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  • Updating entity fields in app engine development server

    - by Joey
    I recently tried updating a field in one of my entities on the app engine local dev server via the sdk console. It appeared to have updated just fine (a simple float). However, when I followed up with a query on the entity, I received an exception: "Items in the mSomeList list must all be Key instances". mSomeList is just another list field I have in that entity, not the one I modified. Is there any reason manually changing a field would adversely throw something off such that the server gets confused? Is this a known bug? I wrote an http handler to alter the field through server code and it works fine if I take that approach. Update: (adding details) I am using the python google app engine server. Basically if I go into the Google App Engine Launcher and press the SDK Console button, then go into one of my entities and edit a field that is a float (i.e. change it from 0 to 3.5, for instance), I get the "Items in the mMyList list must all be Key instance" suddenly when I query the entity like this: query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() the RegionData entity is what has the mMyList member. As mentioned previously, if I do not manually change the field but rather do so through server code, i.e. query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() entry.mMyFloat = 3.5 entry.put() Then it works.

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  • Modifying C# dictionary value

    - by minjang
    I'm a C++ expert, but not at all for C#. I created a Dictionary<string, STATS>, where STATS is a simple struct. Once I built the dictionary with initial string and STATS pairs, I want to modify the dictionary's STATS value. In C++, it's very clear: Dictionary<string, STATS*> benchmarks; Initialize it... STATS* stats = benchmarks[item.Key]; // Touch stats directly However, I tried like this in C#: Dictionary<string, STATS> benchmarks = new Dictionary<string, STATS>(); // Initialize benchmarks with a bunch of STATS foreach (var item in _data) benchmarks.Add(item.app_name, item); foreach (KeyValuePair<string, STATS> item in benchmarks) { // I want to modify STATS value inside of benchmarks dictionary. STATS stat_item = benchmarks[item.Key]; ParseOutputFile("foo", ref stat_item); // But, not modified in benchmarks... stat_item is just a copy. } This is a really novice problem, but wasn't easy to find an answer. EDIT: I also tried like the following: STATS stat_item = benchmarks[item.Key]; ParseOutputFile(file_name, ref stat_item); benchmarks[item.Key] = stat_item; However, I got the exception since such action invalidates Dictionary: Unhandled Exception: System.InvalidOperationException: Collection was modified; enumeration operation may not execute. at System.ThrowHelper.ThrowInvalidOperationException(ExceptionResource resource) at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.Enumerator.MoveNext() at helper.Program.Main(String[] args) in D:\dev\\helper\Program.cs:line 75

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  • How good is the memory mapped Circular Buffer on Wikipedia?

    - by abroun
    I'm trying to implement a circular buffer in C, and have come across this example on Wikipedia. It looks as if it would provide a really nice interface for anyone reading from the buffer, as reads which wrap around from the end to the beginning of the buffer are handled automatically. So all reads are contiguous. However, I'm a bit unsure about using it straight away as I don't really have much experience with memory mapping or virtual memory and I'm not sure that I fully understand what it's doing. What I think I understand is that it's mapping a shared memory file the size of the buffer into memory twice. Then, whenever data is written into the buffer it appears in memory in 2 places at once. This allows all reads to be contiguous. What would be really great is if someone with more experience of POSIX memory mapping could have a quick look at the code and tell me if the underlying mechanism used is really that efficient. Am I right in thinking for example that the file in /dev/shm used for the shared memory always stays in RAM or could it get written to the hard drive (performance hit) at some point? Are there any gotchas I should be aware of? As it stands, I'm probably going to use a simpler method for my current project, but it'd be good to understand this to have it in my toolbox for the future. Thanks in advance for your time.

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  • How to catch an expected (and intended) 302 Ajax response?

    - by Anthony
    So, if you look back at my previous question about Exchange Autodiscover, you'll see that the easiet way to get the autodiscover URL is to send a non-secure, non-authenticated GET request to the server, ala: http://autodiscover.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml The server will respond with a 302 redirect with the correct url in the Location header. I'm trying out something really simple at first with a Chrome extension, where I have: if (req.readyState==4 && req.status==302) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } With another ajax call set up with the full XML Post and the user credentials, But instead Chrome hangs at this point, and a look at the developer panel shows that it is not returning back the response but instead is acting like no response was given, meanwhile showing a Uncaught Error: NETWORK_ERR: XMLHttpRequest Exception 101 in the error log. The way I see it, refering to the exact response status is about the same as "catching" it, but I'm not sure if the problem is with Chrome/WebKit or if this is how XHR requests always handle redirects. I'm not sure how to catch this so that I can get still get the headers from the response. Or would it be possible to set up a secondary XHR such that when it gets the 302, it sends a totally different request? Quick Update I just changed it so that it doesn't check the response code: if (req.readyState==4) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } and instead when I alert out the value it's null. and there is still the same error and no response in the dev console. SO it seems like it either doesn't track 302 responses as responses, or something happens after that wipes that response out?

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  • Django: Serving a Download in a Generic View

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I want to serve a couple of mp3s from a folder in /home/username/music. I didn't think this would be such a big deal but I am a bit confused on how to do it using generic views and my own url. urls.py url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), The example I am following is found in the generic view section of the Django documentations: http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/topics/generic-views/ (It's all the way at the bottom) I am not 100% sure on how to tailor this to my needs. Here is my views.py def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) response = object_detail( request, object_id = song_id, mimetype = "audio/mpeg", ) response['Content-Disposition'= "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response I am actually at a loss of how to convey that I want it to spit out my mp3 instead of what it does now which is to output a .mp3 with all of the current pages html contained. Should my template be my mp3? Do I need to setup apache to serve the files or is Django able to retrieve the mp3 from the filesystem(proper permissions of course) and serve that? If it do need to configure Apache how do I tell Django that? Thanks in advanced. These files are all on the HD so I don't need to "generate" anything on the spot and I'd like to prevent revealing the location of these files if at all possible. A simple /song/1234/download would be fantastic.

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  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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  • Fake serial communication under Linux

    - by kigurai
    I have an application where I want to simulate the connection between a device and a "modem". The device will be connected to a serial port and will talk to the software modem through that. For testing purposes I want to be able to use a mock software device to test send and receive data. Example Python code device = Device() modem = Modem() device.connect(modem) device.write("Hello") modem_reply = device.read() Now, in my final app I will just pass /dev/ttyS1 or COM1 or whatever for the application to use. But how can I do this in software? I am running Linux and application is written in Python. I have tried making a FIFO (mkfifo ~/my_fifo) and that does work, but then I'll need one FIFO for writing and one for reading. What I want is to open ~/my_fake_serial_port and read and write to that. I have also lpayed with the ptymodule, but can't get that to work either. I can get a master and slave file descriptor from pty.openpty() but trying to read or write to them only causes IOError Bad File Descriptor error message.

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  • Cannot connect to SQL Server from ASP.NET MVC app

    - by Dan Fergus
    I have an ASP.NET MVC app that has on a hosted server for over a year, connecting to SQL Server. I've had to change hosting services, the new one supports MVC 1.0. I've also moved a non MVC ASP app to the same hosting service. Now, MY MVC based app retturnes this error when I try to validate a user login. A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) Now, the non-MVC app can access the exact same database and authenticate users just fine. The MVC app, when run from my dev box connects fine. It also run/connects/authenticates without problem when I install and run the site from an internal SQL 2008 server running IIS 7. I, along with the hosting support techs, am at a loss how the exact same connect string works every where except on the hosted server, and only when run from inside an ASP.NET MVC web app. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Supress output from Visual Studio output pane (C++)

    - by Ryan Ginstrom
    When I run my Win32 project in the Visual Studio debugger, I get this huge screed of output about which DLLs were loaded, first-chance exceptions, and so on. Is there a way that I can suppress this output? Some day, I might want to know when 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\ntdll.dll' was loaded, but normally I don't care. This is especially true when I'm running unit tests, and just want to be told whether any of the tests failed. This stuff isn't output with console applications, but it is with windows applications. To give an example of what I mean, here are the first lines from the output of a recent unit-test run. 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\dev\MyProject\Testing\MyProject.exe', Symbols loaded. 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\ntdll.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\kernel32.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\KernelBase.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\dbghelp.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\msvcrt.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\user32.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\gdi32.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\lpk.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\usp10.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\advapi32.dll' ... and on and on ...

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  • How should I configure grub for booting linux kernel from a USB hard drive?

    - by skolima
    I have a laptop hard drive in an external enclosure which I use as a large pendrive. For an added twist, I have installed Linux on it, so I can boot any machine with my distribution of choice (e.g. for data recovery or repairing a b0rked system or just using a borrowed laptop without destroying the preinstalled Windows). The problem is that, depending on the hardware configuration, the USB hard drive may be visible under different paths. For grub configuration I just use (hda0,0) as it is relative to the device the grub was launched from. I have UUID entries in /etc/fstab. I also specify rootwait in the kernel parameters so that it waits for the USB subsystem to settle down before trying to mount the device. What should I pass to the kernel as root= ? Currently boot from the pendrive once, check the debug messages to see what /dev/sdX device has been assigned to the USB drive by the kernel, then reboot and edit the grub configuration. I can't change anything on the PC besides enabling Boot from USB hard drive in BIOS and setting it to higher priority than internal hard drives. There are various initrd generating scripts which include support for UUID in root device path, unfortunately the Gentoo native one (genkernel) does not support rootwait and I had no luck trying to use others. The boot process goes like this (it is quite similar in Windows): The BIOS chooses the boot device and loads whatever is its MBR (which happens to be grub stage-1). Grub loads it's configuration and stage-2 files from device it has set as root, using (hd0) for the device it was loaded from by BIOS. Grub loads and starts a kernel (still the same numbering, so I can use (hd0,0) again ). Kernel initializes all built-in devices (rootwait does it's magic now). Kernel mounts the partition it was passed as root (this is a kernel parameter, not grub parameter). init.d starts the userland booting process, including mounting things from /etc/fstab. Part 5 is the one giving me problems.

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  • Easyslider content loading sooner than I would like.

    - by Jason
    I am using a jquery easyslider on a page and also pulling some rss feeds using php. Pulling the feeds is taking a long time and as a result delaying the load of the easy slider until after the feeds have been pulled in. This can be seen here: http://perksconsulting.com/dev/ I am looking for a way to display a loader image in the space where the easy slider is so the images do not appear stacked vertically for a few seconds while the php is interpreted by the server, but I have never used a loader image and am not sure how I would do that. I am currently using this script to hide the page contents until everything is loaded, but the one thing it is not hiding is the images from the easy slider: <SCRIPT TYPE="text/javascript" LANGUAGE="javascript"> function waitPreloadPage() { //DOM if (document.getElementById){ document.getElementById('prepage').style.visibility='hidden'; }else{ if (document.layers){ //NS4 document.prepage.visibility = 'hidden'; } else { //IE4 document.all.prepage.style.visibility = 'hidden'; } } } // End --> </SCRIPT> Ideally I would like to be able to display a loading image in place of the slider in the middle of the page until everything loads. Could anyone tell me how to do this? Thank you.

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  • How to find out where a thread lock happend?

    - by SchlaWiener
    One of our company's Windows Forms application had a strange problem for several month. The app worked very reliable for most of our customers but on some PC's (mostly with a wireless lan connection) the app sometimes just didn't respond anymore. (You click on the UI and windows ask you to wait or kill the app). I wasn't able to track down the problem for a long time but now I figured out what happend. The app had this line of code // don't blame me for this. Wasn't my code :D Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false and used some background threads to modify the controls. No I found a way to reproduce the application stopping responding bug on my dev machine and tracked it down to a line where I actually used Invoke() to run a task in the main thread. Me.Invoke(MyDelegate, arg1, arg2) Obviously there was a thread lock somewhere. After removing the Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false statement and refactoring the whole programm to use Invoke() if modifying a control from a background thread, the problem is (hopefully) gone. However, I am wondering if there is a way to find such bugs without debugging every line of code (Even if I break into debugger after the app stops responding I can't tell what happend last, because the IDE didn't jump to the Invoke() statement) In other words: If my apps hangs how can I figure out which line of code has been executed last? Maybe even on the customers PC. I know VS2010 offers some backwards debugging feature, maybe that would be a solution, but currently I am using VS2008.

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  • rails not recognizing project

    - by tipu
    I can create a new project using rails and I can use stuff like rails migration ... and i (correctly) get a error because the sqlite gem is missing. but when i try using rails migration ... with a project i checked out from github, it doesn't recognize that it is a rails project i get: Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /usr/bin/ruby1.8 [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile and it goes on. any ideas? edit: it's probably an important detail that earlier my rails wasn't working at all. i had to cp /usr/bin/ruby to /usr/bin/local/ruby

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  • Patterns / Solutions to complicated Feature Management

    - by yclian
    Hi all, My company develops CDN / Web-Hosting solution. We have a middleware that's served as a business logic layer and exposes web service for the front-end. I would like to seek for a clean solution to feature management - there're uncertainties and ugly workarounds/solutions in the software that the dev would say "when it happens or is broken, we will fix it". For example, here're the following features that a web publisher can have: Sites limit Bandwidth limit SSL feature + SSL configuration per site If we downgrade a web publisher, when he's having 10 sites, down to 5 sites, we can choose not to suspend the rest of the 5 sites, or we shall prompt for suspension before the downgrade. For the case of bandwidth limit, the downgrade is easy, when the bandwidth check happens, if the publisher has it exceeded, then we will suspend his account. For the case of SSL feature. Every SSL configuration is tied to a site, what shall happen to these configuration object when the SSL feature is downgraded from enabled to disabled? So as you can see, there're many different situations and there are different ways of handling it. I can make a system that examines the impacts and prompts the user to make changes before the downgrade/upgrade. Or a system that ignores the impacts and just upgrade/downgrade. Bad. Or a system designed in a way that the client code need to be aware of the complex feature matrix (or I can expose a helper to the client code to check if a feature is not DEFUNCT) There can be many ways that I am still thinking but puzzled. I am wondering, how would you tackle this issue and is there any recommended patterns or books or software that you think I can refer to? Appreciate your help.

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  • Doing a POST to a Service Operation in ADO.NET data services

    - by DataServices123
    Is it possible to POST to a service operation defined in an ADO.NET data service (it is decorated with WebInvoke)? I had no problem calling the service operation as an HTTP GET. However, when I switched to doing a POST, the stack trace consistently comes back with "Parameter cannot be NULL". I am using the jQuery syntax below, and sending the POST as JSON (though I'm not including the $.ajax call, the parameter names line up exactly). It would be possible to try this with WCF, as opposed to ADO.NET data services (newly renamed as WCF data services). However, my preference would be to use this approach first. I have tried this with and without the stringify method. Most examples online only show how to use a POST to entities (i.e. for handling CRUD operations). However, in this case we are POSTing to a Service Operation. function PostToDataService() { varType = "POST"; varUrl = "http://dev-server/MyServices/MyService.svc/SampleSO"; varData = { CustomMessage: $("#TextBox1").val() }; varData = JSON.stringify(varData); varContentType = "application/json; charset=utf-8"; varDataType = "json"; varProcessData = true; CallService(); }

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  • Cannot install windows service

    - by Matthew Dalton
    I have created a very simple window service using visual studio 2010 and .Net 4.0. This service has no functionality added from the default windows service project, other than an installer has been added. If i run installutil.exe appName.exe on my dev box or other windows 2008 R2 machines in our domain the windows service installs without issue. When i try to do this same thing on our customer site, it fails to install with the following error. Microsoft (R) .NET Framework Installation utility Version 4.0.30319.1 Copyright (c) Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. Exception occurred while initializing the installation: System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'file:///C:\TestService\WindowsService1.exe' or one of its dependencies. Operation is not supported. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131515). This solution has only 1 project and no dependencies added. I have tried it on multiple machines in our environment and two in our customers. The machines are all windows 2008 R2, both fresh installs. One machine has just .net 2.0 and .net 4.0. The other .net 2, 3, 3.5 and 4. I am a local admin on each of the machines. I have also tried the 64bit installer but get the following error, so i think the 32 bit one is the one to use. System.BadImageFormatException Any guidance would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Access Controller Context/ TempData from business objects

    - by thanikkal
    I am trying to build a session/tempdata provider that can be swapped. The default provider will work on top of asp.net mvc and it needed to access the .net mvc TempData from the business object class. I know the tempdata is available through the controller context, but i cant seem to find if that is exposed through HttpContext or something. I dont really want to pass the Controller context as an argument as that would dilute my interface definition since only asp.net based session provider needs this, other (using NoSQL DB etc) doesn't care about Controller Context. To clarify further, adding little more code here. my ISession interface look like this. and when this code goes to production, the session/tempdata is expected to work using NoSql db. But i also like to have another implementation that works on top of asp.net mvc session/tempdata for my dev testing etc. public interface ISession { T GetTempData<T>(string key); void PutTempData<T>(string key, T value); T GetSessiondata<T>(string key); void PutSessiondata<T>(string key, T value); }

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  • Why might ASP.NET be putting JavaScript in HTML Comment blocks, not CDATA?

    - by d4nt
    We have an ASP.NET 2.0 WebForms app that uses MS Ajax 1.0. It's working fine on all our environments (dev, test, IE6 VMs etc.). However, at the customer site the client side validation is not happening. We're currently trying to eliminate all the various factors and along the way we asked them to get their page source and send it to us, and we found something interesting. In our environment, our page has ASP.NET javascript in CDATA blocks: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ . . . //]]> </script> In their environment, the same code looks like this: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- . . . //--> </script> This may be a red herring, but I'd like to eliminate it as the cause of the validation issues. Does anyone know whether specific configurations/patches/versions of ASP.NET will make it do this?

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  • PayPal sandbox anomalies

    - by Christian
    When testing some donations on my local machine, I set various key=value pairs to do various things (return to specific thank you page, get POST data from PayPal and not GET data and others) I also built my code around the response from the PayPal sandbox. BUT, when my code goes to the production server and we switch on live payments and test with real accounts and money, a few strange things happen; We get a GET response from PayPal - the URL is filled with crap. We get no transaction details. This is the biggie, no name, no txn_id, no dates, nothing. We get a handful of keys etc, its not totally empty and the payment has gone through, but nowhere near the verbosity of the sandbox. Curious about why this might be? It doesn't really make sense to have a sandbox (or dev environment) that is substantially different from the production environment. Or, am I missing something? EDIT: Still no response to my question in the PayPal Developer Forums. I don't even get a donation amount back from PayPal. Is this a setting maybe? EDIT #2: Two of you have suggested to check PDT and Auto-Return. The data analytics guy for the project only 2 hrs ago suggested the same. I have asked the client to confirm this. I can't see a setting for it in the Sandbox so can assume that it is enabled by default?

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  • How to make quicksilver remember custom trigger

    - by corroded
    I am trying to make a custom trigger for my shell/apple script file to run so I can just launch my dev environment at the push of a button. So basically: I have a shell script(and some apple script included) in ~ named start_server.sh which does 3 things: start up solr server start up memcached start up script/server I have a saved quicksilver command(.qs) that opens up start_server.sh(so start_server.sh, then the action is "Run in Terminal") I created a custom trigger that calls this saved qs command. I did that then tested it and it works. I then tried to double check it so I quit quicksilver and when I checked the triggers it just said: "Open (null)" as the action. I set the trigger again and when i restarted QS the same thing happened again. I don't know why but my old custom trigger to open terminal has worked since forever so why doesn't this one work? Here's a screenie of the triggers after I restart QS: http://grab.by/4XWW If you have any other suggestion on how to make a "push button" start for my server then please do so :) Thanks! As an added note, I have already tried the steps on this thread but to no avail: http://groups.google.com/group/blacktree-quicksilver/browse_thread/thread/7b65ecf6625f8989

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  • How to add an extra plist property using CMake?

    - by Jesse Beder
    I'm trying to add the item <key>UIStatusBarHidden</key><true/> to my plist that's auto-generated by CMake. For certain keys, it appears there are pre-defined ways to add an item; for example: set(MACOSX_BUNDLE_ICON_FILE ${ICON}) But I can't find a way to add an arbitrary property. I tried using the MACOSX_BUNDLE_INFO_PLIST target property as follows: I'd like the resulting plist to be identical to the old one, except with the new property I want, so I just copied the auto-generated plist and set that as my template. But the plist uses some Xcode variables, which also look like ${foo}, and CMake grumbles about this: Syntax error in cmake code when parsing string <string>com.bedaire.${PRODUCT_NAME:identifier}</string> syntax error, unexpected cal_SYMBOL, expecting } (47) Policy CMP0010 is not set: Bad variable reference syntax is an error. Run "cmake --help-policy CMP0010" for policy details. Use the cmake_policy command to set the policy and suppress this warning. This warning is for project developers. Use -Wno-dev to suppress it. In any case, I'm not even sure that this is the right thing to do. I can't find a good example or any good documentation about this. Ideally, I'd just let CMake generate everything as before, and just add a single extra line. What can I do?

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  • AppFabric caching's local cache isnt working for us... What are we doing wrong?

    - by Olly
    We are using appfabric as the 2ndlevel cache for an NHibernate asp.net application comprising a customer facing website and an admin website. They are both connected to the same cache so when admin updates something, the customer facing site is updated. It seems to be working OK - we have a CacheCLuster on a seperate server and all is well but we want to enable localcache to get better performance, however, it dosnt seem to be working. We have enabled it like this... bool UseLocalCache = int LocalCacheObjectCount = int.MaxValue; TimeSpan LocalCacheDefaultTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(3); DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy = DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy.TimeoutBased; if (UseLocalCache) { configuration.LocalCacheProperties = new DataCacheLocalCacheProperties( LocalCacheObjectCount, LocalCacheDefaultTimeout, LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy ); // configuration.NotificationProperties = new DataCacheNotificationProperties(500, TimeSpan.FromSeconds(300)); } Initially we tried using a timeout invalidation policy (3mins) and our app felt like it was running faster. HOWEVER, we noticed that if we changed something in the admin site, it was immediatley updated in the live site. As we are using timeouts not notifications, this demonstrates that the local cache isnt being queried (or is, but is always missing). The cache.GetType().Name returns "LocalCache" - so the factory has made a local cache. Running "Get-Cache-Statistics MyCache" in PS on my dev environment (asp.net app running local from vs2008, cache cluster running on a seperate w2k8 machine) show a handful of Request Counts. However, on the Production environment, the Request Count increases dramaticaly. We tried following the method here to se the cache cliebt-server traffic... http://blogs.msdn.com/b/appfabriccat/archive/2010/09/20/appfabric-cache-peeking-into-client-amp-server-wcf-communication.aspx but the log file had nothing but the initial header in it - i.e no loggin either. I cant find anything in SO or Google. Have we done something wrong? Have we got a screwy install of AppFabric - we installed it via WebPlatform Installer - I think? (note: the IIS box running ASp.net isnt in yhe cluster - it is just the client). Any insights greatfully received!

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  • How do I create a simple Windows form to access a SQL Server database?

    - by NoCatharsis
    I believe this is a very novice question, and if I'm using the wrong forum to ask, please advise. I have a basic understanding of databasing with MS SQL Server, and programming with C++ and C#. I'm trying to teach myself more by setting up my own database with MS SQL Server Express 2008 R2 and accessing it via Windows forms created in C# Express 2010. At this point, I just want to keep it to free or Express dev tools (not necessarily Microsoft though). Anyway, I created a database using the instructions provided here and I set the data types appropriately for each column (no errors in setup at least). Now I'm designing the GUI in C# Express but I've kind of hit a wall as far as the database connection. Is there a simple way to access the database I created locally using C# Express? Can anyone suggest a guide that has all this spelled out already? I am a self-learner so I look forward to teaching myself how to use these applications, but any pointers to start me off in the right direction would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Google AppEngine + Local JUnit Tests + Jersey framework + Embedded Jetty

    - by xamde
    I use Google Appengine for Java (GAE/J). On top, I use the Jersey REST-framework. Now i want to run local JUnit tests. The test sets up the local GAE development environment ( http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/tools/localunittesting.html ), launches an embedded Jetty server, and then fires requests to the server via HTTP and checks responses. Unfortunately, the Jersey/Jetty combo spawns new threads. GAE expects only one thread to run. In the end, I end up having either no datstore inside the Jersey-resources or multiple, having different datastore. As a workaround I initialise the GAE local env only once, put it in a static variable and inside the GAE resource I add many checks (This threads has no dev env? Re-use the static one). And these checks should of course only run inside JUnit tests.. (which I asked before: "How can I find out if code is running inside a JUnit test or not?" - I'm not allowed to post the link directly here :-|)

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  • Kohana 3.2 - Database Session losing data on new Page Request

    - by reado
    I've setup my dev Kohana server to use an encrypted database as the default Session type. I'm also using this in combination with Auth to implement user authentication. Right now my user's are able to authenticate correctly and the authentication keys are being stored in the session. I'm also storing additional data like the user's firstname and businessname during the login procedure. When my login function is ready to redirect the user to the user dashboard, I'm able to see all the data correctly when I do $session::instance()->as_array(); (Array ( [auth_user] => NRyk6lA8 [businessname] => Dudetown [firstname] => Matt )) As soon as I redirect the user to another page, $session::instance()->as_array(); is empty. By dumping out the Session::instance() object, I can see that the Session id's are still the same. When I look at my database table though, i dont see any session records being saved and my session table is empty. My bootstrap.php contains: Session::$default = 'database'; Cookie::$salt = 'asdfasdf'; Cookie::$expiration = 1209600; Cookie::$domain = FALSE; and my session.php config file looks like: return array( 'database' => array( 'name' => 'auth_user', 'encrypted' => TRUE, 'lifetime' => 24 * 3600, 'group' => 'default', 'table' => 'sessions', 'columns' => array( 'session_id' => 'session_id', 'last_active' => 'last_active', 'contents' => 'contents' ), 'gc' => 500, ), ); I've looked high and low for an answer.. if anyone has any suggestions, i'm all ears! Thanks!

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