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  • Can I clone an IQueryable in linq? For UNION purposes?

    - by user169867
    I have a table of WorkOrders. The table has a PrimaryWorker & PrimaryPay field. It also has a SecondaryWorker & SecondaryPay field (which can be null). I wish to run 2 very similar queries & union them so that it will return a Worker Field & Pay field. So if a single WorkOrder record had both the PrimaryWorker and SecondaryWorker field populated I would get 2 records back. The "where clause" part of these 2 queries is very similar and long to construct. Here's a dummy example var q = ctx.WorkOrder.Where(w => w.WorkDate >= StartDt && w.WorkDate <= EndDt); if(showApprovedOnly) { q = q.Where(w => w.IsApproved); } //...more filters applied Now I also have a search flag called "hideZeroPay". If that's true I don't want to include the record if the worker was payed $0. But obviously for 1 query I need to compare the PrimaryPay field and in the other I need to compare the SecondaryPay field. So I'm wondering how to do this. Can I clone my base query "q" and make a primary & secondary worker query out of it and then union those 2 queries together? I'd greatly appreciate an example of how to correctly handle this. Thanks very much for any help.

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  • Very strange Application.ThreadException behaviour.

    - by Brann
    I'm using the Application.ThreadException event to handle and log unexpected exceptions in my winforms application. Now, somewhere in my application, I've got the following code (or rather something equivalent, but this dummy code is enough to reproduce my issue) : try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } I'm clearly expecting my Application_ThreadException handler to be passed the "test2" exception, but this is not always the case. Typically, if another thread marshals my code to the UI, my handler receives the "test" exception, exactly as if I hadn't caught "test" at all. Here is a short sample reproducing this behavior. I have omitted the designer's code. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Exception.Message); } } public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); button1.Click+=new EventHandler(button1_Click); System.Threading.Thread t = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(ThrowEx)); t.Start(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } } void ThrowEx() { this.BeginInvoke(new EventHandler(button1_Click)); } } The output of this program on my computer is : test ... here I click button1 test2 I've reproduced this on .net 2.0,3.5 and 4.0. Does someone have a logical explanation ?

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  • How do I run a VBScript in 32-bit mode on a 64-bit machine?

    - by Peter
    I have a text file that ends with .vbs that I have written the following in: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Provider = "Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0" Conn.Properties("Data Source") = "C:\dummy.accdb" Conn.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Database Password") = "pass" Conn.Open Conn.Close Set Conn = Nothing When I execute this on a Windows 32-bit machine it runs and ends without any notion (expected). When I execute this on a Windows 64-bit machine it gets the error "Provider cannot be found. It may not be properly installed.". But it is installed. I think the root of the problem is that the provider is a 32-bit provider, as far as I know it doesn't exist as 64-bit. If I run the VBScript through IIS on my 64-bit machine (as a ASP file) I can select that it should run in 32-bit mode. It can then find the provider. How can I make it find the provider on Windows 64-bit? Can I tell CScript (which executes the .vbs text file) to run in 32-bit mode somehow?

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  • is back_insert_iterator<> safe to be passed by value?

    - by afriza
    I have a code that looks something like: struct Data { int value; }; class A { public: typedef std::deque<boost::shared_ptr<Data> > TList; std::back_insert_iterator<TList> GetInserter() { return std::back_inserter(m_List); } private: TList m_List; }; class AA { boost::scoped_ptr<A> m_a; public: AA() : m_a(new A()) {} std::back_insert_iterator<A::TList> GetDataInserter() { return m_a->GetInserter(); } }; class B { template<class OutIt> CopyInterestingDataTo(OutIt outIt) { // loop and check conditions for interesting data // for every `it` in a Container<Data*> // create a copy and store it for( ... it = ..; .. ; ..) if (...) { *outIt = OutIt::container_type::value_type(new Data(**it)); outIt++; // dummy } } void func() { AA aa; CopyInterestingDataTo(aa.GetInserter()); // aa.m_a->m_List is empty! } }; The problem is that A::m_List is always empty even after CopyInterestingDataTo() is called. However, if I debug and step into CopyInterestingDataTo(), the iterator does store the supposedly inserted data!

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  • Security Exception when using Custom ASP.NET Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

    - by Elementenfresser
    Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is - it doesn't. In less than full trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

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  • Protecting Content with AuthLogic

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I know this sounds like a really, really simple use case and I'm hoping that it is, but I swear I've looked all over the place and haven't found any mention of any way - not even the best way - of doing this. I'm brand-spanking new to Ruby, Rails and everything surrounding either (which may explain a lot). The dummy app that I'm using as my learning tool requires authentication in order to do almost anything meaningful, so I chose to start by solving that problem. I've installed the AuthLogic gem and have it working nicely to the extent that is covered by the intro documentation and Railscast, but now that I can register, login and logout...I need to do something with it. As an example, I need to create a page where users can upload images. I'm planning to have an ImagesController with an upload action method, but I want that only accessible to logged in users. I suppose that in every restricted action I could add code to redirect if there's no current_user, but that seems really verbose. Is there a better way of doing this that allows me to define or identify restricted areas and handle the authentication check in one place?

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  • Using a string inside the DocumentBuilder parse method (need it for parsing XML using XPath)

    - by dierre
    Hi guys! I'm trying to create a RESTful webservice using a Java Servlet. The problem is I have to pass via POST method to a webserver a request. The content of this request is not a parameter but the body itself. So I basically send from ruby something like this: url = URI.parse(@host) req = Net::HTTP::Post.new('/WebService/WebServiceServlet') req['Content-Type'] = "text/xml" # req.basic_auth 'account', 'password' req.body = data response = Net::HTTP.start(url.host, url.port){ |http| puts http.request(req).body } Then I have to retrieve the body of this request in my servlet. I use the classic readline, so I have a string. The problem is when I have to parse it as XML: private void useXML( final String soft, final PrintWriter out) throws ParserConfigurationException, SAXException, IOException, XPathExpressionException, FileNotFoundException { DocumentBuilderFactory domFactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); domFactory.setNamespaceAware(true); // never forget this! DocumentBuilder builder = domFactory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document doc = builder.parse(soft); XPathFactory factory = XPathFactory.newInstance(); XPath xpath = factory.newXPath(); XPathExpression expr = xpath.compile("//software/text()"); Object result = expr.evaluate(doc, XPathConstants.NODESET); NodeList nodes = (NodeList) result; for (int i = 0; i < nodes.getLength(); i++) { out.println(nodes.item(i).getNodeValue()); } } The problem is that builder.parse() accepts: parse(File f), parse(InputSource is), parse(InputStream is). Is there any way I can transform my xml string in an InputSource or something like that? I know it could be a dummy question but Java is not my thing, I'm forced to use it and I'm not very skilled.

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  • Not able to connect to TFS Server from TFS Proxy

    - by GV India
    In our office we have setup TFS for project development. The TFS Server is WIN 2003 server SP2 with VSTFS 2008 and is running fine. Now we need to setup a TFS Proxy server on client site for client to access. Before going for the client setup, I wanted to build and test proxy in our office on a dummy server (will call it Proxy server hereon) by keeping it on a different domain. OS configuration of the Proxy server is the same as TFS server. I have installed and configured TFS proxy on Proxy server to connect to TFS Server. Also we have built trust between the two different domains to enable communication. Now problem is that I am not able to at all connect to TFS server. I am trying to connect from Internet Explorer of proxy server using proxy service account. It gives me error: The page cannot be displayed. HTTP 500 - Internal server error. The page I was browsing was http://tfs:8080/VersionControl/v1.0/ProxyStatistics.asmx. I think I have done all the required steps correctly to configure proxy as described in MSDN and also TFS installation guide. Here Proxy service account is a member of ‘Team Foundation Valid Users’ group. I am able to connect to TFS Server (specifying port) using Telnet from command prompt on proxy server as suggested by few sites. The TFS server web sites have been configured to use Integration Windows Authentication. Event Logs on both the servers are also not giving any error. Overall I’m not able to get it done. Any ideas on what might be the problem???

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  • W3C error doc error? Output tag browser support.

    - by ThomasReggi
    Was looking at the reference page here : http://www.w3.org/TR/html5/offline.html I copied and pasted the code on my server here in separate files. All of the pages are linked correctly but the clock won't show. Just to double check, it wasn't my "server config" I put it on jsfiddle.net here: http://jsfiddle.net/reggi/Dy8PU/. Fails: MAC / FIREFOX 3.6.13 Wins: MAC / FIREFOX 4.0.b8 Is this dummy example code? <!-- clock.html --> <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Clock</title> <script src="clock.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="clock.css"> </head> <body> <p>The time is: <output id="clock"></output></p> </body> </html> /* clock.css */ output { font: 2em sans-serif; } /* clock.js */ setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById('clock').value = new Date(); }, 1000); UPDATE: The W3C code above works on only the NEWEST Beta releases of certain browsers Below are some viable current javascript workarounds

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  • noncopyable static const member class in template class

    - by Dukales
    I have a non-copyable (inherited from boost::noncopyable) class that I use as a custom namespace. Also, I have another class, that uses previous one, as shown here: #include <boost/utility.hpp> #include <cmath> template< typename F > struct custom_namespace : boost::noncopyable { F sqrt_of_half(F const & x) const { using std::sqrt; return sqrt(x / F(2.0L)); } // ... maybe others are not so dummy const/constexpr methods }; template< typename F > class custom_namespace_user { static ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_; public : F poisson() const { return custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(M_PI); } static F square_diagonal(F const & a) { return a * custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(1.0L); } }; template< typename F > ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_user< F >::custom_namespace_(); this code leads to the next error (even without instantiation): error: no 'const custom_namespace custom_namespace_user::custom_namespace_()' member function declared in class 'custom_namespace_user' The next way is not legitimate: template< typename F ::custom_namespace< F const custom_namespace_user< F ::custom_namespace_ = ::custom_namespace< F (); What should I do to declare this two classes (first as noncopyable static const member class of second)? Is this feaseble?

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  • How can I ceil the height of a div that has "display: table-cell"?

    - by eric01
    I am trying to vertically center a div inside another div, regardless of the size of both div's I am doing this: <div id='outer_div'> <div id='inner_div'></div> </div> The CSS is #outer_div { display: table-row; height: 200px; width: 200px } #inner_div { display: table-cell; vertical-align: middle; height: 500px; width: 500px } I put larger dimensions for the inner div on purpose. What happens is that even if I put a width of 1000px, the width of the innerdiv is ceiled at 200px because of the outer div's width (and this is what I want) But for the height, it is not ceiled and I would like it to be ceiled to the height of the outer div. What i want is the innerdiv to remain at the same size as the outer_div, no matter what height I give to outer_div in CSS. I basically want it to be the same size as its parent. EDIT: I only put text inside those div's. So let's say I have an outer div of 200px*200px (it has display: table-row), and the inner div is defined by css as 500px*500px and it has dummy text inside. My expected result is to have the inner div shrunk down to 200px*200px. It is successfully 'shrunk' by the outer div for the width, but NOT for the height. What I want is to have it shrunk on the height as well (so the inner div ajusts automatically in case I change the height of the outer div) How do I go about that?

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  • Can't combine "LINQ Join" with other tables

    - by FullmetalBoy
    The main problem is that I recieve the following message: "base {System.SystemException} = {"Unable to create a constant value of type 'BokButik1.Models.Book-Author'. Only primitive types ('such as Int32, String, and Guid') are supported in this context."}" based on this LinQ code: IBookRepository myIBookRepository = new BookRepository(); var allBooks = myIBookRepository.HamtaAllaBocker(); IBok_ForfattareRepository myIBok_ForfattareRepository = new Bok_ForfattareRepository(); var Book-Authors = myIBok_ForfattareRepository.HamtaAllaBok_ForfattareNummer(); var q = from booknn in allBooks join Book-Authornn in Book-Authors on booknn.BookID equals Book-Authornn.BookID select new { booknn.title, Book-AuthorID }; How shall I solve this problem to get a class instance that contain with property title and Book-AuthorID? // Fullmetalboy I also have tried making some dummy by using "allbooks" relation with Code Samples from the address http://www.hookedonlinq.com/JoinOperator.ashx. Unfortunately, still same problem. I also have taken account to Int32 due to entity framework http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb896317.aspx. Unfortunatley, still same problem. Using database with 3 tables and one of them is a many to many relationship. This database is used in relation with entity framework Book-Author Book-Author (int) BookID (int) Forfattare (int) Book BookID (int) title (string) etc etc etc

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  • Python and the self parameter

    - by Svend
    I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

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  • Components inside a repeater not resizing as expected

    - by VoidPointer
    I have an mxml panel in which I'm using a repeater. The panel can be resized horizontally and I would like for the repeated components to resize together with panel. Here is a simplified example of how things look like: <mx:TitleWindow xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="vertical" ...> <!-- scripts and some controls --> <mx:VBox width="100%"> <core:Repeater width="100%" dataProvider="model"> <ns1:MyItemRenderer width="100%" /> </core:Repeater> </mx:VBox> </mx:TitleWindow> When I resize the component, the width of the repeated items does not change. There also buttons and event handlers, which add and remove items from the model. When this is done, the repeater updates to display the correct number of items and all the items are resized correctly. I have not been able to get the items to resize when the root panel is resized. I can see, that the VBOx around the repeater is getting a resize event. However, the repeated items are not getting the event. I tried to dispatch a resize event to the repeated items manually from a resize handler I hooked up to the VBox but that didn't help. I also tried adding and removing a dummy-item from the ArrayCollection which is the dataProvider (because that triggers a correct resize otherwise as mentioned above) However, doing this in the resize handler of the VBox just leads to the repeater not showing any items at all. Is there any way to get items in a repeater to resize with their enclosing container?

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  • What are the elegant ways to do MixIns in Python?

    - by Slava Vishnyakov
    I need to find an elegant way to do 2 kinds of MixIns. First: class A(object): def method1(self): do_something() Now, a MixInClass should make method1 do this: do_other() - A.method1() - do_smth_else() - i.e. basically "wrap" the older function. I'm pretty sure there must exist a good solution to this. Second: class B(object): def method1(self): do_something() do_more() In this case, I want MixInClass2 to be able to inject itself between do_something() and do_more(), i.e.: do_something() - MixIn.method1 - do_more(). I understand that probably this would require modifying class B - that's ok, just looking for simplest ways to achieve this. These are pretty trivial problems and I actually solved them, but my solution is tainted. Fisrt one by using self._old_method1 = self.method1(); self.method1() = self._new_method1(); and writing _new_method1() that calls to _old_method1(). Problem: multiple MixIns will all rename to _old_method1 and it is inelegant. Second MixIn one was solved by creating a dummy method call_mixin(self): pass and injecting it between calls and defining self.call_mixin(). Again inelegant and will break on multiple MixIns.. Any ideas?

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  • I need help on this data file to be edited in SOM_PAK format

    - by Mola
    Hi Experts, I am working on Self Organizing Map (SOM) Implementation and i have a microarray dataset which i am trying to read in using some_read_data function, but i keep having an errors when i edit it to have it in SOM_PAK form which is recognise by SOM for reading such as ??? Error using == somtoolbox\som_read_data.m Only 69 vector components on input file data line 1 (dimension is 70) Error in == SomMainFunction at 3 sD = som_read_data('B_r2.txt'); but when i try to read the data without editing which is the original file as shown here: http://rapidshare.com/files/376239367/DLBCL.txt.html It indicates "Data read OK", but i have the following error ??? Error using == unknown Out of memory. Type HELP MEMORY for your options. Error in == somtoolbox\som_bmus.m at 189 Bmus = zeros(dlen,length(which_bmus)); Error in == somvis\somvis_p_matrix.m at 41 [dummy dists] = som_bmus (dat, dat, 2:datlen); Error in == SomMainFunction at 16 [pheight rad_real perc] = somvis_p_matrix(sM,sD); You can get the datafile from here:http://rapidshare.com/files/376239367/DLBCL.txt.html I need someone to help me correct this data for me and put it in SOM_PAK format. I have tried getting it in SOM_PAK format, but it still giving me errors:

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  • "requiresuniqueemail=true" implementation in asp.net site

    - by domineer
    Hi people I got a social networking site that is running live right now.The first time I launched my site I let requiresuniqueemail=false set-up on my web.config inorder for me to create dummy accounts for testing purposes and to start up the site you know.However the site is kind of stable right now w/ almost 5k members.So I would like to set-up the requiresuniqueemail to true so that users cannot reuse their existing email address and for me to make it sure that there will be unique email ad for each site user.I know the site got like 100 users with the same email address.My question is what could be the problem I'm going to face if I do this right now(requiresuniqueemail="true") and how to do this efficiently(without errors and if possible sitewide say in the global assax)?I tested and I already got an error if I logout an account.Like say a user try to click log-out this code runs: Dim d As DateTime = DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(-1 * Membership.UserIsOnlineTimeWindow) Dim theuser As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser() theuser.LastActivityDate = d Membership.UpdateUser(theuser) If Not Cache(Page.User.Identity.Name.ToLower() + "currentstatus") Is Nothing Then Cache.Remove(Page.User.Identity.Name.ToLower() + "currentstatus") End If Then an exception occured on updateuser() function saying System.Configuration.Provider.ProviderException: The E-mail supplied is invalid. This is just one instance I know that I encountered a problem. Hoping to hear your ideas guys.....

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  • MEF Import Composition Issues

    - by Tim
    I've read all the questions I can find regarding the issues of composing imports without exporting the containing class but I can't find a solution to my problem. Does anybody know a way to achieve what I'm trying to do? My module assemblies have forms and classes which they use internally. These forms need access to some of the exported contracts but imports are not loaded as they are not in the MEF 'composition tree' Host assembly: public class Host { public Host() { /* Compose parts here... */ } [Export(typeof(Licence))] public Licence LoadedLicence { get; set; } [Export(typeof(IModule))] public List<IModule> LoadedModules { get; set; } } Module assembly: [Export(typeof(IModule))] public class Module : IModule { public Module() { } public void DoSomething() { SubForm sub = new SubForm(); sub.ShowDialog(); } [Import(typeof(Licence))] public Licence LoadedLicence { get; set; } // This works here } public class SubForm : Form { public SubForm () { } [Import(typeof(Licence))] public Licence LoadedLicence { get; set; } // This doesn't work in here } As far as I can see, my options are: Pass parameters to constructors (pain) Use a dummy export on the classes that need imports satisfying? Any others?

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  • Reload images in a UIWebView after they have been downloaded by a background thread

    - by dantastic
    I have an application that frequently checks in with a server and downloads a batch of articles to the iphone. The articles are in html and just stored using core data. An article has 0-n images on the page. Downloading all associated images at the same time as the text will be too slow and take too much bandwidth. Users are not likely to open every article. If they open an article once it is likely they will open it several times. So I want to download and store the images locally when they are needed. These articles are listed in a UITableView. When you tap an article you pop open a UIWebView that displays the article. I have a function that checks if I have downloaded the images associated with the article already. If I have I just pop open the the UIWebView - everything works fine. If I don't have the images downloaded I go off and download them and store them to my Documents directory. Although this i working, the app is hanging while the images are downloading. Not very tidy. I want the article to open in a snap and download the images with the article open. So what I've done is I check if the images are downloaded, if they aren't I go ahead and just "touch" the files I need and load the webview. The UIWebView opens up but the images referenced contain no data. Then in a background thread I download the images and overwrite the "dummy" ones. This will save the images and everything but it won't reload the images in my current UIWebView. I have to go back out of the article back back in again to see the images. Are there any ways around this? reloading just an image in a UIWebView?

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  • Child divs not taking parent height

    - by Hiral
    I want height of children div .cell to take up 100% height of parent. But it is not happening. HTML: <div class="header"> header </div> <div class="wrapper"> <div class="padding"> <div class="table bg"> <div class="cell"> hello world </div> <div class="cell"> dummy text </div> </div> </div> </div> <div class="footer"> footer </div> CSS: html,body{height:100%;} body{margin:0;padding:0;} .footer,.header{background:black;height:30px;color:white;} .wrapper{min-height:calc(100% - 60px);height:auto !important;} .padding{padding:20px;} .table{display:table;width:100%;} .cell{display:table-cell;} .bg{background:#ccc;} I think it is not happening because I have .wrapper{min-height:calc(100% - 60px);height:auto !important;} It happens if I change .wrapper to .wrapper{height:calc(100% - 60px);} then it is happening. Here is the fiddle.

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  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

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  • Can ScalaCheck/Specs warnings safely be ignored when using SBT with ScalaTest?

    - by pdbartlett
    I have a simple FunSuite-based ScalaTest: package pdbartlett.hello_sbt import org.scalatest.FunSuite class SanityTest extends FunSuite { test("a simple test") { assert(true) } test("a very slightly more complicated test - purposely fails") { assert(42 === (6 * 9)) } } Which I'm running with the following SBT project config: import sbt._ class HelloSbtProject(info: ProjectInfo) extends DefaultProject(info) { // Dummy action, just to show config working OK. lazy val solveQ = task { println("42"); None } // Managed dependencies val scalatest = "org.scalatest" % "scalatest" % "1.0" % "test" } However, when I runsbt test I get the following warnings: ... [info] == test-compile == [info] Source analysis: 0 new/modified, 0 indirectly invalidated, 0 removed. [info] Compiling test sources... [info] Nothing to compile. [warn] Could not load superclass 'org.scalacheck.Properties' : java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.scalacheck.Properties [warn] Could not load superclass 'org.specs.Specification' : java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.specs.Specification [warn] Could not load superclass 'org.specs.Specification' : java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.specs.Specification [info] Post-analysis: 3 classes. [info] == test-compile == For the moment I'm assuming these are just "noise" (caused by the unified test interface?) and that I can safely ignore them. But it is slightly annoying to some inner OCD part of me (though not so annoying that I'm prepared to add dependencies for the other frameworks). Is this a correct assumption, or are there subtle errors in my test/config code? If it is safe to ignore, is there any other way to suppress these errors, or do people routinely include all three frameworks so they can pick and choose the best approach for different tests? TIA, Paul. (ADDED: scala v2.7.7 and sbt v0.7.4)

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  • Help Using NetuserAdd() and NetLocalGroupAddMembers() in C++

    - by Brett Powell
    So I think I almost got it. I create my dummy account with one function, and wrote a second function to add it to the Remote Desktop group. Problem is, the Administrator account is the one logged in, so I am not sure how to specify what account to add to the group. Here is my code... The user is being created properly... void AddRDPUser() { USER_INFO_1 ui; DWORD dwLevel = 1; DWORD dwError = 0; NET_API_STATUS nStatus; ui.usri1_name = L"BrettXFactor"; ui.usri1_password = L"XfactorsServer96"; ui.usri1_priv = USER_PRIV_USER; ui.usri1_home_dir = NULL; ui.usri1_comment = NULL; ui.usri1_flags = UF_SCRIPT; ui.usri1_script_path = NULL; nStatus = NetUserAdd(NULL, dwLevel, (LPBYTE)&ui, &dwError); } But I dont know how to specify to add them to this group since they are not logged in. Any help would be appreciated void AddToGroup() { LOCALGROUP_MEMBERS_INFO_3 lgmi3; DWORD dwLevel = 3; DWORD totalEntries = 1; NET_API_STATUS nStatus; LPCWSTR TargetGroup = L"Remote Desktop Users"; LPSTR sBuffer = NULL; memset(sBuffer, 0, 255); DWORD nBuffSize = sizeof(sBuffer); if(GetUserNameEx(NameDnsDomain, sBuffer, &nBuffSize)==0) { Msg("Failed to add User to Group\n"); return; } LPWSTR user_name = (LPWSTR)sBuffer; lgmi3.lgrmi3_domainandname = user_name; nStatus = NetLocalGroupAddMembers(NULL, TargetGroup, 3, (LPBYTE)&lgmi3, totalEntries); }

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  • What is the most simple way to execute java class every 30 seconds

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    I've been reading about java/spring/hibernate and worked trough a "dummy" examples so I told my friend to recommend something a bit harder for me, and now I'm stuck.. here is the simplest class I could think of package spring.com.practice; public class Pitcher { private String shout; public String getShout() { return shout; } public void setShout(String shout) { this.shout = shout; } public void voice() { System.out.println(getShout()); } } What is the most simple way to print out something by calling metod voice() from spring beans, and do it repeadatly every 30 seconds lets say, here is what I've got so far : <bean id="simpleTrigger" class="org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.SimpleTriggerBean"> <property name="jobDetail" ref="jobSchedulerDetail" /> <property name="startDelay" value="0" /> <property name="repeatInterval" value="30" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.SchedulerFactoryBean"> <property name="schedulerName" value="pitcherScheduler" /> <property name="triggers"> <list> <ref bean="simpleTrigger" /> </list> </property> </bean> <bean id="pitcher" class="spring.com.practice.Pitcher"> <property name="shout" value="I started executing..."></property> </bean> And yes I'm trying to run this on Jboss 5, I'm building a project with maven.

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  • How do i set the proxy and SOCKs in libcurl?

    - by acidzombie24
    I am trying to configure my .NET app to use a proxy. My source is in C# but i learned CURL via C++. My question is where do i put the SOCKs IP and port? i looked through the documentation and didnt see it. I believe that is what is causing me these problems. When i run this code it will quiet literally timeout and not call my header function or writer function. If i comment out the first two curlopt lines (the two proxy lines) my code runs with no problems. In firefox i set the http proxy and SOCKs host separately, they are different IPs and ports. How do i set the sock part, the below has the dummy proxy set but i cant figure out the socks part. static void Main(string[] args) { SeasideResearch.LibCurlNet.Curl.GlobalInit((int)SeasideResearch.LibCurlNet.CURLinitFlag.CURL_GLOBAL_ALL); var curl = new Easy(); { curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_PROXY, "http://127.0.0.1:1234"); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_PROXYTYPE, CURLproxyType.CURLPROXY_SOCKS5); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_URL, "http://whatismyipaddress.com/ip-lookup"); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_USERAGENT, @"Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2b5) Gecko/20091204 Firefox/3.6b5"); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_HEADERFUNCTION, hf); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_HEADERDATA, data); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_WRITEFUNCTION, wf); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_WRITEDATA, sw); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); curl.Perform(); var sz = sw.ToString(); var myrealip = sz.IndexOf("12.34.56.78") !=-1; } //Console.WriteLine(sz); SeasideResearch.LibCurlNet.Curl.GlobalCleanup(); }

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