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  • C++ - Totally suspend windows application

    - by HardCoder1986
    Hello! I am developing a simple WinAPI application and started from writing my own assertion system. I have a macro defined like ASSERT(X) which would make pretty the same thing as assert(X) does, but with more information, more options and etc. At some moment (when that assertion system was already running and working) I realized there is a problem. Suppose I wrote a code that does some action using a timer and (just a simple example) this action is done while handling WM_TIMER message. And now, the situation changes the way that this code starts throwing an assert. This assert message would be shown every TIMER_RESOLUTION milliseconds and would simply flood the screen. Options for solving this situation could be: 1) Totally pause application running (probably also, suspend all threads) when the assertion messagebox is shown and continue running after it is closed 2) Make a static counter for the shown asserts and don't show asserts when one of them is already showing (but this doesn't pause application) 3) Group similiar asserts and show only one for each assert type (but this also doesn't pause application) 4) Modify the application code (for example, Get / Translate / Dispatch message loop) so that it suspends itself when there are any asserts. This is good, but not universal and looks like a hack. To my mind, option number 1 is the best. But I don't know any way how this can be achieved. What I'm seeking for is a way to pause the runtime (something similiar to Pause button in the debugger). Does somebody know how to achieve this? Also, if somebody knows an efficient way to handle this problem - I would appreciate your help. Thank you.

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  • How to calculate how many business days are between two dates?

    - by mystify
    A friend asked me yesterday if this was possible on the iPhone. I took a look at NSCalendar and all the related Classes but couldn't find a solution to this. So I thought about this approach: If I had two dates dateA and dateB, I would have to make a for-loop and iterate over every single day in this interval. Then I would count the business days monday until friday, and return the result. Then I went to bed, and I woke up with this probably much better idea: I need to know what day is it when I start. Lets say it's thursday. And then I must know how many days are in that interval. The last part is not hard to figure out. For the first part, I have no clue yet, but I believe there's an day of week value in NSCalendar. With that, I could do some simple math to calculate the amount of business days. Did anyone do that already on the iPhone?

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  • Strange Puzzle - Invalid memory access of location

    - by Rob Graeber
    The error message I'm getting consistently is: Invalid memory access of location 0x8 rip=0x10cf4ab28 What I'm doing is making a basic stock backtesting system, that is iterating huge arrays of stocks/historical data across various algorithms, using java + eclipse on the latest Mac Os X. I tracked down the code that seems to be causing it. A method that is used to get the massive arrays of data and is called thousands of times. Nothing is retained so I don't think there is a memory leak. However there seems to be a set limit of around 7000 times I can iterate over it before I get the memory error. The weird thing is that it works perfectly in debug mode. Does anyone know what debug mode does differently in Eclipse? Giving the jvm more memory doesn't help, and it appears to work fine using -xint. And again it works perfectly in debug mode. public static List<Stock> getStockArray(ExchangeType e){ List<Stock> stockArray = new ArrayList<Stock>(); if(e == ExchangeType.ALL){ stockArray.addAll(getStockArray(ExchangeType.NYSE)); stockArray.addAll(getStockArray(ExchangeType.NASDAQ)); }else if(e == ExchangeType.ETF){ stockArray.addAll(etfStockArray); }else if(e == ExchangeType.NYSE){ stockArray.addAll(nyseStockArray); }else if(e == ExchangeType.NASDAQ){ stockArray.addAll(nasdaqStockArray); } return stockArray; } A simple loop like this, iterated over 1000s of times, will cause the memory error. But not in debug mode. for (Stock stock : StockDatabase.getStockArray(ExchangeType.ETF)) { System.out.println(stock.symbol); }

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  • How to create custom MouseEvent.CLICK event in AS3 (pass parameters to function)?

    - by fromvega
    Hello, This question doesn't relate only to MouseEvent.CLICK event type but to all event types that already exist in AS3. I read a lot about custom events but until now I couldn't figure it out how to do what I want to do. I'm going to try to explain, I hope you understand: Here is a illustration of my situation: for(var i:Number; i < 10; i++){ var someVar = i; myClips[i].addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, doSomething); } function doSomething(e:MouseEvent){ /* */ } But I want to be able to pass someVar as a parameter to doSomething. So I tried this: for(var i:Number; i < 10; i++){ var someVar = i; myClips[i].addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, function(){ doSomething(someVar); }); } function doSomething(index){ trace(index); } This kind of works but not as I expect. Due to the function closures, when the MouseEvent.CLICK events are actually fired the for loop is already over and someVar is holding the last value, the number 9 in the example. So every click in each movie clip will call doSomething passing 9 as the parameter. And it's not what I want. I thought that creating a custom event should work, but then I couldn't find a way to fire a custom event when the MouseEvent.CLICK event is fired and pass the parameter to it. Now I don't know if it is the right answer. What should I do and how?

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  • Objective C - creating concrete class instances from base class depending upon type

    - by indiantroy
    Just to give a real world example, say the base class is Vehicle and concrete classes are TwoWheeler and FourWheeler. Now the type of the vehicle - TwoWheeler or FourWheeler, is decided by the base class Vehicle. When I create an instance of TwoWheeler/FourWheeler using alloc-init method, it calls the super implementation like below to set the value of common properties defined in the Vehicle class and out of these properties one of them is type that actually decides if the type is TwoWheeler or FourWheeler. if (self = [super initWithDictionary:dict]){ [self setOtherAttributes:dict]; return self; } Now when I get a collection of vehicles some of them could be TwoWheeler and others will be FourWheeler. Hence I cannot directly create an instance of TwoWheeler or FourWheeler like this Vehicle *v = [[TwoWheeler alloc] initWithDictionary:dict]; Is there any way I can create an instance of base class and once I know the type, create an instance of child class depending upon type and return it. With the current implementation, it would result in infinite loop because I call super implementation from concrete class. What would be the perfect design to handle this scenario when I don't know which concrete class should be instantiated beforehand?

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  • Fetch multiple rows from SQL in PHP foreach item in array

    - by TrySpace
    I try to request an array of IDs, to return each row with that ID, and push each into an Array $finalArray But only the first result from the Query will output, and at the second foreach, it skips the while loop. I have this working in another script, so I don't understand where it's going wrong. The $arrayItems is an array containing: "home, info" $finalArray = array(); foreach ($arrayItems as $UID_get) { $Query = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE (uid = '" . cleanQuery($UID_get) . "' ) ORDER BY uid"; if($Result = $mysqli->query($Query)) { print_r($UID_get); echo "<BR><-><BR>"; while ($Row = $Result->fetch_assoc()) { array_push($finalArray , $Row); print_r($finalArray ); echo "<BR><><BR>"; } } else { echo '{ "returned" : "FAIL" }'; //. mysqli_connect_errno() . ' ' . mysqli_connect_error() . "<BR>"; } } (the cleanQuery is to escape and stripslashes) What I'm trying to get is an array of multiple rows (after i json_encoded it, like: {"finalArray" : { "home": {"id":"1","created":"0000-00-00 00:00:00","css":"{ \"background-color\" : \"red\" }"} }, { "info": {"id":"2","created":"0000-00-00 00:00:00","css":"{ \"background-color\" : \"blue\" }"} } } But that's after I get both, or more results from the db. the print_r($UID_get); does print info, but then nothing.. So, why am I not getting the second row from info? I am essentially re-querying foreach $arrayItem right?

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  • How can I display a form for set configuration before the main form?

    - by Hamidm
    hello, in my project i have two form's(form1,form2), form1 is configuration form. i want to show Form1 and when we click Button1 then show Form2 and free(Release) Form1. how can to i do this? i use this code. but this project start and then exit automatically.A Friend said because the application message loop never start, and application terminates because main form does not exist. how i can to solve this problem? uses Unit2; {$R *.dfm} procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); begin Application.CreateForm(TForm2, Form2); Release; end; /// program Project1; uses Forms, Unit1 in 'Unit1.pas' {Form1}, Unit2 in 'Unit2.pas' {Form2}; {$R *.res} begin Application.Initialize; Application.MainFormOnTaskbar := True; Form1:= TForm1.Create(Application); Application.Run; end.

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  • multiple dependent android projects in eclipse

    - by lope
    Hi there! I just started to play with android dev and java+eclipse is pretty new to me. I managed to create simple project and run it on my device. Now I want to create simple game (more of them actually) and I would love to use shared code base for all of them (game loop, initialization, etc..). Problem is that I have no idea how to correctly do this. I created android project called engine with all basic stuff that I need and made it work on device. Now I tried to create another project in same workspace called mygame. Main class (activity) of mygame is MyGameApp which inherits from EngineApp (main activity of my engine project) which inherits from Activity. I added engine project into required projects in mygame build path tab in properties. Problem is that when I try to run this project it crashes on ClassNotFoundException trying to find my MyGameApp class. Any help (or pointer to some articles that explain how this is done) is greatly appreciated. few hours of googling didn't help much :/

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  • What's up with this reversing bit order function?

    - by MattyW
    I'm rather ashamed to admit that I don't know as much about bits and bit manipulation as I probably should. I tried to fix that this weekend by writing some 'reverse the order of bits' and 'count the ON bits' functions. I took an example from here but when I implemented it as below, I found I had to be looping while < 29. If I loop while < 32 (as in the example) Then when I try to print the integer (using a printBits function i've written) I seem to be missing the first 3 bits. This makes no sense to me, can someone help me out? int reverse(int n) { int r = 0; int i = 0; for(i = 0; i < 29; i++) { r = (r << 1) + (n & 1); n >>=1; } return r; }

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  • overload == (and != , of course) operator, can I bypass == to determine whether the object is null

    - by LLS
    Hello, when I try to overload operator == and != in C#, and override Equal as recommended, I found I have no way to distinguish a normal object and null. For example, I defined a class Complex. public static bool operator ==(Complex lhs, Complex rhs) { return lhs.Equals(rhs); } public static bool operator !=(Complex lhs, Complex rhs) { return !lhs.Equals(rhs); } public override bool Equals(object obj) { if (obj is Complex) { return (((Complex)obj).Real == this.Real && ((Complex)obj).Imaginary == this.Imaginary); } else { return false; } } But when I want to use if (temp == null) When temp is really null, some exception happens. And I can't use == to determine whether the lhs is null, which will cause infinite loop. What should I do in this situation. One way I can think of is to us some thing like Class.Equal(object, object) (if it exists) to bypass the == when I do the check. What is the normal way to solve the problem?

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  • Shell Scripting: Generating output file name in script and then writing to it

    - by NewShellScripter
    Hello, I have a shell script where a user passes different sizes as command line arguments. For each of those sizes, I want to perform some task, then save the output of that task into a .txt file with the size in the name. How can I take the command line passed and make that part of a stringname for the output file? I save the output file in a directory specified by another command line argument. Perhaps an example will clear it up. In the foor lop, the i value represents the command line argument I need to use, but $$i doesnt work. ./runMe arg1 arg2 outputDir [size1 size2 size3...] for ((i=4; i<$#; i++ )) do ping -s $$i google.com >> $outputDir/$$iresults.txt done I need to know how to build the $outputDir/$$iresults.txt string. Also, the ping -s $$i doesnt work. Its like I need two levels of replacement. I need to replace the $[$i] inner $i with the value in the loop, like 4 for ex, making it $4. Then replace $4 with the 4th command line argument! Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • How to delay program for a certain number of milliseconds, or until a key is pressed?

    - by Jack
    I need to delay my program's execution for a specified number of milliseconds, but also want the user to be able to escape the wait when a key is pressed. If no key is pressed the program should wait for the specified number of milliseconds. I have been using Thread.Sleep to halt the program (which in the context of my program I think is ok as the UI is set to minimise during the execution of the main method). I have thought about doing something like this: while(GetAsyncKeyState(System.Windows.Forms.Keys.Escape) == 0 || waitTime > totalWait) { Thread.Sleep(100); waitTime += 100; } As Thread.Sleep will wait until at least the time specified before waking the thread up, there will obviously be a large unwanted extra delay as it is scaled up in the while loop. Is there some sort of method that will sleep for a specified amount of time but only while a condition holds true? Or is the above example above the "correct" way to do it but to use a more accurate Sleep method? If so what method can I use? Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • Blit SDL_Surface onto another SDL_Surface and apply a colorkey

    - by NordCoder
    I want to load an SDL_Surface into an OpenGL texture with padding (so that NPOT-POT) and apply a color key on the surface afterwards. I either end up colorkeying all pixels, regardless of their color, or not colorkey anything at all. I have tried a lot of different things, but none of them seem to work. Here's the working snippet of my code. I use a custom color class for the colorkey (range [0-1]): // Create an empty surface with the same settings as the original image SDL_Surface* paddedImage = SDL_CreateRGBSurface(image->flags, width, height, image->format->BitsPerPixel, #if SDL_BYTEORDER == SDL_BIG_ENDIAN 0xff000000, 0x00ff0000, 0x0000ff00, 0x000000ff #else 0x000000ff, 0x0000ff00, 0x00ff0000, 0xff000000 #endif ); // Map RGBA color to pixel format value Uint32 colorKeyPixelFormat = SDL_MapRGBA(paddedImage->format, static_cast<Uint8>(colorKey.R * 255), static_cast<Uint8>(colorKey.G * 255), static_cast<Uint8>(colorKey.B * 255), static_cast<Uint8>(colorKey.A * 255)); SDL_FillRect(paddedImage, NULL, colorKeyPixelFormat); // Blit the image onto the padded image SDL_BlitSurface(image, NULL, paddedImage, NULL); SDL_SetColorKey(paddedImage, SDL_SRCCOLORKEY, colorKeyPixelFormat); Afterwards, I generate an OpenGL texture from paddedImage using similar code to the SDL+OpenGL texture loading code found online (I'll post if necessary). This code works if I just want the texture with or without padding, and is likely not the problem. I realize that I set all pixels in paddedImage to have alpha zero which causes the first problem I mentioned, but I can't seem to figure out how to do this. Should I just loop over the pixels and set the appropriate colors to have alpha zero?

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  • Creating nested fields for column on assignment table?

    - by H O
    I have three models, that represent a many to many relationship - Product, Sale and Product_sale. I have a nested form that allows me to create new products from the sale form - so far, so good. I have, however, added some additional fields to the assignment table - price, for example. How can I set the price on the assignment table from the product form, when it is nested in the sale form? I currently have the code below: <%= sale.fields_for :products do |products_builder| %> <%= render :partial => "products/form", :locals => {:f => products_builder, :form_actions_visible => false} %> <% end -%> I could nest a Product_sale form within the product form, but this would create a new product_sale, which is not what I am looking for. I will most likely need to nest the price field within the product form, to ensure that it updates the correct assignment record (since there could be multiple products on one sale form). How can I use a fields_for loop on the product form to update the existing assignment record that is built when I do @sale.products.build? The assignment record will not yet be saved, so I can not access it using a where clause and edit it that way. Thanks!

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  • multiplying all elements in an array by an outside number?

    - by prodo
    I need to multiple all the values in an array by 3000 which in turn would create a new array that I will use to subtract from another array. I've tried to create a separate method that would do that for me but all I got back in the multiplied array was a bunch of numbers and symbols strangely? here is the code that I wrote public static void main(String[] args) { int numberOfTaxpayers = Integer.parseInt(JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Enter how many users you would like to calculate taxes for: "); int[] usernumChild = new int[numberOfTaxPayers]; for (int i = 0; i < usernumChild.length; i++) { usernumChild[i] = Integer.parseInt(JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Enter number of children for user "+ (i+1) +": ")); }//this for loop finds out the number of children per user so we can later multiply each input by 3000 to create an array that determine dependency exemption for each user int[] depndExemp = multiply(usernumChild, 3000);//this was the calling of the multiply method... somewhere here is the error!! }//end main method public static int[] multiply(int[] children, int number) { int array[] = new int[children.length]; for( int i = 0; i < children.length; i++) { children[i] = children[i] * number; }//end for return array; }//this is the method that I was shown in a previous post on how to create return an array in this the dependency exemption array but when I tested this by printing out the dependency array all I received were a jumble of wrong numbers.

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  • Not getting an array as result (calling a webservice by AJAX-JSON)

    - by Pasargad
    I'm trying to get the result of my web service as an array and then loop over the result to fetch all of the data; what I have done so far: In my web service when I return the result I use return json_encode($newFiles); and the result is as following: "[{\"path\":\"c:\\\\my_images\\\\123.jpg\",\"ID\":\"123\",\"FName\":\"John\",\"LName\":\"Brown\",\"dept\":\"Hr\"}]" tehn in my Web application I'm calling the rest web service by the following code in the RestService class: public function getNewImages($time) { $url = $this->rest_url['MyService'] . "?action=getAllNewPhotos&accessKey=" . $this->rest_key['MyService'] . "&lastcheck=" . $time; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $data = curl_exec($ch); if ($data) { return json_decode($data); } else { return null; } } and then in my controller I have the following code: public function getNewImgs($time="2011-11-03 14:35:08") { $newImgs = $this->restservice->getNewImages($time); echo json_encode$newImgs; } and I'm calling this `enter code here`controller method by AJAX: $("#searchNewImgManually").click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: true, datatype: "json", url: "<?PHP echo base_url("myProjectController/getNewImgs"); ?>", success: function(imgsResults) { alert(imgsResults[0]); } }); }); but instead of giving me the first object it is just giving me quotation mark (the first charachter of the result) " Why is that? I'm passing in JSON format and in AJAX I mentioned datatype as "JSON" ! Please let me know if you need more clarification! Thanks :)

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  • Python server open all ports

    - by user1670178
    I am trying to open all ports using this code, why can I not create a loop to perform this function? http://www.kellbot.com/2010/02/tutorial-writing-a-tcp-server-in-python/ #!/usr/bin/python # This is server.py file ##server.py from socket import * #import the socket library n=1025 while n<1050: ##let's set up some constants HOST = '' #we are the host PORT = n #arbitrary port not currently in use ADDR = (HOST,PORT) #we need a tuple for the address BUFSIZE = 4096 #reasonably sized buffer for data ## now we create a new socket object (serv) ## see the python docs for more information on the socket types/flags serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) ##bind our socket to the address serv.bind((ADDR)) #the double parens are to create a tuple with one element serv.listen(5) #5 is the maximum number of queued connections we'll allow serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) ##bind our socket to the address serv.bind((ADDR)) #the double parens are to create a tuple with one element serv.listen(5) #5 is the maximum number of queued connections we'll allow print 'listening...' n=n+1 conn,addr = serv.accept() #accept the connection print '...connected!' conn.send('TEST') conn.close() How do I make this work so that I can specify input range and have the server open all ports up to 65535? #!/usr/bin/python # This is server.py file from socket import * #import the socket library startingPort=input("\nPlease enter starting port: ") startingPort=int(startingPort) #print startingPort def connection(): ## let's set up some constants HOST = '' #we are the host PORT = startingPort #arbitrary port not currently in use ADDR = (HOST,PORT) #we need a tuple for the address BUFSIZE = 4096 #reasonably sized buffer for data def socketObject(): ## now we create a new socket object (serv) serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) def bind(): ## bind our socket to the address serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) serv.bind((ADDR)) #the double parens are to create a tuple with one element serv.listen(5) #5 is the maximum number of queued connections we'll allow serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) print 'listening...' def accept(): conn,addr = serv.accept() #accept the connection print '...connected!' conn.send('TEST') def close(): conn.close() ## Main while startingPort<65535: connection() socketObject() bind() accept() startingPort=startingPort+1

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  • Stream buffering issue

    - by Kolyunya
    The mod_rewrite documentation states that it is a strict requirement to disable in(out)put buffering in a rewrite program. Keeping that in mind I've written a simple program (I do know that it lacks the EOF check but this is not an issue and it saves one condition check per loop): #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> int main ( void ) { setvbuf(stdin,NULL,_IOLBF,4200); setvbuf(stdout,NULL,_IOLBF,4200); int character; while ( 42 ) { character = getchar(); if ( character == '-' ) { character = '_'; } putchar(character); } return 42 - 42; } After making some measurements I was shocked - it was over 9,000 times slower than the demo Perl script provided by the documentation: #!/usr/bin/perl $| = 1; # Turn off I/O buffering while (<STDIN>) { s/-/_/g; # Replace dashes with underscores print $_; } Now I have two related questions: Question 1. I believe that the streams may be line buffered since Apache sends a new line after each path. Am I correct? Switching my program to setvbuf(stdin,NULL,_IOLBF,4200); setvbuf(stdout,NULL,_IOLBF,4200); makes it twice as fast as Perl one. This should not hit Apache's performance, should it? Question 2. How can one write a program in C which will use unbuffered streams (like Perl one) and will perform as fast as Perl one?

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  • Trouble accessing Mutable array

    - by Jared Gross
    Im having trouble with my for loop where I am trying to index user names. I am able to separate my original array into individual objects but am not able to send the value to a new array that I need to reference later on. The value and count for userNames in my self.userNamesArray = userNames; line is correct. But right after that when I log self.userNamesArray, I get (null). Any tips cause I'm not completely sure I'm cheers! .h @property (nonatomic, copy) NSMutableArray *userNamesArray; .m - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { self.friendsRelation = [[PFUser currentUser] objectForKey:@"friendsRelation"]; PFQuery *query = [self.friendsRelation query]; [query orderByAscending:@"username"]; [query findObjectsInBackgroundWithBlock:^(NSArray *objects, NSError *error) { if (error) { NSLog(@"Error: %@ %@", error, [error userInfo]); } else { self.friends = objects; NSArray *users = [self.friends valueForKey:@"username"]; NSLog(@"username:%@", users); //Create an array of name wrappers and pass to the root view controller. NSMutableArray *userNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[self.friends count]]; for (NSString *user in users) { componentsSeparatedByCharactersInSet:charSet]; NSArray *nameComponents = [user componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; UserNameWrapper *userNameWrapper = [[UserNameWrapper alloc] initWithUserName:nil nameComponents:nameComponents]; [userNames addObject:userNameWrapper]; } self.userNamesArray = userNames; NSLog(@"userNamesArray:%@",self.userNamesArray); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Here's the code where I need to reference the self.userNamesArray where again, it is comping up nil. - (void)setUserNamesArray:(NSMutableArray *)newDataArray { if (newDataArray != self.userNamesArray) { self.userNamesArray = [newDataArray mutableCopy]; if (self.userNamesArray == nil) { self.sectionsArray = nil; NSLog(@"user names empty"); } else { [self configureSections]; } } }

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  • determining the starting speed for an accelerated animation (in flash/actionscript but it's a math question)

    - by vulkanino
    This question burns my brain. I have an object on a plane, but for the sake of simplicity let's work just on a single dimension, thus the object has a starting position xs. I know the ending position xe. The object has to move from starting to ending position with an accelerated (acceleration=a) movement. I know the velocity the object has to have at the ending position (=ve). In my special case the ending speed is zero, but of course I need a general formula. The only unknown is the starting velocity vs. The objects starts with vs in xs and ends with ve in xe, moving along a space x with an acceleration a in a time t. Since I'm working with flash, space is expressed in pixels, time is expressed in frames (but you can reason in terms of seconds, it's easy to convert knowing the frames-per-second). In the animation loop (think onEnterFrame) I compute the new velocity and the new position with (a=0.4 for example): vx *= a (same for vy) x += vx (same for y) I want the entire animation to last, say, 2 seconds, which at 30 fps is 60 frames. Now you know that in 60 frames my object has to move from xs to xe with a constant deceleration so that the ending speed is 0. How do I compute the starting speed vs? Maybe there's a simpler way to do this in Flash, but I am now interested in the math/physics behind this.

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  • How should a multi-threaded C application handle a failed malloc()?

    - by user294463
    A part of an application I'm working on is a simple pthread-based server that communicates over a TCP/IP socket. I am writing it in C because it's going to be running in a memory constrained environment. My question is: what should the program do if one of the threads encounters a malloc() that returns NULL? Possibilities I've come up with so far: No special handling. Let malloc() return NULL and let it be dereferenced so that the whole thing segfaults. Exit immediately on a failed malloc(), by calling abort() or exit(-1). Assume that the environment will clean everything up. Jump out of the main event loop and attempt to pthread_join() all the threads, then shut down. The first option is obviously the easiest, but seems very wrong. The second one also seems wrong since I don't know exactly what will happen. The third option seems tempting except for two issues: first, all of the threads need not be joined back to the main thread under normal circumstances and second, in order to complete the thread execution, most of the remaining threads will have to call malloc() again anyway. What shall I do?

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  • .Net forms - intercepting the Close X event.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Hi, this must be a dumb question, but I cannot figure it out. I also cannot use the designer because coders before me managed to throw GUI and logic all in one, so now it is confused. I've got to do it the old school way. I have a Form which can be closed in 3 ways: Close button, File / Close menu, and the X icon. I want them all to do the same thing. Intercepting the button and the menu events is easy. In fact, both are hooked up to an onCloseConfig method. Btw, is there a better name for this method? private void onCloseConfig(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { if (! m_configControl.Modified) { Application.Exit(); // Or should it be this.Close(); } .... // Else present a dialog, ask if they want to save. } So, to intercept the X I tried: this.FormClosing +=new FormClosingEventHandler(this.onCloseConfig); I believe this is what causes an infinite loop. I do not want that :) FormClosed is another option, but it seems too late. I just want to intercept the fact that the X was clicked, not the fact that the form is closing. Please help. Thanks!

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  • Processing JSON data with jQuery - strange results needing alert()

    - by James
    I have this code below. I randomly ran across that it will work if I have that alert message exactly where it is. If I take it out or move it to any other spot the tabs will not appear. What exactly is that alert doing that allows the code to work and how can I make it work without the alert? If I move the each loop into the success section it does not work even with the alert. $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "../ajax.php", data: "action=tabs", dataType: "json", success: function(data){ Projects = data; } }); alert("yes"); $.each(Projects, function(i){ /* Sequentially creating the tabs and assigning a color from the array: */ var tmp = $('<li><a href="#" class="tab green">'+Projects[i].name+'<span class="left" /><span class="right" /></a></li>'); /* Setting the page data for each hyperlink: */ tmp.find('a').data('page','../ajax.php?action=lists&projectID='+Projects[i].project_id); /* Adding the tab to the UL container: */ $('ul.tabContainer').append(tmp); }); The ajax code is retuning json with this code $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `projects` ORDER BY `position` ASC"); $projects = array(); // Filling the $projects array with new project objects: while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)){ $projects[] = $row; } echo json_encode($projects); The returning data is very small and very fast so I don't think that is the problem.

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  • Update MySQl table onDrop?

    - by dougvt
    Hi all. I am writing a PHP/MySQL application (using CodeIgniter) that uses some jQuery functionality for dragging table rows. I have a table in which the user can drag rows to the desired order (kind of a queue for which I need to preserve the rank of each row). I've been trying to figure out how to (and whether I should) update the database each time the user drops a row, in order to simplify the UI and avoid a "Save" button. I have the jQuery working and can send a serialized list back to the server onDrop, but is it good design practice to run an update query this often? The table will usually have 30-40 rows max, but if the user drags row 1 far down the list, then potentially all the rows would need to be updated to update the rank field. I've been wondering whether to send a giant query to the server, to loop through the rows in PHP and update each row with its own Update query, to send a small serialized list to a stored procedure to let the server do all the work, or perhaps a better method I haven't considered. I've read that stored procedures in MySQL are not very efficient and use a separate process for each call. Any advice as to the right solution here? Thanks very much for your help!

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  • Adding an element to a multidimensional array

    - by stef
    How can I loop through the array below and an element per array, with key "url_slug" and value "foo"? I tried with array_push but that gets rid of the key names (it seems?) Doing a foreach($array as $k = $v) doesn't do it either, I think. The new array should be exactly the same only having 4 elements per array instead of 3, with the key / values above. Array ( [0] => Array ( [name_en] => Test 5 [url_name_nl] => test-5 [cat_name] => mobile ) [1] => Array ( [name_en] => Test 10 [url_name_nl] => test-10 [cat_name] => mobile ) [2] => Array ( [name_en] => Test 25 [url_name_nl] => test-25 [cat_name] => mobile ) ) EDIT: full working solution. A little more complex than originally described foreach ($prods as $key => &$value) { if($key == "cat_name") $slug = $value['cat_name']; $url_slug = $this->lang->line($slug); $value['url_slug'] = $url_slug; }

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