posts you get an error because there is no parameter being passed (without clicking the tag group link). I have the .empty? in there so not sure what is going wrong here. Here is the error and code: Error You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of Array. The error occurred while evaluating nil.empty? /views/posts/index.html.erb <% @tag_counts.each do |tag_name, tag_count| %> <tr> <td><%= link_to(tag_name, posts_path(:tag_name => tag_name)) %></td> <td>(<%=tag_count%>)</td> </tr> <% end %> PostsController def index @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'updated_at DESC', :limit => 10) @posts=Post.all(:joins => :tags,:conditions=>(params[:tag_name].empty? ? {}: { :tags => { :tag_name => params[:tag_name] }} ) ) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @posts } format.json { render :json => @posts } format.atom end end

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• Best practices concerning view model and model updates with a subset of the fields

  - by Martin

  By picking MVC for developing our new site, I find myself in the midst of "best practices" being developed around me in apparent real time. Two weeks ago, NerdDinner was my guide but with the development of MVC 2, even it seems outdated. It's an thrilling experience and I feel privileged to be in close contact with intelligent programmers daily. Right now I've stumbled upon an issue I can't seem to get a straight answer on - from all the blogs anyway - and I'd like to get some insight from the community. It's about Editing (read: Edit action). The bulk of material out there, tutorials and blogs, deal with creating and view the model. So while this question may not spell out a question, I hope to get some discussion going, contributing to my decision about the path of development I'm to take. My model represents a user with several fields like name, address and email. All the names, in fact, on field each for first name, last name and middle name. The Details view displays all these fields but you can change only one set of fields at a time, for instance, your names. The user expands a form while the other fields are still visible above and below. So the form that is posted back contains a subset of the fields representing the model. While this is appealing to us and our layout concerns, for various reasons, it is to be shunned by serious MVC-developers. I've been reading about some patterns and best practices and it seems that this is not in key with the paradigm of viewmodel == view. Or have I got it wrong? Anyway, NerdDinner dictates using FormCollection och UpdateModel. All the null fields are happily ignored. Since then, the MVC-community has abandoned this approach to such a degree that a bug in MVC 2 was not discovered. UpdateModel does not work without a complete model in your formcollection. The view model pattern receiving most praise seems to be Dedicated view model that contains a custom view model entity and is the only one that my design issue could be made compatible with. It entails a tedious amount of mapping, albeit lightened by the use of AutoMapper and the ideas of Jimmy Bogard, that may or may not be worthwhile. He also proposes a 1:1 relationship between view and view model. In keeping with these design paradigms, I am to create a view and associated view for each of my expanding sets of fields. The view models would each be nearly identical, differing only in the fields which are read-only, the views also containing much repeated markup. This seems absurd to me. In future I may want to be able to display two, more or all sets of fields open simultaneously. I will most attentively read the discussion I hope to spark. Many thanks in advance.

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