Search Results

Search found 32512 results on 1301 pages for 'object oriented analysis'.

Page 274/1301 | < Previous Page | 270 271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280 281  | Next Page >

  • Assign TableView column binding to a specific core-data object in to-many related entity based on se

    - by snown27
    How would I assign a column of a TableView to be a specific entry in a Core Data entity that is linked to the NSArrayController via a to-many relationship? For example Entity: MovieEntity Attributes: title(NSString), releaseDate(NSDate) Relationship: posters<-->> PosterEntity Entity:PosterEntity Attributes: imageLocation(NSURL), default(BOOL) Relationships: movie<<--> MovieEntity So I have a three column table that I want to display the Poster, Title, and Release Date attributes in, but as one movie could potentially have several different style's of posters how do I get the poster column to only show the one that's marked default? Since the rest of the table is defined in Interface Builder I would prefer to keep it that way for the sake of keeping the code as clean as possible, but if this can only be done programmatically then I'm all ears. I just wanted to give preference in case there's more than one way to skin a cat, so to speak.

    Read the article

  • How to find the class object of Java generic type?

    - by Samuel Yung
    Assume I have a generic type P which is an Enum, that is <P extends Enum<P>>, and I want to get the Enum value from a string, for example: String foo = "foo"; P fooEnum = Enum.valueOf(P.class, foo); This will get a compile error because P.class is invalid. So what can I do in order to make the above code work?

    Read the article

  • How do I change the class of an object to a subclass of its current class in C++?

    - by Jared P
    I have an array of pointers to a base class, so that I can make those pointers point to (different) subclasses of the base class, but still interact with them. (really only a couple of methods which I made virtual and overloaded) I'm wondering if I can avoid using the pointers, and instead just make an array of the base class, but have some way to set the class to the subclass of my choosing. I know there must be something there specifying the class, as it needs to use that to look up the function pointer for virtual methods. By the way, the subclasses all have the same ivars and layout. Note: the design is actually based on using a template argument instead of a variable, due to performance increases, so really the abstract base class is just the interface for the subclasses, which are all the same except for their compiled code. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to create ostream object, which outputs to multiple destinations?

    - by fiktor
    In 0-th approximation I have a class class MyClass{ public: ... std::ostream & getOStream(){return f;} private: ofstream f; ... }; Which is used sometimes in the following way: MyClass myclass; myclass.getOStream()<<some<<information<<printed<<here; But now I want to change the class MyClass, so that information will be printed both to f and to std::out, i.e. I want the above line to be equivalent to myclass.f<<some<<information<<printed<<here; std::cout<<some<<information<<printed<<here; I don't know any good way to do that. Do you? Is there any standard solution (for example in stl or in boost)? P.S. I tried to search on this, but it seems that I don't know good keywords. Words multiple, output, ostream, C++, boost seem to be too general.

    Read the article

  • How to access a method of a closure's parent object?

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    I have defined a class named MyClass and I have defined two methods myMethod1 and myMethod2 for it: function MyClass() {} MyClass.prototype.myMethod1 = function() {...}; MyClass.prototype.myMethod2 = function() {...}; Inside myMethod1, I use jQuery and there's a callback closure defined there: MyClass.prototype.myMethod2 = function() { $.jQuery({success: function(data) { this.myMethod2(); }, ...}); } Now the problem is that this no longer is referring to MyClass. The question is how can I refer to it? At the moment I have assigned it to a variable named thisObj and access it this way: MyClass.prototype.myMethod2 = function() { var thisObj = this; $.jQuery({success: function(data) { thisObj.myMethod2(); }, ...}); } Is there a better way to access MyClass.this from the closure nested in myMethod2? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Search BitmapData object for matching pixel values from another Bitmap.

    - by Cos
    Using Actionscript 3 is there a way to search one bitmap for the coordinates matching pixels of another bitmap? http://dl.dropbox.com/u/1914/wired.png Somehow you would have to loop through the bigger bitmap to find and the the pixel range that matches and return those coordinates. For example the Bitmap with the "E" is 250 pixels over and 14 pixels down in the bigger bitmap. I haven't been able to come up with the solution on my own. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How do I specify the foreign key on a many-to-one relationship when is not a property on the object

    - by jjujuma
    I'm trying to map a many-to-one relationship from MarketMenuBranch to Market. My classes look like: public class Market implements Serializable { private int id; private String name; private List<MarketMenuBranch> marketMenuBranches; // accessors / mutators etc... public class MarketMenuBranch implements Serializable { private MarketMenuBranchId id; private String name; // accessors / mutators etc... public class MarketMenuBranchId implements Serializable { private int marketId; private int sequence; // accessors / mutators etc... But I don't know what I can put for the property name (where I have ???? below). I really want to put id.marketId but that seems to be wrong. <class name="MarketMenuBranch" table="MARKET_MENU_BRANCH"> <composite-id name="id" class="MarketMenuBranchId"> <key-property name="marketId"/> <key-property name="sequence"/> </composite-id> <property name="name"/> <many-to-one name="????????"/> </class> How can I do this?

    Read the article

  • ActionScript Local X And Y Coordinates Of Display Object?

    - by TheDarkIn1978
    i'm trying to trace the x and y coordinates from within a sprite. i've added a rectangle to the stage: var rect:Rectangle = new Rectangle(10, 10, 200, 200); addChild(rect); adding a Mouse_Move event to the rect, i can trace mouseX and mouseY to receive the coordinates of the stage while moving over the rect, but how do i get the local x and y coordinates? so if i mouse over the very top left of the rect sprite, the mouseX and mouseY return 10 as the global coordinates, but how do i make it return 0 and the local coordinates of the sprite? i assumed localX and localY was what i was looking for, but this doesn't work: function mouseOverTraceCoords(evt:MouseEvent):void { trace(mouseX, mouseY, evt.localX, evt.localY); }

    Read the article

  • fill an array with Int like a Char; C++, cin object

    - by Duknov007
    This is a pretty simple question; first time poster and long time looker. Here is my binary to decimal converter I wrote: #include <iostream> #include <cmath> using namespace std; const int MAX = 6; int conv(int z[MAX], int l[6], int MAX); int main() { int zelda[MAX]; const int d = 6; int link[d]; cout << "Enter a binary number: \n"; int i = 0; while (i < MAX && (cin >> zelda[i]).get()) //input loop { ++i; } cout << conv(zelda, link, MAX); cin.get(); return 0; } int conv(int zelda[MAX], int link[6], int MAX) { int sum = 0; for (int t = 0; t < MAX; t++) { long int h, i; for (int h = 5, i = 0; h >= 0; --h, ++i) if (zelda[t] == 1) link[h] = pow(2.0, i); else link[h] = 0; sum += link[t]; } return sum; } With the way the input loop is being handled, I have to press enter after each input of a number. I haven't added any error correction yet either (and some of my variables are vague), but would like to enter a binary say 111111 instead of 1 enter, 1 enter, 1 enter, etc to fill the array. I am open to any technique and other suggestions. Maybe input it as a string and convert it to an int? I will keep researching. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • iOS Development: Can I store an array of integers in a Core Data object without creating a new table to represent the array?

    - by BeachRunnerJoe
    Hello. I'm using Core Data and I'm trying to figure out the simplest way to store an array of integers in one of my Core Data entities. Currently, my entities contain various arrays of objects that are more complex than a single number, so it makes sense to represent those arrays as tables in my DB and attach them using relationships. If I want to store a simple array of integers, do I need to create a new table with a single column and attach it using a one-to-many relationship? Or is there a more simple way? Thanks in advance for your wisdom!

    Read the article

  • Can I overwrite an Object that has been Locked() in C#?

    - by makerofthings7
    I have a few objects that I'd like to send to the server, but I want to make sure that this is the only thread that moving the data from Stage to Upload. Is the following code valid in a multithreaded environment? List<CounterInternal> UploadToServer = new List<CounterInternal>(); List<CounterInternal> StagingQueue = new List<CounterInternal>(); lock (this.UploadToServer) lock (this.StagingQueue) { if (UploadToServer.Count == 0) { UploadToServer = StagingQueue.DoDeepCopyExtensionMethod(); // is the following line valid given that I have a Lock() on it? StagingQueue = new List<CounterInternal>(); } } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 270 271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280 281  | Next Page >