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  • Can anyone explain this impossible bit of PHP logic?

    - by user268208
    I'm attempting to debug a simple PHP script. Essentially, there's a variable which is defined with: $variable = ($_GET['variable'] == 'true') ? TRUE : FALSE; Then, in the view file, the following code is meant to display a box if $variable == TRUE: <? if ($variable == true) { ?> <p class="box">You have imported a new plan.</p> <? } ?> Now, even when that $variable, as shown by var_dump($variable); == FALSE, that HTML is printed between the if { } tags. To me, this defies logic. I simply can't figure out this problem out. Furthermore, this code works fine on many PHP4 and PHP5 installations except for one particular server running PHP5.2. Any possible suggestions? Leads? I'm pulling out my hair trying to figure this one out. Thank you.

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  • Parsing an XML string containing "&#x20;" (which must be preserved)

    - by Zoodor
    I have code that is passed a string containing XML. This XML may contain one or more instances of &#x20; (an entity reference for the blank space character). I have a requirement that these references should not be resolved (i.e. they should not be replaced with an actual space character). Is there any way for me to achieve this? Basically, given a string containing the XML: <pattern value="[A-Z0-9&#x20;]" /> I do not want it to be converted to: <pattern value="[A-Z0-9 ]" /> (What I am actually trying to achieve is to simply take an XML string and write it to a "pretty-printed" file. This is having the side-effect of resolving occurrences of &#x20; in the string to a single space character, which need to be preserved. The reason for this requirement is that the written XML document must conform to an externally-defined specification.) I have tried creating a sub-class of XmlTextReader to read from the XML string and overriding the ResolveEntity() method, but this isn't called. I have also tried assigning a custom XmlResolver.

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  • SQL Server 2008 - Update a temporary table

    - by user336786
    Hello, I have stored procedure in which I am trying to retrieve the last ticket completed by each user listed in a comma-delimited string of usernames. The user may not have a ticket associated with them, in this case I know that i just need to return null. The two tables that I am working with are defined as follows: User ---- UserName, FirstName, LastName Ticket ------ ID, CompletionDateTime, AssignedTo, AssignmentDate, StatusID TicketStatus ------------ ID, Comments I have created a stored procedure in which I am trying to return the last completed ticket for a comma-delimited list of usernames. Each record needs to include the comments associated with it. Currently, I'm trying the following: CREATE TABLE #Tickets ( [UserName] nvarchar(256), [FirstName] nvarchar(256), [LastName] nvarchar(256), [TicketID] int, [DateCompleted] datetime, [Comments] text ) -- This variable is actually passed into the procedure DECLARE @userList NVARCHAR(max) SET @userList='user1,user2,user2' -- Obtain the user information for each user INSERT INTO #Tickets ( [UserName], [FirstName], [LastName] ) SELECT u.[UserName], u.[FirstName], u.[LastName] FROM User u INNER JOIN dbo.ConvertCsvToTable(@userList) l ON u.UserName=l.item At this point, I have the username, first and last name for each user passed in. However, I do not know how to actually get the last ticket completed for each of these users. How do I do this? I believe I should be updating the temp table I have created. At the same time, id do not know how to get just the last record in an update statement. Thank you!

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  • Objective C - creating concrete class instances from base class depending upon type

    - by indiantroy
    Just to give a real world example, say the base class is Vehicle and concrete classes are TwoWheeler and FourWheeler. Now the type of the vehicle - TwoWheeler or FourWheeler, is decided by the base class Vehicle. When I create an instance of TwoWheeler/FourWheeler using alloc-init method, it calls the super implementation like below to set the value of common properties defined in the Vehicle class and out of these properties one of them is type that actually decides if the type is TwoWheeler or FourWheeler. if (self = [super initWithDictionary:dict]){ [self setOtherAttributes:dict]; return self; } Now when I get a collection of vehicles some of them could be TwoWheeler and others will be FourWheeler. Hence I cannot directly create an instance of TwoWheeler or FourWheeler like this Vehicle *v = [[TwoWheeler alloc] initWithDictionary:dict]; Is there any way I can create an instance of base class and once I know the type, create an instance of child class depending upon type and return it. With the current implementation, it would result in infinite loop because I call super implementation from concrete class. What would be the perfect design to handle this scenario when I don't know which concrete class should be instantiated beforehand?

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  • java packets byte

    - by user303289
    Guys, I am implementing a protocol in one of the wireless project. I am stucked at one point. In of the java file i am suppose to receive a packet and that packet is 12 byte packet and I have to write different functions for reading different parts of packets and convert it to diferent type. Like I want first four byte in one of the function and convert it to int, next two bytes in string. and again next two in string, last two hop in string and followed by last two int. I want follwing function to implement: // here is the interface /* FloodingData should use methods defined in this class. */ class FloodingPacket{ public static void main(String arg[]){ byte FloodingPack[]; // just for example to test in code FloodingPack=new byte[12]; interface IFloodingPacket { // Returns the unique sequence number for the packet int getSequenceNumber() ; // Returns the source address for the packet String getSourceAddress(); // Returns the destination address for the packet String getDestinationAddress(); // Returns the last hop address for the packet String getLastHopAddress(); // Sets the last hop address to the address of the node // which the packet was received from void updateLastHopAddress(); // Returns the entire packet in bytes (for sending) byte[] getBytes(); // Sets the bytes of the packet (for receiving) void setBytes(byte[] packet); }

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  • Flash Builder 4 "includeIn" property causing design view error

    - by Chris
    I am creating a custom TextInput component that will define an "error" state. I have extended the TextInput class to change the state to "error" if the errorString property's length is greater than 0. In the skin class, I have defined an "error" state, and added some logic to detect the size and position of the error icon. However, if I have this code at the same time I use the "includeIn" property in the bitmap image tag, I get a design view error. If I either A) Only include that code with no "includeIn" property set, it works or B) dont include the code to set the icon size and position and only use the "includeIn" property, it works. Any ideas what could be causing the design view problem when I use both the "includeIn" property and the icon size/position code at the same time? TextInput Class: package classes { import spark.components.TextInput; public class TextInput extends spark.components.TextInput { [SkinState("error")]; public function TextInput() { super(); } override public function set errorString( value:String ):void { super.errorString = value; invalidateSkinState(); } override protected function getCurrentSkinState():String { if (errorString.length>0) { return "error"; } return super.getCurrentSkinState(); } } } TextInput Skin File: override protected function updateDisplayList(unscaledWidth:Number, unscaledHeight:Number):void { //THIS IS THE CODE THAT SEEMS TO BE CAUSING THE PROBLEM if(getStyle("iconSize") == "large") { errorIcon.right = -12; errorIcon.source = new errorIconLg(); } else { errorIcon.right = -5; errorIcon.source = new errorIconSm(); } super.updateDisplayList(unscaledWidth, unscaledHeight); } </fx:Script> <s:states> <s:State name="normal"/> <s:State name="disabled"/> <s:State name="error"/> </s:states> //If I remove the problem code above or if I take out the includeIn //property here, it works <s:BitmapImage id="errorIcon" verticalCenter="0" includeIn="error" /> </s:SparkSkin>

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  • Moq basic questions

    - by devoured elysium
    I made the following test for my class: var mock = new Mock<IRandomNumberGenerator>(); mock.Setup(framework => framework.Generate(0, 50)) .Returns(7.0); var rnac = new RandomNumberAverageCounter(mock.Object, 1, 100); rnac.Run(); double result = rnac.GetAverage(); Assert.AreEqual(result, 7.0, 0.1); The problem here was that I changed my mind about what range of values Generate(int min, int max) would use. So in Mock.Setup() I defined the range as from 0 to 50 while later I actually called the Generate() method with a range from 1 to 100. I ran the test and it failed. I know that that is what it's supposed to happen but I was left wondering if isn't there a way to launch an exception or throw in a message when trying to run the method with wrong params. Also, if I want to run this Generate() method 10 times with different values (let's say, from 1 to 10), will I have to make 10 mock setups or something, or is there a special method for it? The best I could think of is this (which isn't bad, I'm just asking if there is other better way): for (int i = 1; i < 10; ++i) { mock.Setup(framework => framework.Generate(1, 100)) .Returns((double)i); }

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  • Static variable definition order in c++

    - by rafeeq
    Hi i have a class tools which has static variable std::vector m_tools. Can i insert the values into the static variable from Global scope of other classes defined in other files. Example: tools.h File class Tools { public: static std::vector<std::vector> m_tools; void print() { for(int i=0 i< m_tools.size() ; i++) std::cout<<"Tools initialized :"<< m_tools[i]; } } tools.cpp File std::vector<std::vector> Tools::m_tools; //Definition Using register class constructor for inserting the new string into static variable. class Register { public: Register(std::string str) { Tools::m_tools.pushback(str); } }; Different class which inserts the string to static variable in static variable first_tool.cpp //Global scope declare global register variable Register a("first_tool"); //////// second_tool.cpp //Global scope declare global register variable Register a("second_tool"); Main.cpp void main() { Tools abc; abc.print(); } Will this work? In the above example on only one string is getting inserted in to the static list. Problem look like "in Global scope it tries to insert the element before the definition is done" Please let me know is there any way to set the static definiton priority? Or is there any alternative way of doing the same.

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  • I need help with a SQL query. Fetching an entry, it's most recent revision and it's fields.

    - by Tigger ate my dad
    Hi there, I'm building a CMS for my own needs, and finished planning my database layout. Basically I am abstracting all possible data-models into "sections" and all entries into one table. The final layout is as follows: Database diagram: I have yet to be allowed to post images, so here is a link to a diagram of my database. Entries (section_entries) are children of their section (sections). I save all edits to the entries in a new revision (section_entries_revisions), and also track revisions on the sections (section_revisions), in order to match the values of a revision, to the fields of the section that existed when the entry-revision was made. The section-revisions can have a number of fields (section_revision_fields) that define the attributes of entries in the section. There is a many-to-many relationship between the fields (section_revision_fields) and the entry-revisions (section_entry_revisions), that stores the values of the attributes defined by the section revision. Feel free to ask questions if the diagram is confusing. Now, this is the most complex SQL I've ever worked with, and the task of fetching my data is a little daunting. Basically what i want help with, is fetching an entry, when the only known variables are; section_id, section_entry_id. The query should fetch the most recent revision of that entry, and the section_revision model corresponding to section_revision_id in the section_entry_revisions table. It should also fetch the values of the fields in the section-revision. I was hoping for a query result, where there would be as many rows as fields in the section. Each row would contain the information of the entry and the section, and then information for one of the fields (e.g. each row corresponding to a field and it's value). I tried to explain the best I could. Again, feel free to ask questions if my description somehow lacking. I hope someone is up for the challenge. Best regards. :-)

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  • How to use Jquery UI in my Custom Function? (Autocomplete)

    - by bakazero
    I want to create a function to simplify configuration of jQuery UI AutoComplete. Here is my function code: (function($) { $.fn.myAutocomplete = function() { var cache = {}; var dataUrl = args.dataUrl; var dataSend = args.dataItem; $.autocomplete({ source: function(request, response) { if (cache.term == request.term && cache.content) { response(cache.content); } if (new RegExp(cache.term).test(request.term) && cache.content && cache.content.length < 13) { var matcher = new RegExp($.ui.autocomplete.escapeRegex(request.term), "i"); response($.grep(cache.content, function(value) { return matcher.test(value.value) })); } $.ajax({ url: dataUrl, dataType: "json", type: "POST", data: dataSend, success: function(data) { cache.term = request.term; cache.content = data; response(data); } }); }, minLength: 2, }); } }) (jQuery); but when I'm using this function like: $("input#tag").myAutocomplete({ dataUrl: "/auto_complete/tag", dataSend: { term: request.term, category: $("input#category").val() } }); It's give me an error: Uncaught ReferenceError: request is not defined

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  • Why this doesnt't work in C++?

    - by user3377450
    I'm doing something and I have this: //main.cpp file template<typename t1, typename t2> std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& os, const std::pair<t1, t2>& pair) { return os << "< " << pair.first << " , " << pair.second << " >"; } int main() { std::map<int, int> map = { { 1, 2 }, { 2, 3 } }; std::cout << *map.begin() << std::endl;//This works std::copy(map.begin(), map.end(), std::ostream_iterator<std::pair<int,int> >(std::cout, " "));//this doesn't work } I guess this is not working because in the std::copy algorithm the operator isn't defined, but what can I do?

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  • C++ - Totally suspend windows application

    - by HardCoder1986
    Hello! I am developing a simple WinAPI application and started from writing my own assertion system. I have a macro defined like ASSERT(X) which would make pretty the same thing as assert(X) does, but with more information, more options and etc. At some moment (when that assertion system was already running and working) I realized there is a problem. Suppose I wrote a code that does some action using a timer and (just a simple example) this action is done while handling WM_TIMER message. And now, the situation changes the way that this code starts throwing an assert. This assert message would be shown every TIMER_RESOLUTION milliseconds and would simply flood the screen. Options for solving this situation could be: 1) Totally pause application running (probably also, suspend all threads) when the assertion messagebox is shown and continue running after it is closed 2) Make a static counter for the shown asserts and don't show asserts when one of them is already showing (but this doesn't pause application) 3) Group similiar asserts and show only one for each assert type (but this also doesn't pause application) 4) Modify the application code (for example, Get / Translate / Dispatch message loop) so that it suspends itself when there are any asserts. This is good, but not universal and looks like a hack. To my mind, option number 1 is the best. But I don't know any way how this can be achieved. What I'm seeking for is a way to pause the runtime (something similiar to Pause button in the debugger). Does somebody know how to achieve this? Also, if somebody knows an efficient way to handle this problem - I would appreciate your help. Thank you.

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  • Position footer to bottom of window or page, whichever is larger

    - by BenM
    I am currently working on a site that requires a footer to be placed either at the bottom of the window, or the bottom of the page content, whichever is lower. I have tried using the height: 100% method, but this causes a problem. I also have a position: fixed header, and some padding on my content (defined in pixels). Also, the height of the content may change after the page has loaded (use of accordions, etc.), so I wonder if there's a pure CSS way to position the footer to either the bottom of the window, or the bottom of the document, while still allowing pixel padding and so forth. Here's an outlined structure of the HTML: <header></header> <div class="content"> <footer></footer> </div> I have also put together a Fiddle to demonstrate how the CSS works at the moment: http://jsfiddle.net/LY6Zs/. I am unfortunately unable to change the HTML structure (i.e. breaking out the footer element from .content.

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  • Can't call an object method. PHP reports variable undefined

    - by user1285697
    This is the weirdest bug! It is probably something silly, but I have no idea how to fix it. If anyone could help, I would be most grateful! I have three files, one is called items.php, another is called tableFunctions.php, and the third is called mysql.php. I use two global objects called 'mysql' and 'tableFunctions'. They are stored in the files 'mysql.php', and 'tableFunctions.php', respectively. In each file, I create an instance of its object, assigning it to the global variable $_mysql, or $_table. like this: In the file mysql.php: global $_mysql; $_mysql = new mysql(); In the file tableFunctions.php: global $_table; $_table = new tableFunctions(); Here's how it is supposed to work: The items.php file includes the tableFunctions.php file... Which in turn, needs the mysql.php file, so it includes it too. In the items.php file, I call the method getTable(), which is contained in the object tableFunctions.(and in the variable $_table.) Like this: $t = $_table->getTable('items'); The getTable function calls the method, arrayFromResult(), which is contained within in the object mysql.(and in the variable $_mysql.) Like this: $result = $_mysql->arrayFromResult($r); That's where I get the error. PHP says that the variable '$_mysql' is undefined, but I defined it in the 'mysql.php' file.(see above) I also included mysql.php with the following code: include_once 'mysql.php'; I have no idea what is wrong! If anyone can help that would be much appreciated. The source files can be downloaded with the following link: https://www.dropbox.com/sh/bjj2gyjsybym89r/YLxqyNvQdn

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  • Windows service (hosting WCF service) stops immediately on start up

    - by Thr33Dii
    My Question: I cannot navigate to the base address once the service is installed because the service won't remain running (stops immediately). Is there anything I need to do on the server or my machine to make the baseAddress valid? Background: I'm trying to learn how to use WCF services hosted in Windows Services. I have read several tutorials on how to accomplish this and it seems very straight forward. I've looked at this MSDN article and built it step-by-step. I can install the service on my machine and on a server, but when I start the service, it stops immediately. I then found this tutorial, which is essentially the same thing, but it contains some clients that consume the WCF service. I downloaded the source code, compiled, installed, but when I started the service, it stopped immediately. Searching SO, I found a possible solution that said to define the baseAddress when instantiating the ServiceHost, but that didnt help either. My serviceHost is defined as: serviceHost = new ServiceHost( typeof( CalculatorService ), new Uri( "http://localhost:8000/ServiceModelSamples/service" ) ); My service name, base address, and endpoint: <service name="Microsoft.ServiceModel.Samples.CalculatorService" behaviorConfiguration="CalculatorServiceBehavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8000/ServiceModelSamples/service"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="Microsoft.ServiceModel.Samples.ICalculator"/> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> I've verified the namespaces are identical. It's just getting frustrating that the tutorials seem to assume that the Windows service will start as long as all the stated steps are followed. I'm missing something and it's probably right in front of me. Please help!

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  • Is re-throwing an exception legal in a nested 'try'?

    - by Alexander Gessler
    Is the following well-defined in C++, or not? I am forced to 'convert' exceptions to return codes (the API in question is used by many C users, so I need to make sure all C++ exceptions are caught & handled before control is returned to the caller). enum ErrorCode {…}; ErrorCode dispatcher() { try { throw; } catch (std::bad_alloc&) { return ErrorCode_OutOfMemory; } catch (std::logic_error&) { return ErrorCode_LogicError; } catch (myownstdexcderivedclass&) { return ErrorCode_42; } catch(...) { return ErrorCode_UnknownWeWillAllDie; } } ErrorCode apifunc() { try { // foo() might throw anything foo(); } catch(...) { // dispatcher rethrows the exception and does fine-grained handling return dispatcher(); } return ErrorCode_Fine; } ErrorCode apifunc2() { try { // bar() might throw anything bar(); } catch(...) { return dispatcher(); } return ErrorCode_Fine; } I hope the sample shows my intention. My guess is that this is undefined behaviour, but I'm not sure. Please provide quotes from the standard, if applicable. Alternative approaches are appreciated as well. Thanks!

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  • Java getMethod with subclass parameter

    - by SelectricSimian
    I'm writing a library that uses reflection to find and call methods dynamically. Given just an object, a method name, and a parameter list, I need to call the given method as though the method call were explicitly written in the code. I've been using the following approach, which works in most cases: static void callMethod(Object receiver, String methodName, Object[] params) { Class<?>[] paramTypes = new Class<?>[params.length]; for (int i = 0; i < param.length; i++) { paramTypes[i] = params[i].getClass(); } receiver.getClass().getMethod(methodName, paramTypes).invoke(receiver, params); } However, when one of the parameters is a subclass of one of the supported types for the method, the reflection API throws a NoSuchMethodException. For example, if the receiver's class has testMethod(Foo) defined, the following fails: receiver.getClass().getMethod("testMethod", FooSubclass.class).invoke(receiver, new FooSubclass()); even though this works: receiver.testMethod(new FooSubclass()); How do I resolve this? If the method call is hard-coded there's no issue - the compiler just uses the overloading algorithm to pick the best applicable method to use. It doesn't work with reflection, though, which is what I need. Thanks in advance!

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  • Class Inside Structure

    - by Knvn
    Could some one please explain, What happens when a reference type is defined inside the value type. I write the following code: namespace ClassInsideStruct { class ClassInsideStruct { static void Main(string[] args) { ValueType ObjVal = new ValueType(10); ObjVal.Display(); ValueType.ReferenceType ObjValRef = new ValueType.ReferenceType(10); ObjValRef.Display(); Test(ObjVal, ObjValRef); ObjVal.Display(); ObjValRef.Display(); Console.ReadKey(); } private static void Test(ValueType v, ValueType.ReferenceType r) { v.SValue = 50; r.RValue = 50; } } struct ValueType { int StructNum; ReferenceType ObjRef; public ValueType(int i) { StructNum = i; ObjRef = new ReferenceType(i); } public int SValue { get { return StructNum; } set { StructNum = value; ObjRef.RValue = value; } } public void Display() { Console.WriteLine("ValueType: " + StructNum); Console.Write("ReferenceType Inside ValueType Instance: "); ObjRef.Display(); } public class ReferenceType { int ClassNum; public ReferenceType(int i) { ClassNum = i; } public void Display() { Console.WriteLine("Reference Type: " + ClassNum); } public int RValue { get { return ClassNum; } set { ClassNum = value; } } } } } Which outputs: ValueType: 10 ReferenceType Inside ValueType Instance: Reference Type: 10 Reference Type: 10 ValueType: 10 ReferenceType Inside ValueType Instance: Reference Type: 50 Reference Type: 50 I'm curious to know, after calling the method Test(ObjVal, ObjValRef), how the values of ReferenceType is changed to 50 which resides inside the ValueType who's value is not changed?

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  • Sending a message to nil?

    - by Ryan Delucchi
    As a Java developer who is reading Apple's Objective-C 2.0 documentation: I wonder as to what sending a message to nil means - let alone how it is actually useful. Taking an excerpt from the documentation: There are several patterns in Cocoa that take advantage of this fact. The value returned from a message to nil may also be valid: If the method returns an object, any pointer type, any integer scalar of size less than or equal to sizeof(void*), a float, a double, a long double, or a long long, then a message sent to nil returns 0. If the method returns a struct, as defined by the Mac OS X ABI Function Call Guide to be returned in registers, then a message sent to nil returns 0.0 for every field in the data structure. Other struct data types will not be filled with zeros. If the method returns anything other than the aforementioned value types the return value of a message sent to nil is undefined. Has Java rendered my brain incapable of grokking the explanation above? Or is there something that I am missing that would make this as clear as glass? Note: Yes, I do get the idea of messages/receivers in Objective-C, I am simply confused about a receiver that happens to be nil.

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  • ASP.NET configuration inheritance

    - by NowYouHaveTwoProblems
    I have an ASP.NET application that defines a custom configuration section in web.config. Recently I had a customer who wanted to deploy two instances of the application (for testing in addition to an existing production application). The configuration chosen by the customer was: foo.com - production application foo.com/Testing - test application In this case, the ASP.NET configuration engine decided to apply the settings at foo.com/web.config to foo.com/Testing/web.config. Thankfully this caused a configuration error because the section was redefined at the second level rather than giving the false impression that the two web applications were isolated. What I would like to do is to specify that my configuration section is not inherited and must be re-defined for any web application that requires it but I haven't been able to find a way to do this. My web.config ends up something like this <configuration> <configSections> <section name="MyApp" type="MyApp.ConfigurationSection"/> </configSections> <MyApp setting="value" /> <NestedSettingCollection> <Item key="SomeKey" value="SomeValue" /> <Item key="SomeOtherKey" value="SomeOtherValue" /> </NestedSettingCollection> </MyApp> </configuration>

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  • Enums and inheritance

    - by devoured elysium
    I will use (again) the following class hierarchy: Event and all the following classes inherit from Event: SportEventType1 SportEventType2 SportEventType3 SportEventType4 I have originally designed the Event class like this: public abstract class Event { public abstract EventType EventType { get; } public DateTime Time { get; protected set; } protected Event(DateTime time) { Time = time; } } with EventType being defined as: public enum EventType { Sport1, Sport2, Sport3, Sport4 } The original idea would be that each SportEventTypeX class would set its correct EventType. Now that I think of it, I think this approach is totally incorrect for two reasons: If I want to later add a new SportEventType class I will have to modify the enum If I later decide to remove one SportEventType that I feel I won't use I'm also in big trouble with the enum. I have a class variable in the Event class that makes, afterall, assumptions about the kind of classes that will inherit from it, which kinda defeats the purpose of inheritance. How would you solve this kind of situation? Define in the Event class an abstract "Description" property, having each child class implement it? Having an Attribute(Annotation in Java!) set its Description variable instead? What would be the pros/cons of having a class variable instead of attribute/annotation in this case? Is there any other more elegant solution out there? Thanks

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  • How to use XML namespace prefixes without xmlns="..." everywhere? (.NET)

    - by LonelyPixel
    The subject is probably too short to explain it... I'm writing out XML files with no namespace stuff at all, for some application. That part I cannot change. But now I'm going to extend those files with my own application-defined element names, and I'd like to put them in a different namespace. For this, the result should look like this: <doc xmlns:x="urn:my-app-uri"> <a>existing element name</a> <x:addon>my additional element name</x:addon> </doc> I've used an XmlNamespaceManager and added my URI with the prefix "x" to it. I've also passed it to each CreateElement for my additional element names. But the nearest I can get is this: <doc> <a>existing element name</a> <addon xmlns="urn:my-app-uri">my additional element name</addon> </doc> Or maybe also <x:addon xmlns:x="urn:my-app-uri">my additional element name</x:addon> So the point is that my URI is written to every single of my additional elements, and no common prefix is written to the document element where I'd like to have it. How can I get the above XML result with .NET?

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  • Destroy? Delete? What's going on here? Rails 2.3.5

    - by Steve
    I am new to rails. My rails version is 2.3.5. I found usage like: In controller, a destroy method is defined and in view, you can use :action = "delete" to fire that method. Isn't the action name has to be the same as the method name? Why delete is mapped to destroy? Again, in my controller, I define a method called destroy to delete a record. In a view, I have <%= link_to "remove", :action = 'destroy', :id = myrecord %. But it never works in practice. Every time I press the remove link, it redirects me to the show view, showing the record's content. I am pretty sure that my destroy method is: def destroy @myobject = MyObject.find(params[:id]) @myobject.destroy @redirect_to :action = 'index' end If I change the method name from destroy to something like remove_me and change the action name to remove_me in the view, everything works as expected. In the above two wired problems, I am sure there is no tricky rountting set in my configuration. All in all, seems the destroy and delete are mysterious keywords in rails. Anyone can explain this to me? Thank you very much.

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  • Set all nonzero matrix elements to 1 (while keeping the others 0)

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I have a mesh grid defined as [X, Y, Z] = meshgrid(-100:100, -100:100, 25); % z will have more values later and two shapes (ovals, in this case): x_offset_1 = 40; x_offset_2 = -x_offset_1; o1 = ((X-x_offset_1).^2./(2*Z).^2+Y.^2./Z.^2 <= 1); o2 = ((X-x_offset_2).^2./(2*Z).^2+Y.^2./Z.^2 <= 1); Now, I want to find all points that are nonzero in either oval. I tried union = o1+o2; but since I simply add them, the overlapping region will have a value of 2 instead of the desired 1. How can I set all nonzero entries in the matrix to 1, regardless of their previous value? (I tried normalized_union = union./union;, but then I end up with NaN in all 0 elements because I'm dividing by zero...) Follow-up question: I got a perfect answer to my original question, but now I have a follow-up question on the same problem. I'm going to define a filled disc, c = (X.^2+Y.^2<R^2) that will also overlap with the two ovals. How do I find all the points that are inside the circle, but not inside any of the ovals?

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  • Use external inline script as local function

    - by Aidan
    Had this closed once as a duplicate, yet the so-called duplicate DID NOT actually address my whole question. I have found this script that, when run inline, returns your IP. <script type="text/javascript" src="http://l2.io/ip.js"></script> http://l2.io/ip.js Has nothing more than a line of code that says document.write('123.123.123.123'); (But obviously with the user's IP address) I want to use this IP address as a return string for a function DEFINED EXTERNALLY, BUT STILL ON MY DOMAIN. That is, I have a "scripts.js" that contains all the scripts I wish to use, and I would like to include it in that list as a local function that calls to the 12.io function, but javascript won't allow the < tags, so I am unsure as to how to do this. I.e. function getIP() { return (THAT SCRIPT'S OUTPUT); } This is the topic this was supposedly a duplicate of, and it is very similar. Get ip address with javascript However, this DOES NOT address defining as a forwarded script it in my own script file.

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