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  • Apache - "dynamic" rewrite rule

    - by Christian A. Rasmussen
    Hi there. I'm working on a Zend Framework project where I've stumbled across a bit of a problem. The problem originates from the fact that modules are 2nd class citizens in Zend Framework. In my project, I'd like for each module to have a folder containing files which are to be accessed from the outside - files such as stylesheets, javascripts and images. Now, how is this to be done. With a Zend Framework project I have a folder structure which looks like this: application/ modules/ moduleOne/ public/ stylesheet.css moduleTwo/ moduleThree/ public/ index.php The standard .htaccess file located in the public/ folder holds this: SetEnv APPLICATION_ENV development RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -s [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -l [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^.*$ index.php [NC,L] The way it works, is that the project's apache DocumentRoot is the public/ folder. All requests gets redirected through the index.php file where Zend Framework's router component takes over. Now, I'm by no means an expert with Apache nor mod_rewrite so pardon me if this is just silly. I imagine that I implement an extra step in the existing rewrite rule so that if I request http://project/public/moduleOne/stylesheet.css it will for instance resolve to /var/www/project/application/modules/moduleOne/public/stylesheet.css. So the steps which need to be done is to check if the first element in the URI is public/ if it is, we take the next segment as the modules name and use that in the path we're trying to resolve to and attempt to serve the file. Is this at all possible or does anyone have a better suggestion? Thank you for your time Christian Rasmussen

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  • Ember model is gone when I use the renderTemplate hook

    - by Mickael Caruso
    I have a single template - editPerson.hbs <form role="form"> FirstName: {{input type="text" value=model.firstName }} <br/> LastName: {{input type="text" value=model.lastName }} </form> I want to render this template when the user wants to edit an existing person or create a new person. So, I set up routes: App.Router.map(function(){ this.route("createPerson", { path: "/person/new" }); this.route("editPerson", { path: "/person/:id}); // other routes not show for brevity }); So, I define two routes - one for create and one for edit: App.CreatePersonRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ renderTemplate: function(){ this.render("editPerson", { controller: "editPerson" }); }, model: function(){ return {firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith" }; } }); App.EditPersonRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ model: function(id){ return {firstName: "John Existing", lastName: "Smith Existing" }; } }); So, I hard-code the models. I'm concerned about the createPerson route. I'm telling it to render the editPersonTemplate and to use the editPerson controller (which I don't show because I don't think it matters - but I made one, though.) When I use renderTemplate, I lose the model John Smith, which in turn, won't display on the editTemplate on the web page. Why? I "fixed" this by creating a separate and identical (to editPerson.hbs) createPerson.hbs, and removing the renderTemplate hook in the CreatePerson. It works as expected, but I find it somewhat troubling to have a separate and identical template for the edit and create cases. I looked everywhere for how to properly do this, and I found no answers.

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  • Same route nested in multiple resources ember.js

    - by Daniel Upton
    I'm building an ember.js app which has a model called "Programme". A user can drill down to a programme by going: Genre > Subgenre > Programme or Folder > List > Programme Here's my router: this.resource('mylists', { path: '/' }, function() { this.resource('folder', { path: '/folder/:folder_id' }, function() { this.resource('list', { path: '/list/:list_id' }, function() { this.resource('programme', { path: '/programme/:programme_id' }); }); }); }); this.resource('catalogue', function() { this.resource('genre', { path: '/genre/:genre_id' }, function() { this.resource('subgenre', { path: '/subgenre/:subgenre_id' }, function() { this.resource('programme', { path: '/programme/:programme_id' }); }); }); }); The UI needs to be deeply nested (the genre view renders in the outlet of the catalogue template, the subgenre in the outlet of the genre template... and so forth). The problem I have is as both generated routes are called ProgrammeRoute when I linkTo the programme route inside the list template, it actually goes to the programme route nested in the subgenre route. What should I be doing here? To work around it I've named one route ListProgrammeRoute and SubgenreProgrammeRoute but that leads to some duplication.

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  • backbone.js Model.get() returns undefined, scope using coffeescript + coffee toaster?

    - by benipsen
    I'm writing an app using coffeescript with coffee toaster (an awesome NPM module for stitching) that builds my app.js file. Lots of my application classes and templates require info about the current user so I have an instance of class User (extends Backbone.Model) stored as a property of my main Application class (extends Backbone.Router). As part of the initialization routine I grab the user from the server (which takes care of authentication, roles, account switching etc.). Here's that coffeescript: @user = new models.User @user.fetch() console.log(@user) console.log(@user.get('email')) The first logging statement outputs the correct Backbone.Model attributes object in the console just as it should: User _changing: false _escapedAttributes: Object _pending: Object _previousAttributes: Object _silent: Object attributes: Object account: Object created_on: "1983-12-13 00:00:00" email: "[email protected]" icon: "0" id: "1" last_login: "2012-06-07 02:31:38" name: "Ben Ipsen" roles: Object __proto__: Object changed: Object cid: "c0" id: "1" __proto__: ctor app.js:228 However, the second returns undefined despite the model attributes clearly being there in the console when logged. And just to make things even more interesting, typing "window.app.user.get('email')" into the console manually returns the expected value of "[email protected]"... ? Just for reference, here's how the initialize method compiles into my app.js file: Application.prototype.initialize = function() { var isMobile; isMobile = navigator.userAgent.match(/(iPhone|iPod|iPad|Android|BlackBerry)/); this.helpers = new views.DOMHelpers().initialize().setup_viewport(isMobile); this.user = new models.User(); this.user.fetch(); console.log(this.user); console.log(this.user.get('email')); return this; }; I initialize the Application controller in my static HTML like so: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ window.app = new controllers.Application(); }); Suggestions please and thank you!

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  • How to secure login and member area with SSL certificate?

    - by citronas
    Background: I have a asp.net webapplication project that should contain a public and a member area. Now I want to implement a SSL decription to secure communication between the client and the server. (In the university we have a unsecured wireless network and you can use a wlan sniffer to read username/password. I do not want to have this security problem for my application, so I thought of a ssl decription) The application is running on a IIS 7.5. It it possible to have one webapp that has unsecured pages (like the public area) and a secured area (like the member area, which requires a login)? If yes, how can I relealise the communication between these too areas? Example: My webapp is hosted on http://foo.abc. I have pages like http://foo.abc/default.aspx and http://foo.abc/foo.aspx. In the same project is page like /member/default.aspx which is protected by a login on the page http://foo.abc/login.aspx. So I would need to implement SSL for the page /login.aspx and all pages in /member/ How can I do that? I just found out how to create SSL certificates in IIS 7.5 and how to add such a binding to a webapp. How how can I tell my webapp which page should be called with https and not with http. What is the best practise there?

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  • Multiple elements with the same name with SimpleXML and Java

    - by LouieGeetoo
    I'm trying to use SimpleXML to parse an XML document (an ItemLookupResponse for a book from the Amazon Product Advertising API) which contains the following element: <ItemAttributes> <Author>Shane Conder</Author> <Author>Lauren Darcey</Author> <Manufacturer>Pearson Educacion</Manufacturer> <ProductGroup>Book</ProductGroup> <Title>Android Wireless Application Development: Barnes & Noble Special Edition</Title> </ItemAttributes> My problem is that I don't know how to deal with the multiple possible Author elements. Here's what I have right now for the corresponding POJO (Plain Old Java Object), keeping in mind that it's not handling the case of multiple Authors: @Element public class ItemAttributes { @Element public String Author; @Element public String Manufacturer; @Element public String Title; } (I don't care about the ProductGroup, so it's not in the class -- I'm just setting SimpleXML's strict mode to off to allow for that.) I couldn't find an example in the documentation that corresponded with such a case. Using an ElementList with (inline=true) seemed along the right lines, but I didn't see how to do it for String (as opposed to a separate Author class, which I have no need for and don't see how it would even work). Here's a similar question and answer, but for PHP: php - simpleXML how to access a specific element with the same name as others? I don't know what the Java equivalent would be to the accepted answer. Thanks in advance.

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  • What's a way for a client to automatically resolve the ip address of a server?

    - by zooropa
    The project I am working on is a client/server architecture. In a LAN environment, I want the client's to be able to automatically determine the server's address. I want to avoid having to manually configure each client with the ip address of the server. What is the best way to do this? Some alternatives I have thought about doing are: The server could listen for broadcast packets from the clients. The message from the client would be a request for the IP address of the server. The server would respond with its address. The machine running my project's server could also have a bind server running. The LAN's router could be configured to use it as one of its DNS servers. I think I saw that there is a bind library. Does that mean I can build the bind service into my server so that bind doesn't have to be installed on the server? Any other ideas? What have you done in the past? What are the pros/cons of these approaches and others that might be suggested? Thanks for your help!

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  • GSM Cell Towers Location & Triangulation Algorithm (Similar to OpenCellID / Skyhook / Google's MyLocation)

    - by ranabra
    Hi all, assuming I have a Fingerprint DB of Cell towers. The data (including Long. & Lat. CellID, signal strength, etc) is achieved by 'wardriving', similar to OpenCellID.org. I would like to be able to get the location of the client mobile phone without GPS (similar to OpenCellID / Skyhook Wireless/ Google's 'MyLocation'), which sends me info on the Cell towers it "sees" at the moment: the Cell tower connected to, and another 6 neighboring cell towers (assuming GSM). I have read and Googled it for a long time and came across several effective theories, such as using SQL 2008 Spatial capabilities, or using an euclidean algorithm, or Markov Model. However, I am lacking a practical solution, preferably in C# or using SQL 2008 :) The location calculation will be done on the server and not on the client mobile phone. the phone's single job is to send via HTTP/GPRS, the tower it's connected to and other neighboring cell towers. Any input is appreciated, I have read so much and so far haven't really advanced much. Thanx

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  • UDP sockets in ad hoc network (Ubuntu 9.10)

    - by Ekhiotz
    Hi! I am using BSD sockets in Ubuntu 9.10 to send UDP packets in broadcast with the following code: sock_fd = socket(PF_INET,SOCK_DGRAM,IPPROTO_UDP); //sock_fd=socket(AF_INET,SOCK_DGRAM,0); receiver_addr.sin_family = PF_INET; //does not send with broadcast in ad hoc receiver_addr.sin_addr.s_addr = htonl(INADDR_BROADCAST); inet_aton("169.254.255.255",&receiver_addr.sin_addr); receiver_addr.sin_port = htons(port); int broadcast = 1; // this call is what allows broadcast packets to be sent: if (setsockopt(sock_fd, SOL_SOCKET, SO_BROADCAST, &broadcast, sizeof broadcast) == -1) { perror("setsockopt (SO_BROADCAST)"); exit(1); } ret=sendto(sock_fd, packet, size, 0,(struct sockaddr*)&receiver_addr,sizeof(receiver_addr)); Note that is not all the code, it is only to have an idea. The program sends all the data with INADDR_BROADCAST if I am connected to an infrastructure wireless network. However, if my laptop is connected to an ad-hoc network, it is able to receive all the data, but not to send it. I have solved the problem using the 169.254.255.255 broadcast address, but I would like to know what is going on. Thank you in advance!

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  • C socket programming: client send() but server select() doesn't see it

    - by Fantastic Fourier
    Hey all, I have a server and a client running on two different machines where the client send()s but the server doesn't seem to receive the message. The server employs select() to monitor sockets for any incoming connections/messages. I can see that when the server accepts a new connection, it updates the fd_set array but always returns 0 despite the client send() messages. The connection is TCP and the machines are separated by like one router so dropping packets are highly unlikely. I have a feeling that it's not select() but perhaps send()/sendto() from client that may be the problem but I'm not sure how to go about localizing the problem area. while(1) { readset = info->read_set; ready = select(info->max_fd+1, &readset, NULL, NULL, &timeout); } above is the server side code where the server has a thread that runs select() indefinitely. rv = connect(sockfd, (struct sockaddr *) &server_address, sizeof(server_address)); printf("rv = %i\n", rv); if (rv < 0) { printf("MAIN: ERROR connect() %i: %s\n", errno, strerror(errno)); exit(1); } else printf("connected\n"); sleep(3); char * somemsg = "is this working yet?\0"; rv = send(sockfd, somemsg, sizeof(somemsg), NULL); if (rv < 0) printf("MAIN: ERROR send() %i: %s\n", errno, strerror(errno)); printf("MAIN: rv is %i\n", rv); rv = sendto(sockfd, somemsg, sizeof(somemsg), NULL, &server_address, sizeof(server_address)); if (rv < 0) printf("MAIN: ERROR sendto() %i: %s\n", errno, strerror(errno)); printf("MAIN: rv is %i\n", rv); and this is the client side where it connects and sends messages and returns connected MAIN: rv is 4 MAIN: rv is 4 any comments or insightful insights are appreciated.

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  • How to find an embedded platform?

    - by gmagana
    I am new to the locating hardware side of embedded programming and so after being completely overwhelmed with all the choices out there (pc104, custom boards, a zillion option for each board, volume discounts, devel kits, ahhh!!) I am asking here for some direction. Basically, I must find a new motherboard and (most likely) re-implement the program logic. Rewriting this in C/C++/Java/C#/Pascal/BASIC is not a problem for me. so my real problem is finding the hardware. This motherboard will have several other devices attached to it. Here is a summary of what I need to do: Required: 2 RS232 serial ports (one used all the time for primary UI, the second one not continuous) 1 modem (9600+ baud ok) [Modem will be in simultaneous use with only one of the serial port devices, so interrupt sharing with one serial port is OK, but not both] Minimum permanent/long term storage: Whatever O/S requires + 1 MB (executable) + 512 KB (Data files) RAM: Minimal, whatever the O/S requires plus maybe 1MB for executable. Nice to have: USB port(s) Ethernet network port Wireless network Implementation languages (any O/S I will adapt to): First choice Java/C# (Mono ok) Second choice is C/Pascal Third is BASIC Ok, given all this, I am having a lot of trouble finding hardware that will support this that is low in cost. Every manufacturer site I visit has a lot of options, and it's difficult to see if their offering will even satisfy my must-have requirements (for example they sometimes list 3 "serial ports", but it appears that only one of the three is RS232, for example, and don't mention what the other two are). The #1 constraint is cost, #2 is size. Can anyone help me with this? This little task has left me thinking I should have gone for EE and not CS :-). EDIT: A bit of background: This is a system currently in production, but the original programmer passed away, and the current hardware manufacturer cannot find hardware to run the (currently) DOS system, so I need to reimplement this in a modern platform. I can only change the programming and the motherboard hardware.

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  • Can an application affect TCP retransmits

    - by sipwiz
    I'm troubleshooting some communications issues and in the network traces I am occasionally coming across TCP sequence errors. One example I've got is: Server to Client: Seq=3174, Len=50 Client to Server: Ack=3224 Server to Client: Seq=3224, Len=50 Client to Server: Ack=3224 Server to Client: Seq=3274, Len=10 Client to Server: Ack=3224, SLE=3274, SRE=3284 Packets 4 & 5 are recorded in the trace (which is from a router in between the client and server) at almost exactly the same time so they most likely crossed in transit. The TCP session has got out of sync with the client missing the last two transmissions from the server. Those two packets should have been retransmitted but they weren't, the next log in the trace is a RST packet from the Client 24 seconds after packet 6. My question is related to what could be responsible for the failure to retransmit the server data from packets 3 & 5? I would assume that the retransmit would be at the operating system level but is there anyway the application could influence it and stop it being sent? A thread blocking or put to sleep or something like that?

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  • Travelling Visual Studio developers

    - by Graphain
    Hi, I am about to travel to Europe (I'm Australian but imagine this is a similar circumstance for US users and simply flipped for European users). However, there is the slim possibility I will need to do some Visual Studio work while I'm travelling. As I see it I have three options: Leave a desktop PC on at home, access remotely via net cafes. Carry a laptop with me on the trip, upload files as required using public wifi. Option 2 but instead buy cheap light netbook that is miraculously capable of running VS. Does anyone have any experience or advice to shed on any of these options? For reference, this existing post suggests that VS remotely for short distances is okay, but over longer distances could be more problematic. I've used VS via RDP to a US server before and it was pretty laggy but for small changes I could get by. Concerns I have that you may have some experience with: Weight of luggage (ideally like to travel light) Security of laptop (imagine it'll be too heavy to carry around all the time so have to leave it at hotel/hostel etc. and hope for the best) Security of data (don't want someone stealing RDP access to my home PC) Security of FTP (don't want someone stealing FTP passwords over wireless)

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  • Low-level Keyboard Hooks/SendInput with Winkey+L possible? (workstation lockout is intercepted in Vi

    - by Brian Jorgensen
    I work on a project called UAWKS (Unofficial Apple Wireless Keyboard Support) that helps Windows users use Apple's bluetooth keyboard. One of the main goals of UAWKS is to swap the Cmd key (which behaves as Winkey in Windows) with Ctrl, allowing users to do Cmd+C for copy, Cmd+T for new tab, etc. It is currently developed using AutoHotkey, which worked pretty well under Windows XP. However, on Vista and Windows 7, Cmd+L causes problems: Regardless of low-level keyboard hooks, Winkey+L is always intercepted by Windows and normally locks the workstation... You can disable workstation locking with this registry hack, but pressing Winkey+L still can't be rebound in AHK Pressing Winkey+L leaves Winkey in the Keydown state until the next (additional) Winkey Up. Simulating a Keyup event doesn't seem to work either! It seems that Winkey+L is a special chord that messes everything else up. I've looked through the AHK source code, and they try to address this problem in SendKey() in keyboard_mouse.cpp (near line 883 in v1.0.48.05), but it doesn't work. I wrote up my own low-level keyboard hook application in C#, and I see the same problem. Has anyone else run into this? Is there a workaround?

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  • How to find out where a thread lock happend?

    - by SchlaWiener
    One of our company's Windows Forms application had a strange problem for several month. The app worked very reliable for most of our customers but on some PC's (mostly with a wireless lan connection) the app sometimes just didn't respond anymore. (You click on the UI and windows ask you to wait or kill the app). I wasn't able to track down the problem for a long time but now I figured out what happend. The app had this line of code // don't blame me for this. Wasn't my code :D Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false and used some background threads to modify the controls. No I found a way to reproduce the application stopping responding bug on my dev machine and tracked it down to a line where I actually used Invoke() to run a task in the main thread. Me.Invoke(MyDelegate, arg1, arg2) Obviously there was a thread lock somewhere. After removing the Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false statement and refactoring the whole programm to use Invoke() if modifying a control from a background thread, the problem is (hopefully) gone. However, I am wondering if there is a way to find such bugs without debugging every line of code (Even if I break into debugger after the app stops responding I can't tell what happend last, because the IDE didn't jump to the Invoke() statement) In other words: If my apps hangs how can I figure out which line of code has been executed last? Maybe even on the customers PC. I know VS2010 offers some backwards debugging feature, maybe that would be a solution, but currently I am using VS2008.

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  • Pushing a local mercurial repository to a remote server or cloning at server from local

    - by Samaursa
    I have a local repository that I have now decided to push to a remote server (for example, I have a host that allows mercurial repositories and I am also trying to push to bitbucket). The repository has a lot of files and is a little more than 200mb. Locally, I am able to clone the repository without problems. Now I have a lot of changes in this repository, and I have wasted a couple of days trying to figure out how to get the remote server to clone my repository. I cannot get hg serve to work outside of the LAN. I have tried everything. So instead, I created a new repository at the remote servers (both at the host and bitbucket) with nothing in it. Now I am pushing the complete repository that I have locally to these remote locations. So far it has been unsuccessful, as the push operation is stuck on searching for changes and does not give me any other useful output. I have let it go for about an hour with no change. Now my questions is, what am I doing wrong as far as hg serve is concerned? I can access it locally but not remotely (through DynDns - I have configured it properly and the router forwards the ports correctly) so that I can get the server to clone the repository the first time after which I will be pushing to it. My second question is, assuming the clone at server does not work (for example, if I was to push my current repository to bitbucket), is creating an empty repository at the server and then pushing a local repository to the new remote repository ok? Is that the source of the searching for changes problem? Any help in this regard would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Routing redirection decision

    - by programming late night
    I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

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  • The XPath @root-node-position attribute info

    - by Igor Savinkin
    I couldn't find the @root-node-position XPath attribute info. Would you give me a link of where i can read about it? Is it XPath 2.0? The code (not mine) is ../preceding-sibling::div[1]/div[@root-node-position]/div applied to this HTML: <div class="left"> <div class='prod2'> <div class='name'>Dell Latitude D610-1.73 Laptop Wireless Computer </div>2 GHz Intel Pentium M, 1 GB DDR2 SDRAM, 40 GB </div> <div class='prod1'> <div class='name'>Samsung Chromebook (Wi-Fi, 11.6-Inch) </div>1.7 GHz, 2 GB DDR3 SDRAM, 16 GB </div> </div> <div class="right"> <div class='price2'>$239.95</div> <div class='price1 best'>$249.00</div> </div> Firstly i fetch a price text under class='right' with this query : //DIV[contains(@class,'best')] and then i apply the above mentioned XPath with @root-node-attribute under class='left' to retrieve the rest of the record info.

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  • How to access a web service behind a NAT?

    - by jr
    We have a product we are deploying to some small businesses. It is basically a RESTful API over SSL using Tomcat. This is installed on the server in the small business and is accessed via an iPhone or other device portable device. So, the devices connecting to the server could come from any number of IP addresses. The problem comes with the installation. When we install this service, it seems to always become a problem when doing port forwarding so the outside world can gain access to tomcat. It seems most time the owner doesn't know router password, etc, etc. I am trying to research other ways we can accomplish this. I've come up with the following and would like to hear other thoughts on the topic. Setup a SSH tunnel from each client office to a central server. Basically the remote devices would connect to that central server on a port and that traffic would be tunneled back to Tomcat in the office. Seems kind of redundant to have SSH and then SSL, but really no other way to accomplish it since end-to-end I need SSL (from device to office). Not sure of performance implications here, but I know it would work. Would need to monitor the tunnel and bring it back up if it goes done, would need to handle SSH key exchanges, etc. Setup uPNP to try and configure the hole for me. Would likely work most of the time, but uPNP isn't guaranteed to be turned on. May be a good next step. Come up with some type of NAT transversal scheme. I'm just not familiar with these and uncertain of how they exactly work. We have access to a centralized server which is required for the authentication if that makes it any easier. What else should I be looking at to get this accomplished?

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  • are mobile can be used as a devices to develop application

    - by Richa Media and services
    I say that we can work @ mobile using a technique and work with any IDE and use any OS without problem like work on visual studio and use Window 7 How it possible ? 1. We use Mobile like a CPU and Use a monitor to watch code. We use samsung's techniques to display on monitor. it's give signal to monitor wirelessly to display code on monitor 2 We use Wireless keyboard and Mouse (if user like USB then he also use USB keyboard and mouse) 3. We use a component inside of mobile to control all devices like internet , wi-fi bluethoth. by component user easily setup , control and use feature. 4 don't be confused. i am sure to say that we not use mobile to watch code on mobile screen and Mobile 's keyboard because it's too smaller to work so we use Monitor (LCD) to display code and a keyboard to work comfortably and freely. 5. what are you think if you see a developer who work using this way 6. it is not impossible. give me some feedback and suggestion about your thinking on this technologies.

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  • logic before dispatcher + controller?

    - by Spoonface
    I believe for a typical MVC web application the router / dispatcher routine is used to decide which controller is loaded based primarily on the area requested in the url by the user. However, in addition to checking the url query string, I also like to use the dispatcher to check whether the user is currently logged in or not to decide which controller is loaded. For example if they are logged in and request the login page, the dispatcher would load their account instead. But is this a fairly non-standard design? Would it violate MVC in any way? I only ask as the examples I've read through this weekend have had no major calculations performed before the dispatcher routine, and commonly check whether the user is logged in or not per controller, and then redirect where necessary. But to me it seems odd to redirect a logged in user from the login area to account area if you could just load the account controller in the first place? I hope I've explained my consternation well enough, but could anyone offer some details on how they handle logged in users, and similar session data?

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  • Implementing client callback functionality in WCF

    - by PoweredByOrange
    The project I'm working on is a client-server application with all services written in WCF and the client in WPF. There are cases where the server needs to push information to the client. I initially though about using WCF Duplex Services, but after doing some research online, I figured a lot of people are avoiding it for many reasons. The next thing I thought about was having the client create a host connection, so that the server could use that to make a service call to the client. The problem however, is that the application is deployed over the internet, so that approach requires configuring the firewall to allow incoming traffic and since most of the users are regular users, that might also require configuring the router to allow port forwarding, which again is a hassle for the user. My third option is that in the client, spawns a background thread which makes a call to the GetNotifications() method on server. This method on the server side then, blocks until an actual notification is created, then the thread is notified (using an AutoResetEvent object maybe?) and the information gets sent to the client. The idea is something like this: Client private void InitializeListener() { Task.Factory.StartNew(() => { while (true) { var notification = server.GetNotifications(); // Display the notification. } }, CancellationToken.None, TaskCreationOptions.LongRunning, TaskScheduler.Default); } Server public NotificationObject GetNotifications() { while (true) { notificationEvent.WaitOne(); return someNotificationObject; } } private void NotificationCreated() { // Inform the client of this event. notificationEvent.Set(); } In this case, NotificationCreated() is a callback method called when the server needs to send information to the client. What do you think about this approach? Is this scalable at all?

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  • Fast path cache generation for a connected node graph

    - by Sukasa
    I'm trying to get a faster pathfinding mechanism in place in a game I'm working on for a connected node graph. The nodes are classed into two types, "Networks" and "Routers." In this picture, the blue circles represent routers and the grey rectangles networks. Each network keeps a list of which routers it is connected to, and vice-versa. Routers cannot connect directly to other routers, and networks cannot connect directly to other networks. Networks list which routers they're connected to Routers do the same I need to get an algorithm that will map out a path, measured in the number of networks crossed, for each possible source and destination network excluding paths where the source and destination are the same network. I have one right now, however it is unusably slow, taking about two seconds to map the paths, which becomes incredibly noticeable for all connected players. The current algorithm is a depth-first brute-force search (It was thrown together in about an hour to just get the path caching working) which returns an array of networks in the order they are traversed, which explains why it's so slow. Are there any algorithms that are more efficient? As a side note, while these example graphs have four networks, the in-practice graphs have 55 networks and about 20 routers in use. Paths which are not possible also can occur, and as well at any time the network/router graph topography can change, requiring the path cache to be rebuilt. What approach/algorithm would likely provide the best results for this type of a graph?

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  • Local Network - Windows 7 and Vista can't see each other

    - by ca8msm
    I've got a strange issue at home that has been bugging me for weeks, but I really need to get it sorted now so I'll detail as much as I can and hopefully someone can spot what might might be wrong. I have a wireless router connected to the internet and 3 devices connected to it. They are: Name OS Network IPv4 PC1 Windows 7 WORKGROUP 192.168.2.2 LAPTOP1 Vista WORKGROUP 192.168.2.3 PS3 192.168.2.4 and they all get their IP addresses dynamically. Both PC1 and LAPTOP1 can ping PS3 and get a response. PC1 and LAPTOP1 are unable to ping each other by ip address unless I ping by their name (which bizarrely shows that it is pinging via the IPv6 address). Also, to confirm this both PC1 and LAPTOP1 can ping each other via the long IPv6 address that they both have so they can obviously see each other just not via IPv4. I've disabled the firewalls on both machines as well to rule that out. I don't really know what IPv6 is used for and I've tried disabling it on both machines but all that happens then is that neither machine can see each other at all then. Does anyone have any idea of what may be stopping them seeing each other, any ways I can look at fixing this, or any network tools that may help identify where it is failing? Thanks, Mark

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  • NMEA data received but empty. Is there any secret?

    - by Roland Bertolom
    I have a tablet "Futjitsu Stylistic Q550". It's running on Windows 7 (not Phone!). It has a built-in GPS-receiver "Sierra Wireless". I need to parse NMEA data from COM-port. I can do it but it's always empty! Like "$GPRMC,,V,,,,,,,,,,N*53". I've tried standing on open space a long time (so my Android device had located me via GPS for a long time) but NMEA data still empty. So I suppose that GPS is off. But I don't know how to figure it out. I've tried send to COM port $PARAM,START,0*61 but no changes. I've tried to insert SIM-card into the device, as it was suggested on one forum but result was the same. Well is it possible that GPS is idle or something or it's just not working? And if it is idle or off how can I enable it? And.. That looks strange but GSV enumerates satellites but everyone of them has still no data e.g.: $GPGSV,4,1,16,32,,,,11,,,,23,,,*78

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