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  • Remove specific definitions from a variable in PHP

    - by Amit
    Hi everyone, I have a PHP mail script that validates name, email address, and phone number before sending the mail. This then means that the Name, Email address, and Phone fields are Required Fields. I want to have it so that the Name and EITHER Email or Phone are required. Such that if a name and phone are inputted, it sends the mail, or if a name and an email are inputted, it also sends the email. The way the script works right now is it has several IF statements that check for (1) name, (2) email and (3) phone. Here's an example of an if statement of the code: if ( ($email == "") ) { $errors .= $emailError; // no email address entered $email_error = true; } if ( !(preg_match($match,$email)) ) { $errors .= $invalidEmailError; // checks validity of email $email_error = true; } And here's how it sends the mail: if ( !($errors) ) { mail ($to, $subject, $message, $headers); echo "<p id='correct'>"; echo "?????? ????? ??????!"; echo "</p>"; } else { if (($email_error == true)) { $errors != $phoneError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } if (($phone_error == true)) { $errors != $emailError; $errors != $invalidEmailError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>"; } This doesn't work though. Basically this is what I want to do: If no email address was entered or if it was entered incorrectly, set a variable called $email_error to be true. Then check for that variable, and if it's true, then remove the $phoneError part of the $errors variable. Man I hope I'm making some sense here. Does anyone know why this doesn't work? It reports all errors if all fields are left empty :( Thanks! Amit

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  • Objective-C memory management issue

    - by Toby Wilson
    I've created a graphing application that calls a web service. The user can zoom & move around the graph, and the program occasionally makes a decision to call the web service for more data accordingly. This is achieved by the following process: The graph has a render loop which constantly renders the graph, and some decision logic which adds web service call information to a stack. A seperate thread takes the most recent web service call information from the stack, and uses it to make the web service call. The other objects on the stack get binned. The idea of this is to reduce the number of web service calls to only those appropriate, and only one at a time. Right, with the long story out of the way (for which I apologise), here is my memory management problem: The graph has persistant (and suitably locked) NSDate* objects for the currently displayed start & end times of the graph. These are passed into the initialisers for my web service request objects. The web service call objects then retain the dates. After the web service calls have been made (or binned if they were out of date), they release the NSDate*. The graph itself releases and reallocates new NSDates* on the 'touches ended' event. If there is only one web service call object on the stack when removeAllObjects is called, EXC_BAD_ACCESS occurs in the web service call object's deallocation method when it attempts to release the date objects (even though they appear to exist and are in scope in the debugger). If, however, I comment out the release messages from the destructor, no memory leak occurs for one object on the stack being released, but memory leaks occur if there are more than one object on the stack. I have absolutely no idea what is going wrong. It doesn't make a difference what storage symantics I use for the web service call objects dates as they are assigned in the initialiser and then only read (so for correctness' sake are set to readonly). It also doesn't seem to make a difference if I retain or copy the dates in the initialiser (though anything else obviously falls out of scope or is unwantedly released elsewhere and causes a crash). I'm sorry this explanation is long winded, I hope it's sufficiently clear but I'm not gambling on that either I'm afraid. Major big thanks to anyone that can help, even suggest anything I may have missed?

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  • calling startActivity() inside of a instance method - causing a NullPointerException

    - by Cole
    Heya - I'm trying to call startActivity() from a class that extends AsyncTask in the onPostExecute(). Here's the flow: Class that extends AsyncTask: protected void onPostExecute() { Login login = new Login(); login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); } Class that extends Activity: public void pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity() { // start the CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm Activity Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); **ERROR_HERE*** intent.setClassName(this, CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm.class.getName()); startActivity(intent); } And I get this error… every time: 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): java.lang.NullPointerException 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ContextWrapper.getPackageName(ContextWrapper.java:120) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ComponentName.(ComponentName.java:62) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.Intent.setClassName(Intent.java:4850) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at com.att.AppName.Login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(Login.java:47) For iOS developers - I'm just trying to push a new view controller on to a navigational controller's stack a la pushViewController:animated:. Which apparently - is hard to do on this platform. Any ideas? Thanks in advance! UPDATE - FIXED: per @Falmarri advice, i managed to resolve this issue. first of all, i'm no longer calling Login login = new Login(); to create a new login object. bad. bad. bad. no cookie. instead, when preparing to call .execute(), this tutorial suggests passing the applicationContext to the class the executes the AsyncTask, for my purposes, as shown below: CallWebServiceTask task = new CallWebServiceTask(); // pass the login object to the task task.applicationContext = login; // execute the task in the background, passing the required params task.execute(login); now, in onPostExecute(), i can get to my Login objects methods like so: ((Login) applicationContext).pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); ((Login) applicationContext).showLoginFailedAlert(result.get("httpResponseCode").toString()); ... hope this helps someone else out there! especially iOS developers transistioning over to Android...

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  • How can I fix this touch event / draw loop "deadlock"?

    - by Josh
    Just want to start out by saying this seems like a great site, hope you guys can help! I'm trying to use the structure laid out in LunarLander to create a simple game in which the user can drag some bitmaps around on the screen (the actual game is more complex, but that's not important). I ripped out the irrelevant parts of LanderLander, and set up my own bitmap drawing, something like BoardThread (an inner class of BoardView): run() { while(mRun) { canvas = lockSurfaceHolder... syncronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* drawStuff using member position fields in BoardView */ } unlockSurfaceHolder } } My drawStuff simply walks through some arrays and throws bitmaps onto the canvas. All that works fine. Then I wanted to start handling touch events so that when the user presses a bitmap, it is selected, when the user unpresses a bitmap, it is deselected, and if a bitmap is selected during a touch move event, the bitmap is dragged. I did this stuff by listening for touch events in the BoardView's parent, BoardActivity, and passing them down into the BoardView. Something like In BoardView handleTouchEvent(MotionEvent e) { synchronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* Modify shared member fields in BoardView so BoardThread can render the bitmaps */ } } This ALSO works fine. I can drag my tiles around the screen no problem. However, every once in a while, when the app first starts up and I trigger my first touch event, the handleTouchEvent stops executing at the synchronized line (as viewed in DDMS). The drawing loop is active during this time (I can tell because a timer changes onscreen), and it usually takes several seconds or more before a bunch of touch events come through the pipeline and everything is fine again. This doesn't seem like deadlock to me, since the draw loop is constantly going in and out of its syncronized block. Shouldn't this allow the event handling thread to grab a lock on mSurfaceHolder? What's going on here? Anyone have suggestions for improving how I've structured this? Some other info. This "hang" only ever occurs on first touch event after activity start. This includes on orientation change after restoreState has been called. Also, I can remove EVERYTHING within the syncronized block in the event handler, and it will still get hung up at the syncronized call. Thanks!

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  • R: Plotting a graph with different colors of points based on advanced criteria

    - by balconydoor
    What I would like to do is a plot (using ggplot), where the x axis represent years which have a different colour for the last three years in the plot than the rest. The last three years should also meet a certain criteria and based on this the last three years can either be red or green. The criteria is that the mean of the last three years should be less (making it green) or more (making it red) than the 66%-percentile of the remaining years. So far I have made two different functions calculating the last three year mean: LYM3 <- function (x) { LYM3 <- tail(x,3) mean(LYM3$Data,na.rm=T) } And the 66%-percentile for the remaining: perc66 <- function(x) { percentile <- head(x,-3) quantile(percentile$Data, .66, names=F,na.rm=T) } Here are two sets of data that can be used in the calculations (plots), the first which is an example from my real data where LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1) and the second is just made up data where LYM3 perc66. df1<- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(347261.87, 145071.29, 110181.93, 183016.71, 210995.67, 205207.33, 103291.78, 247182.10, 152894.45, 170771.50, 206534.55, 287770.86, 223832.43, 297542.86, 267343.54, 475485.47, 224575.08, 147607.81, 171732.38, 126818.10, 165801.08, 136921.58, 136947.63, 83428.05, 144295.87, 68566.23, 59943.05, 49909.08, 52149.11, 117627.75, 132127.79, 130463.80)) df2 <- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(sample(50,29,replace=T),75,75,75)) Here’s my code for my plot so far: plot <- ggplot(df1, aes(x=Year, y=Data)) + theme_bw() + geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<2008, "black",ifelse(LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1),"green","red")))) + geom_line() + scale_x_continuous(breaks=c(1980,1985,1990,1995,2000,2005,2010), limits=c(1978,2011)) plot As you notice it doesn’t really do what I want it to do. The only thing it does seem to do is that it turns the years before 2008 into one level and those after into another one and base the point colour off these two levels. Since I don’t want this year to be stationary either, I made another tiny function: fun3 <- function(x) { df <- subset(x, Year==(max(Year)-2)) df$Year } So the previous code would have the same effect as: geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<fun3(df1), "black","red"))) But it still does not care about my colours. Why does it make the years into levels? And how come an ifelse function doesn’t work within another one in this case? How would it be possible to the arguments to do what I like? I realise this might be a bit messy, asking for a lot at the same time, but I hope my description is pretty clear. It would be helpful if someone could at least point me in the right direction. I tried to put the code for the plot into a function as well so I wouldn’t have to change the data frame at all functions within the plot, but I can’t get it to work. Thank you!

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  • OpenGL ES Polygon with Normals rendering (Note the 'ES!')

    - by MarqueIV
    Ok... imagine I have a relatively simple solid that has six distinct normals but actually has close to 48 faces (8 faces per direction) and there are a LOT of shared vertices between faces. What's the most efficient way to render that in OpenGL? I know I can place the vertices in an array, then use an index array to render them, but I have to keep breaking my rendering steps down to change the normals (i.e. set normal 1... render 8 faces... set normal 2... render 8 faces, etc.) Because of that I have to maintain an array of index arrays... one for each normal! Not good! The other way I can do it is to use separate normal and vertex arrays (or even interleave them) but that means I need to have a one-to-one ratio for normals to vertices and that means the normals would be duplicated 8 times more than they need to be! On something with a spherical or even curved surface, every normal most likely is different, but for this, it really seems like a waste of memory. In a perfect world I'd like to have my vertex and normal arrays have different lengths, then when I go to draw my triangles or quads To specify the index to each array for that vertex. Now the OBJ file format lets you specify exactly that... a vertex array and a normal array of different lengths, then when you specify the face you are rendering, you specify a vertex and a normal index (as well as a UV coord if you are using textures too) which seems like the perfect solution! 48 vertices but only 8 normals, then pairs of indexes defining the shapes' faces. But I'm not sure how to render that in OpenGL ES (again, note the 'ES'.) Currently I have to 'denormalize' (sorry for the SQL pun there) the normals back to a 1-to-1 with the vertex array, then render. Just wastes memory to me. Anyone help? I hope I'm missing something very simple here. Mark

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  • Web Services, Memory Leaks and CRM

    - by Neil
    Hi, I have a website that allows users to upload a csv file. This calls a service that reads the information from the csv, puts it into DynamicEntity objects and calls the CRM service to Create/Update entities in CRM. When this service creates/updates an entity this kicks off other plugins to apply certain business rules. These rules can also Create or Update entites in CRM. The issue here is that the handle count of the w3wp.exe process that the website is calling increases every time the an entity is created or updated and it never comes back down. I tried putting Garbage Collection code in the business rules and this reduces the handle count of the CRM w3wp process (run by the Network Service), but not the other w3wp process. Should I have Dispose methods on the Web Service that calls the CRM service? I hope that makes sense. I'm not overly familiar with memory management issues so any help is appreciated. Can anybody give me some tips on how to stop this from occurring? Thanks, Neil -- EDIT Okay well the handle count goes up when I call the Service.Create(DynamicEntity) method. I don't think placing any code here would be beneficial. When I exit the method/class/service that contains this call the handle count stays as it is. What I need to know is whether this is something I should be managing or is it something CRM takes care of (or doesn't take care of but I can't do anything about it) -- Another Edit Right this is how it works. 1) We have CRM and its related services 2) We have another service independent of CRM that uses the CRM services (number 1 above) to create entities based on csv info passed into it 3) We have a website that allows a user to upload a csv, and calls service no 2 above to Create/Update entities in CRM 4) We have plugins fired by CRM which use Service 1 above to create/update entities So the user uploads a csv to the website (3), this fires a service(2). When service 2 creates an entity using service 1, Service 4 fires. Service 4 calls also uses service 1 to Create entities, and when these services are called (using the Service.Create() method) the handle count of the process increases. When the method/class/services finish the handle count remains the same, and so when the whole process occurs again the handle count will increased again.

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  • What is GC holes?

    - by tianyi
    I wrote a long TCP connection socket server in C#. Spike in memory in my server happens. I used dotNet Memory Profiler(a tool) to detect where the memory leaks. Memory Profiler indicates the private heap is huge, and the memory is something like below(the number is not real,what I want to show is the GC0 and GC2's Holes are very very huge, the data size is normal): Managed heaps - 1,500,000KB Normal heap - 1400,000KB Generation #0 - 600,000KB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 500,000KB Generation #1 - xxKB Data - 0KB "Holes" - xKB Generation #2 - xxxxxxxxxxxxxKB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 700,000KB Large heap - 131072KB Large heap - 83KB Overhead/unused - 130989KB Overhead - 0KB Howerver, what is GC hole? I read an article about the hole: http://kaushalp.blogspot.com/2007/04/what-is-gc-hole-and-how-to-create-gc.html The author said : The code snippet below is the simplest way to introduce a GC hole into the system. //OBJECTREF is a typedef for Object*. { PointerTable *pTBL = o_pObjectClass->GetPointerTable(); OBJECTREF aObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); OBJECTREF bObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); //WRONG!!! “aObj” may point to garbage if the second //“AllocateObjectMemory” triggered a GC. DoSomething (aOb, bObj); } All it does is allocate two managed objects, and then does something with them both. This code compiles fine, and if you run simple pre-checkin tests, it will probably “work.” But this code will crash eventually. Why? If the second call to “AllocateObjectMemory” triggers a GC, that GC discards the object instance you just assigned to “aObj”. This code, like all C++ code inside the CLR, is compiled by a non-managed compiler and the GC cannot know that “aObj” holds a root reference to an object you want kept live. ======================================================================== I can't understand what he explained. Does the sample mean aObj becomes a wild pointer after GC? Is it mean { aObj = (*aObj)malloc(sizeof(object)); free(aObj); function(aObj);? } ? I hope somebody can explain it.

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  • How to display image from server (newest-oldest) to a new php page?

    - by Jben Kaye
    i have a form that create images and save it on a folder in the server. What i need to do is to display ALL created images to another page, the newest on the top and so that the oldest is at the bottom. i have a form called formdisplay.php but it's just displaying a broken image and not newest to oldest. hope you can help me with this. really need to get this working. thanks in advance for your help. i have read the posts but none of those worked for me. Pull dedicated images from folder - show image + filename (strip part of filename + file-extension) How can I display latest uploaded image first? (PHP+CSS) getting images from the server and display them Displaying images from folder in php display image from server embedding php in html formcreatesave.php imagecopymerge($im, $img2, 10, 350, 0, 0, imagesx($img2), imagesy($img2), 100); $date_created = date("YmdHis");//get date created $img_name = "-img_entry.jpg"; //the file name of the generated image $img_newname = $date_created . $img_name; //datecreated+name $img_dir =dirname($_SERVER['SCRIPT_FILENAME']) ."/". $img_newname; //the location to save imagejpeg($im, $img_dir , 80); //function to save the image with the name and quality imagedestroy($im); formdisplay.php $dir = '/home3/birdieon/public_html/Amadeus/uploader/uploader'; $base_url = 'http://birdieonawire.com/Amadeus/uploader/uploader/20131027024705-img_entry.jpg'; $newest_mtime = 0; $show_file = 'BROKEN'; if ($handle = opendir($dir)) { while (false !== ($file = readdir($handle))) { if (($file != '.') && ($file != '..')) { $mtime = filemtime("$dir/$file"); if ($mtime > $newest_mtime) { $newest_mtime = $mtime; $show_file = "$base_url/$file"; } } } } print '<img src="' .$show_file. '" alt="Image Title Here">'; please feel free to edit my code. thanks :)

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  • When mocking a class with Moq, how can I CallBase for just specific methods?

    - by Daryn
    I really appreciate Moq's Loose mocking behaviour that returns default values when no expectations are set. It's convenient and saves me code, and it also acts as a safety measure: dependencies won't get unintentionally called during the unit test (as long as they are virtual). However, I'm confused about how to keep these benefits when the method under test happens to be virtual. In this case I do want to call the real code for that one method, while still having the rest of the class loosely mocked. All I have found in my searching is that I could set mock.CallBase = true to ensure that the method gets called. However, that affects the whole class. I don't want to do that because it puts me in a dilemma about all the other properties and methods in the class that hide call dependencies: if CallBase is true then I have to either Setup stubs for all of the properties and methods that hide dependencies -- Even though my test doesn't think it needs to care about those dependencies, or Hope that I don't forget to Setup any stubs (and that no new dependencies get added to the code in the future) -- Risk unit tests hitting a real dependency. Q: With Moq, is there any way to test a virtual method, when I mocked the class to stub just a few dependencies? I.e. Without resorting to CallBase=true and having to stub all of the dependencies? Example code to illustrate (uses MSTest, InternalsVisibleTo DynamicProxyGenAssembly2) In the following example, TestNonVirtualMethod passes, but TestVirtualMethod fails - returns null. public class Foo { public string NonVirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA(); } public virtual string VirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA();} internal virtual string GetDependencyA() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency A !"; } // [... Possibly many other dependencies ...] internal virtual string GetDependencyN() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency N !"; } } [TestClass] public class UnitTest1 { [TestMethod] public void TestNonVirtualMethod() { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); string result = mockFoo.Object.NonVirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } [TestMethod] public void TestVirtualMethod() // Fails { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); // (I don't want to setup GetDependencyB ... GetDependencyN here) string result = mockFoo.Object.VirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } string expectedResultString = "Hit mock dependency A - OK"; }

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  • C# some sort of plugin system

    - by nLL
    Hi, I am a mobile web developer and trying to monetize my traffic with mobile ad services and i have a problem. First of all to get most of out of your ads you usually need to do server side request to advert company's servers and there are quite few ad services. Problem starts when you want to use them in one site. All have different approaches to server side calls and trying to maintain and implement those ad codes becomes pain after a while. So I decided to write a class system where i can simply create methods for every company and upload it to my site. So far i have public Advert class public AdPublisher class with GetAd method that returns an Advert public Adservice class that has Service names as enum I also have converted server request codes of all ad services i use to classes. It works ok but I want to be able to create an ad service class upload it so that asp.net app can import/recognize it automatically like a plugin system. As I am new to .net I have no idea where to start or how to do it. To make thing clear here are my classes namespace Mobile.Publisher { public class AdPublisher { public AdPublisher() { IsTest = false; } public bool IsTest { get; set; } public HttpRequest CurrentVisitorRequestInfo { get; set; } public Advert GetAd(AdService service) { Advert returnAd = new Advert(); returnAd.Success = true; if (this.CurrentVisitorRequestInfo == null) { throw new Exception("CurrentVisitorRequestInfo for AdPublisher not set!"); } if (service == null) { throw new Exception("AdService not set!"); } if (service.ServiceName == AdServices.Admob) { returnAd.ReturnedAd = AdmobAds("000000"); } return returnAd; } } public enum AdServices { Admob, ServiceB, ServiceC } public class Advert { public bool Success { get; set; } public string ReturnedAd { get; set; } } public partial class AdService { public AdServices ServiceName { get; set; } public string PublisherOrSiteId { get; set; } public string ZoneOrChannelId { get; set; } } private string AdmobAds(string publisherid) { //snip return "test" } } Basically i want to be able to add another ad service and code like private string AdmobAds(string publisherid){ } So that it can be imported and recognised as ad service. I hope i was clear enough

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  • How to populate the span tags between specific tags.

    - by Rachel
    I want to populate span tags for all text nodes between the self closing tags s1 and s2 having the same id.If the transformation of the input to the output form requires the list of ids of the s1 , s2 tag pairs say 1, 2 etc i can assume that it is in place in any form if required.The input can have any structure and not exactly the same as seen in the sample input. It can have any number of s1, s2 tag pairs but each pair will have a unique id. Hope i am clear. How can this be achieved using XSL? Input: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>This is my title</title> </head> <body> <h1 align="center">This <s1 id="1" />is my <s2 id="1" />heading</h1> <p> Sample content <s1 id="2" />Some text here. Some content here. </p> <p> Here you <s2 id="2" />go. </p> </body> </html> Desired output: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>This is my title</title> </head> <body> <h1 align="center">This <span id="1">is my </span>heading</h1> <p> Sample content <span id="2">Some text here. Some content here.</span> </p> <p> <span id="2">Here you </span>go. </p> </body> </html>

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  • Database design advice needed.

    - by user346271
    Hi all, I'm a lone developer for a telecoms company, and am after some database design advice from anyone with a bit of time to answer. I am inserting into one table ~2 million rows each day, these tables then get archived and compressed on a monthly basis. Each monthly table contains ~15,000,000 rows. Although this is increasing month on month. For every insert I do above I am combining the data from rows which belong together and creating another "correlated" table. This table is currently not being archived, as I need to make sure I never miss an update to the correlated table. (Hope that makes sense) Although in general this information should remain fairly static after a couple of days of processing. All of the above is working perfectly. However my company now wishes to perform some stats against this data, and these tables are getting too large to provide the results in what would be deemed a reasonable time. Even with the appropriate indexes set. So I guess after all the above my question is quite simple. Should I write a script which groups the data from my correlated table into smaller tables. Or should I store the queries result sets in something like memcache? I'm already using mysqls cache, but due to having limited control over how long the data is stored for, it's not working ideally. The main advantages I can see of using something like memcache: No blocking on my correlated table after the query has been cashed. Greater flexibility of sharing the collected data between the backend collector and front end processor. (i.e custom reports could be written in the backend and the results of these stored in the cache under a key which then gets shared with anyone who would want to see the data of this report) Redundancy and scalability if we start sharing this data with a large amount of customers. The main disadvantages I can see of using something like memcache: Data is not persistent if machine is rebooted / cache is flushed. The main advantages of using MySql Persistent data. Less code changes (although adding something like memcache is trivial anyway) The main disadvantages of using MySql Have to define table templates every time I want to store provide a new set of grouped data. Have to write a program which loops through the correlated data and fills these new tables. Potentially will still grow slower as the data continues to be filled. Apologies for quite a long question. It's helped me to write down these thoughts here anyway, and any advice/help/experience with dealing with this sort of problem would be greatly appreciated. Many thanks. Alan

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  • making a password-only auth with bcrypt and mongoose

    - by user3081123
    I want to create service that let you login only with password. You type a password and if this password exists - you are logged in and if it's not - username is generated and password is encrypted. I'm having some misunderstandings and hope someone would help me to show where I'm mistaken. I guess, it would look somewhat like this in agularjs First we receive a password in login controller. $scope.signup = function() { var user = { password: $scope.password, }; $http.post('/auth/signup', user); }; Send it via http.post and get in in our node server file. We are provided with a compare password bcrypt function userSchema.methods.comparePassword = function(candidatePassword, cb) { bcrypt.compare(candidatePassword, this.password, function(err, isMatch) { if (err) return cb(err); cb(null, isMatch); }); }; So right now we are creating function to catch our http request app.post('/auth/signup', function(req, res, next) { Inside we use a compair password function to realize if such password exists or not yet. So we have to encrypt a password with bcrypt to make a comparison First we hash it same way as in .pre var encPass; bcrypt.genSalt(10, function(err, salt) { if (err) return next(err); bcrypt.hash(req.body.password, salt, function(err, hash) { if (err) return next(err); encPass=hash; )}; )}; We have encrypted password stored in encPass so now we follow to finding a user in database with this password User.findOne({ password: encPass }, function(err, user) { if (user) { //user exists, it means we should pass an ID of this user to a controller to display it in a view. I don't know how. res.send({user.name}) //like this? How should controller receive this? With $http.post? } else { and now if user doesn't exist - we should create it with user ID generated by my function var nUser = new User({ name: generId(), password: req.body.password }); nUser.save(function(err) { if (err) return next(err); )}; )}; )}; Am I doing anything right? I'm pretty new to js and angular. If so - how do I throw a username back at controller? If someone is interested - this service exists for 100+ symbol passphrases so possibility of entering same passphrase as someone else is miserable. And yeah, If someone logged in under 123 password - the other guy will log in as same user if he entered 123 password, but hey, you are warned to make a big passphrase. So I'm confident about the idea and I only need a help with understanding and realization.

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  • How can a button click method find out which item is selected in a ListView?

    - by Ian Bayley
    I have a single screen with a bank of buttons below a ListView. Entries on the ListView light up in orange when I scroll so I assume that are selected. When I then press the "Delete" button I want the onClickListener to remove the currently selected entry. But getSelectedItemPosition() always gives me -1. If I can't hope to use the GUI controls in this way, please give me another way of getting the same result. I have even tried setting the onClickListener of the List View to store the index before the button is pressed (in case pressing the button unselects the entry) but even that is always -1 it seems. Here's the code (without the modification which didn't work) package com.bayley; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.ArrayAdapter; import android.widget.Button; import android.widget.EditText; import android.widget.ListView; import java.util.ArrayList; /** * * @author p0074564 */ public class September extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); setContentView(R.layout.main); final ListView myListView = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.myListView); Button addButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.AddButton); Button deleteButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.DeleteButton); final EditText editText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.myEditText); final ArrayList<String> todoItems = new ArrayList<String>(); todoItems.add("Monday"); todoItems.add("Tuesday"); todoItems.add("Wednesday"); final ArrayAdapter<String> aa = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, android.R.layout.simple_list_item_1, todoItems); myListView.setAdapter(aa); addButton.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { todoItems.add(editText.getText().toString()); aa.notifyDataSetChanged(); } }); deleteButton.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { // always returns -1 unfortunately ie nothing is ever selected int index = myListView.getSelectedItemPosition(); if (index >= 0) { todoItems.remove(index); } aa.notifyDataSetChanged(); } }); } }

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  • Add console.profile statements to JavaScript/jQuery code on the fly.

    - by novogeek
    Hi folks, We have a thick client app using jQuery heavily and want to profile the performance of the code using firebug's console.profile API. The problem is, I don't want to change the code to write the profile statements. Take this example: var search=function(){ this.init=function(){ console.log('init'); } this.ajax=function(){ console.log('ajax'); //make ajax call using $.ajax and do some DOM manipulations here.. } this.cache=function(){ console.log('cache'); } } var instance=new search(); instance.ajax(); I want to profile my instance.ajax method, but I dont want to add profile statements in the code, as that makes it difficult to maintain the code. I'm trying to override the methods using closures, like this: http://www.novogeek.com/post/2010/02/27/Overriding-jQueryJavaScript-functions-using-closures.aspx but am not very sure how I can achieve. Any pointers on this? I think this would help many big projects to profile the code easily without a big change in code. Here is the idea. Just run the below code in firebug console, to know what I'm trying to achieve. var search=function(){ this.init=function(){ console.log('init'); } this.ajax=function(){ console.log('ajax'); //make ajax call using $.ajax and do some DOM manipulations here.. } this.cache=function(){ console.log('cache'); } } var instance=new search(); $.each(instance, function(functionName, functionBody){ (function(){ var dup=functionBody functionBody=function(){ console.log('modifying the old function: ',functionName); console.profile(functionName); dup.apply(this,arguments); console.profileEnd(functionName); } })(); console.log(functionName, '::', functionBody()); }); Now what I need is, if i say instance.ajax(), I want the new ajax() method to be called, along with the console.profile statements. Hope I'm clear with the requirement. Please improvise the above code. Regards, Krishna, http://www.novogeek.com

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  • Execution plan issue requires reset on SQL Server 2005, how to determine cause?

    - by Tony Brandner
    We have a web application that delivers training to thousands of corporate students running on top of SQL Server 2005. Recently, we started seeing that a single specific query in the application went from 1 second to about 30 seconds in terms of execution time. The application started throwing timeouts in that area. Our first thought was that we may have incorrect indexes, so we reviewed the tables and indexes. However, similar queries elsewhere in the application also run quickly. Reviewing the indexes showed us that they were configured as expected. We were able to narrow it down to a single query, not a stored procedure. Running this query in SQL Studio also runs quickly. We tried running the application in a different server environment. So a different web server with the same query, parameters and database. The query still ran slow. The query is a fairly large one related to determining a student's current list of training. It includes joins and left joins on a dozen tables and subqueries. A few of the tables are fairly large (hundreds of thousands of rows) and some of the other tables are small lookup tables. The query uses a grouping clause and a few where conditions. A few of the tables are quite active and the contents change often but the volume of added rows doesn't seem extreme. These symptoms led us to consider the execution plan. First off, as soon as we reset the execution plan cache with the SQL command 'DBCC FREEPROCCACHE', the problem went away. Unfortunately, the problem started to reoccur within a few days. The problem has continued to plague us for awhile now. It's usually the same query, but we did appear to see the problem occur in another single query recently. It happens enough to be a nuisance. We're having a heck of a time trying to fix it since we can't reproduce it in any other environment other than production. I have downloaded the High Availability guide from Red Gate and I read up more on execution plans. I hope to run the profiler on the live server, but I'm a bit concerned about impact. I would like to ask - what is the best way to figure out what is triggering this problem? Has anyone else seen this same issue?

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  • Animation not start immediately when the target view is out of window

    - by funnything
    Hi. When I apply some animation to the view, which is out of window, the animation not start immediately. And then, I scroll the screen to show the animation target view, the animation will start. I hope to the animation will start immediately when it apply. Any ideas? Bellow is sample code. Thank you. public class AnimationValidationActivity extends Activity { private ViewSwitcher _viewSwitcher; private Button _button; /** * utility method for animation */ private Animation buildTranslateAnimation( float fromXDelta , float toXDelta , float fromYDelta , float toYDelta ) { Animation ret = new TranslateAnimation( fromXDelta , toXDelta , fromYDelta , toYDelta ); ret.setDuration( 1000 ); return ret; } /** * build view in place of layout.xml */ private View buildView() { ScrollView ret = new ScrollView( this ); ret.setLayoutParams( new LinearLayout.LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT , LinearLayout.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT ) ); LinearLayout parent = new LinearLayout( this ); parent.setLayoutParams( new LinearLayout.LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT , LinearLayout.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT ) ); parent.setOrientation( LinearLayout.VERTICAL ); ret.addView( parent ); _viewSwitcher = new ViewSwitcher( this ); _viewSwitcher.setLayoutParams( new LinearLayout.LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT , 100 ) ); parent.addView( _viewSwitcher ); View spacer = new View( this ); spacer.setLayoutParams( new LinearLayout.LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT , getWindow() .getWindowManager().getDefaultDisplay().getHeight() ) ); parent.addView( spacer ); _button = new Button( this ); _button.setText( "button" ); parent.addView( _button ); return ret; } @Override public void onCreate( Bundle savedInstanceState ) { super.onCreate( savedInstanceState ); setContentView( buildView() ); _viewSwitcher.setFactory( new ViewSwitcher.ViewFactory() { @Override public View makeView() { TextView view = new TextView( AnimationValidationActivity.this ); view.setLayoutParams( new ViewSwitcher.LayoutParams( ViewSwitcher.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT , ViewSwitcher.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT ) ); view.setBackgroundColor( 0xffffffff ); view.setText( "foobar" ); return view; } } ); _button.setOnClickListener( new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick( View v ) { _viewSwitcher.setInAnimation( buildTranslateAnimation( _viewSwitcher.getWidth() , 0 , 0 , 0 ) ); _viewSwitcher.setOutAnimation( buildTranslateAnimation( 0 , - _viewSwitcher.getWidth() , 0 , 0 ) ); int color = new Random().nextInt(); _viewSwitcher.getNextView().setBackgroundColor( 0xff000000 | color & 0xffffff ); _viewSwitcher.showNext(); } } ); } }

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  • SQL Design Question regarding schema and if Name value pair is the best solution

    - by Aur
    I am having a small problem trying to decide on database schema for a current project. I am by no means a DBA. The application parses through a file based on user input and enters that data in the database. The number of fields that can be parsed is between 1 and 42 at the current moment. The current design of the database is entirely flat with there being 42 columns; some have repeated columns such as address1, address2, address3, etc... This says that I should normalize the data. However, data integrity is not needed at this moment and the way the data is shaped I'm looking at several joins. Not a bad thing but the data is still in a 1 to 1 relationship and I still see a lot of empty fields per row. So my concerns are that this does not allow the database or the application to be very extendable. If they want to add more fields to be parsed (which they do) than I'd need to create another table and add another foreign key to the linking table. The third option is I have a table where the fields are defined and a table for each record. So what I was thinking is to make a table that stores the value and then links to those two tables. The problem is I can picture the size of that table growing large depending on the input size. If someone gives me a file with 300,000 records than 300,000 x 40 = 12 million so I have some reservations. However I think if I get to that point than I should be happy it is being used. This option also allows for more custom displaying of information albeit a bit more work but little rework even if you add more fields. So the problem boils down to: 1. Current design is a flat file which makes extending it hard and it is not normalized. 2. Normalize the tables although no real benefits for the moment but requirements change. 3. Normalize it down into the name value pair and hope size doesn't hurt. There are a large number of inserts, updates, and selects against that table. So performance is a worry but I believe the saying is design now, performance testing later? I'm probably just missing something practical so any comments would be appreciated even if it’s a quick sanity check. Thank you for your time.

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  • Need MYSQL query for finding lowest score per game player

    - by Chris Barnhill
    I have a game on Facebook called Rails Across Europe. I have a Best Scores page where I show the players with the best 20 scores, which in game terms refers to the lowest winning turn. The problem is that there are a small number of players who play frequently, and their scores dominate the page. I'd like to make the scores page open to more players. So I thought that I could display the single lowest winning turn for each player instead of displaying all of the lowest winning turns for all players. The problem is that the query for this eludes me. So I hope that one of you brilliant StackOverflow folks can help me with this. I have included the relevant MYSQL table schemas below. Here are the the table relationships: player_stats contains statistics for either a game in progress or a completed game. If a game is in progress, winning_turn is zero (which means that games with a winning_turn of zero should not be included in the query). player_stats has a game_player table id reference. game_player contains data describing games currently in progress. game_player has a player table id reference. player contains data describing a person who plays the game. Here's the query I'm currently using: 'SELECT p.fb_user_id, ps.winning_turn, gp.difficulty_level, c.name as city_name, g.name as goods_name, d.cost FROM game_player as gp, player as p, player_stats as ps, demand as d, city as c, goods as g WHERE p.status = "ACTIVE" AND gp.player_id = p.id AND ps.game_player_id = gp.id AND d.id = ps.highest_demand_id AND c.id = d.city_id AND g.id = d.goods_id AND ps.winning_turn > 0 ORDER BY ps.winning_turn ASC, d.cost DESC LIMIT '.$limit.';'; Here are the relevant table schemas: -- -- Table structure for table `player_stats` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `player_stats` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `game_player_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `winning_turn` int(11) NOT NULL, `highest_demand_id` int(11) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `game_player_id` (`game_player_id`,`highest_demand_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=3814 ; -- -- Table structure for table `game_player` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `game_player` ( `id` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL auto_increment, `game_id` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `player_id` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `player_number` int(11) NOT NULL, `funds` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `turn` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `difficulty_level` enum('STANDARD','ADVANCED','MASTER','ULTIMATE') NOT NULL, `date_last_used` datetime NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `game_id` (`game_id`,`player_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=3814 ; -- -- Table structure for table `player` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `player` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `fb_user_id` char(255) NOT NULL, `fb_proxied_email` text NOT NULL, `first_name` char(255) NOT NULL, `last_name` char(255) NOT NULL, `birthdate` date NOT NULL, `date_registered` datetime NOT NULL, `date_last_logged_in` datetime NOT NULL, `status` enum('ACTIVE','SUSPENDED','CLOSED') NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `fb_user_id` (`fb_user_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=1646 ;

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  • How would I implement code in a .h file into the main.cpp file?

    - by Lea
    I have a c++ project I am working on. I am a little stumped at the moment. I need a little help. I need to implement code from the .h file into the main.cpp file and I am not sure how to do that. For example code code from main.cpp: switch (choice){ case 1: // open an account { cout << "Please enter the opening balence: $ "; cin >> openBal; cout << endl; cout << "Please enter the account number: "; cin >> accountNum; cout << endl; break; } case 2:// check an account { cout << "Please enter the account number: "; cin >> accountNum; cout << endl; break; } and code from the .h file: void display(ostream& out) const; // displays every item in this list through out bool retrieve(elemType& item) const; // retrieves item from this list // returns true if item is present in this list and // element in this list is copied to item // false otherwise // transformers void insert(const elemType& item); // inserts item into this list // preconditions: list is not full and // item not present in this list // postcondition: item is in this list In the .h file you would need to use the void insert under transformer in the main.cpp under case 1. How would you do that? Any help is apprecaited. I hope I didn't confuse anyone on what I am needing to know how to do. Thanks

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  • Jquery: Incrimentation for each set of elements in more than 1 div

    - by Jack
    I'm making a Jquery slideshow. It lists thumbnails, that when clicked on, reveal the large image as an overlay. To match up the thumbs with the large images I'm adding attributes to each thumbnail and large image. The attributes contain a number which matches each thumb to its corresponding large image. It works when one slideshow is present on a page. But I want it to work if more than one slideshow is present. Here's the code for adding attributes to thumbs and large images: thumbNo = 0; largeNo = 0; $(this + '.slideshow_content .thumbs img').each(function() { thumbNo++; $(this).attr('thumbimage', thumbNo); $(this).attr("title", "Enter image gallery"); }); $(this + '.slideshow_content .image_container .holder img').each(function() { largeNo++; $(this).addClass('largeImage' + largeNo); }); This works. To make the incrementation work when there are two slideshows on a page, I thought I could stick this code in an each function... $('.slideshow').each(function() { thumbNo = 0; largeNo = 0; $(this + '.slideshow_content .thumbs img').each(function() { thumbNo++; $(this).attr('thumbimage', thumbNo); $(this).attr("title", "Enter image gallery"); }); $(this + '.slideshow_content .image_container .holder img').each(function() { largeNo++; $(this).addClass('largeImage' + largeNo); }); }); The problem with this is that the incrimenting operator does not reset for the second slideshow div (.slideshow), so I end up with thumbs in the first .slideshow div being numbered 1,2,3 etc.. and thumbs in the second .slideshow div being numbered 4,5,6 etc. How do I make the numbers in the second .slideshow div reset and start from 1 again? This is really hard to explain concisely. I hope someone gets the gist.

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  • Template class + virtual function = must implement?

    - by sold
    This code: template <typename T> struct A { T t; void DoSomething() { t.SomeFunction(); } }; struct B { }; A<B> a; is easily compiled without any complaints, as long as I never call a.DoSomething(). However, if I define DoSomething as a virtual function, I will get a compile error saying that B doesn't declare SomeFunction. I can somewhat see why it happens (DoSomething should now have an entry in the vtable), but I can't help feeling that it's not really obligated. Plus it sucks. Is there any way to overcome this? EDIT 2: Okay. I hope this time it makes sence: Let's say I am doing intrusive ref count, so all entities must inherit from base class Object. How can I suuport primitive types too? I can define: template <typename T> class Primitive : public Object { T value; public: Primitive(const T &value=T()); operator T() const; Primitive<T> &operator =(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator +=(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator %=(const T &value); // And so on... }; so I can use Primitive<int>, Primitive<char>... But how about Primitive<float>? It seems like a problem, because floats don't have a %= operator. But actually, it isn't, since I'll never call operator %= on Primitive<float>. That's one of the deliberate features of templates. If, for some reason, I would define operator %= as virtual. Or, if i'll pre-export Primitive<float> from a dll to avoid link errors, the compiler will complain even if I never call operator %= on a Primitive<float>. If it would just have fill in a dummy value for operator %= in Primitive<float>'s vtable (that raises an exception?), everything would have been fine.

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  • Windows MAchine Debugging

    - by PrettyFlower
    I've been learning how to program for Windows for some time now and am getting pretty comfy with COM. I had thought to go over to Linux and do some C++ programming there and I wished to run Rosetta Commons so I installed Fedora. I had tried installing Ubuntu a few months ago and things got messy. I had a glitch, maybe caused by one of the live cd creators, my video card or something I don't know. Who Crashed suggested it was my video card and I had regular messages about ntfs.sys and page file issues. At any rate I just installed Fedora and the same thing is happening again. I would like to think with the twenty five years of doing this that I might finally make some headway into debugging my system. I think I may have overlooked a lot of what could be done in favor of simply uninstalling, reinstalling and formatting and starting from scratch. I have opened up the folder windows debugging tools, quite accidentally and just before I was going to clean sweep again, and I found KD and WinDbg. I had never seen these before and I felt that maybe I should look into this. I am quite familiar with the modern machine that is known as the computer, I know what a Kernel is and am now pretty familiar with at the very least Windows Operating System Services. I wish to begin tracking my own machines errors. I understand that most kernel debugging is done on a second machine but I don't have one. And also I understand the goal of the debugger seems to be less about run of the mill errors and more about development time strategies but I'm sure there is more to this. This is my first go at this and I thought maybe I could get some suggestions on where to go from here. I would really like to learn ways to fix my machine and also maybe pick up some tricks on the dev side as well. I hope this isn't too broad a question or too generalized. I'm really just looking for the keywords and an overview of the more routine strategies used. thx

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  • Rails nested form for belongs_to

    - by user1232533
    I'm new to rails and have some troubles with creating a nested form. My models: class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :company accepts_nested_attributes_for :company, :reject_if => :all_blank end class Company < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :users end Now i would like to create a new company from the user sign_up page (i use Devise btw) by given only a company name. And have a relation between the new User and new Company. In the console i can create a company for a existing User like this: @company = User.first.build_company(:name => "name of company") @company.save That works, but i can't make this happen for a new user, in my new user sign_up form i tried this (i know its wrong by creating a new User fist but im trying to get something working here..): <%= simple_form_for(resource, :as => resource_name, :html => { :class => 'form-horizontal' }, :url => registration_path(resource_name)) do |f| %> <%= f.error_notification %> <div class="inputs"> <% @user = User.new company = @user.build_company() %> <% f.fields_for company do |builder| %> <%= builder.input :name, :required => true, :autofocus => true %> <% end %> <%= f.input :email, :required => true, :autofocus => true %> <%= f.input :password, :required => true %> <%= f.input :password_confirmation, :required => true %> </div> <div class="form-actions"> <%= f.button :submit, :class => 'btn-primary', :value => 'Sign up' %> </div> I did my best to google for a solution/ example.. found some nested form examples but it's just not clear to me how to do this. Really hope somebody can help me with this. Any help on this would be appreciated. Thanks in advance! Greets, Daniel

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