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  • Grails 1.2.0 not finding plugins in the default repository.

    - by Padraic
    I do not know what changed in my environment, but all of a sudden I can not pull any plugins from the default repository. I went through the _*.groovy scripts and nothing has changed in my grails home directory and it appears that the default repository url is set correctly (DEFAULT_PLUGIN_DIST = "http://plugins.grails.org"). I am assuming it is an environment setting that changed on me, because if I switch to an old version of grails that I have installed, 1.1.1 for example, list-plugins is returning a full list of plugins. When I run grails list-plugins in my current 1.2.0 environment I get the following output: Welcome to Grails 1.2.0 - http://grails.org/ Licensed under Apache Standard License 2.0 Grails home is set to: /opt/grails-1.2.0 Base Directory: /Users/padraic/Projects/TestApplicationMachine Resolving dependencies... Dependencies resolved in 1633ms. Running script /opt/grails-1.2.0/scripts/ListPlugins_.groovy Environment set to development Reading remote plugin list ... Plug-ins available in the core repository are listed below: hibernate <1.3.0.RC2 -- Hibernate for Grails tomcat <1.3.0.RC2 -- Apache Tomcat plugin for Grails webflow <1.3.0.RC2 -- Spring Web Flow Plugin Reading remote plugin list ... Plug-ins available in the default repository are listed below: spock <0.4-groovy-1.7-SNAPSHOT -- Spock Integration - spockframework.org Plug-ins you currently have installed are listed below: cloud-foundry 0.2 -- Cloud Foundry Plugin for Grails hibernate 1.2.0 -- Hibernate for Grails tomcat 1.2.0 -- Apache Tomcat plugin for Grails I find it very strange that it only finds the spock plugin. It makes me thing that either a)it is going to the wrong repository or b)my version setting is incorrect. Any ideas? Thanks, Padraic

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  • Core Data - Entity Relationships Not Working as expected

    - by slimms
    I have set up my data model in xcode like so EntityA AttA1 AttA2 EntityB AttB1 AttB2 AttB3 I then set up the relationships EntityA Name: rlpToEntityB Destination: EntityB Inverse: rlpToEntityA To Many: Checked EntityB Name: rlpToEntityA Destination: EntityA Inverse: rlpToEntityB To Many: UnChecked i.e. relationship between the two where Each one of EntityA can have many EntityB's It is my understanding that if i fetch a subset of EntityB's I can then retrieve the values for the related EntityA's. I have this working so that i can retrieve the EntityB values using NSManagedObject *objMO = [fetchedResultsController objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; strValueFromEntityB = [objMO valueForKey:@"AttB1"]; However, if I try to retrieve a related value from EntityA by doing the following strValueFromEntityA = [objMO valueForKey:@"AttA1"]; I get the error "The entity EntityB is not Key value coding-compliant for the key Atta1" Not surprisingly i suppose if i switch things around to fetch from EntityA i cannot access attributes of EntityB So it appears the defined relationshipare being ignored. Can anyone spot what i am doing wrong? I confess im very new to iPhone programming and especially to Core Data so please go easy on me and provide verbose explanations or point me in the direction a specific resource. I have downloaded the apple sample apps (Core Data Books, Top Songs and recipes) but I still can't work this out. Thanks in advance, Nev.

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  • Can't catch KEY_VALUE_BASIC_INFORMATION.Name in CmRegisterCallback

    - by alex
    I want to hide in registry name of key value. I write driver, that using CmRegisterCallback. But I can't catch name of key value that I need. When I DbgPrint PKEY_VALUE_BASIC_INFORMATION-Name I get only symbols [ , u . Where is my mistake? Can anybody help me?My RegistryCallback source: NTSTATUS RegistryCallback(PVOID CallbackContext, PVOID Argument1, PVOID Argument2) { PDEVICE_CONTEXT pContext = (PDEVICE_CONTEXT) CallbackContext; REG_NOTIFY_CLASS Action = (REG_NOTIFY_CLASS) Argument1; UNICODE_STRING regKeyNameValueToHide = {0}; try { switch (Action) { case RegNtEnumerateValueKey: { PREG_ENUMERATE_VALUE_KEY_INFORMATION pInfo = (PREG_ENUMERATE_VALUE_KEY_INFORMATION) Argument2; //DbgPrint(pInfo->ValueName->Buffer); RtlInitUnicodeString(&regKeyNameValueToHide,L"alex-56328943333"); if(pInfo->KeyValueInformationClass == KeyValueBasicInformation) { PKEY_VALUE_BASIC_INFORMATION pKeyValueBasicInfirmation = (PKEY_VALUE_BASIC_INFORMATION) pInfo->KeyValueInformation; UNICODE_STRING regKeyNameValue = {0}; RtlInitUnicodeString(&regKeyNameValue,pKeyValueBasicInfirmation->Name); if (RtlEqualUnicodeString(&regKeyNameValue, &regKeyNameValueToHide, 1)) { return STATUS_CALLBACK_BYPASS; } } else if(pInfo->KeyValueInformationClass == KeyValueFullInformation) { PKEY_VALUE_FULL_INFORMATION pKeyValueFullInfirmation = (PKEY_VALUE_FULL_INFORMATION) pInfo->KeyValueInformation; UNICODE_STRING regKeyNameValue = {0}; RtlInitUnicodeString(&regKeyNameValue,pKeyValueFullInfirmation->Name); if (RtlEqualUnicodeString(&regKeyNameValue, &regKeyNameValueToHide, 1)) { return STATUS_CALLBACK_BYPASS; } } break; } default: { return STATUS_SUCCESS break; } } } except (EXCEPTION_EXECUTE_HANDLER) { DbgPrint("Exception in RegistryCallback!!!"); } return STATUS_SUCCESS; }

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  • SEO - Problems possibly related to 301 Moved Permanently

    - by ILMV
    Right, here's the story: We have had a website for one of our brands now for many years, the site design was very bad and recently did a complete overhaul, mostly design, but also some of the backend code. The original site was using links such as this example.com/products/item/127 and thus I wanted to change them to be move user friendly, especially to include the product name, the same link now reads example.com/product/127/my-jucy-product/. Since our switch over we have seen our Google results take a beating (we were on the first page for our normal search terms, now we're nearer the 4th!). The other problem we're having is that the links to the old products haven't updated to the new links despite me coding a 301 redirect from old to new. The 301 is not being fired from .htaccess, but in our PHP framework. I had a look at how the site is being loaded from a old link that is still in Google and here's what firebug is reporting: GET <google link> 302 Found GET example.com/products/item/127 302 Found GET example.com/products/item/127 301 Moved Permanently GET example.com/product/127/my-jucy-product/ 302 Found So the Google link has a 302, good. But when the old link comes in our framework is returning a 302! It's only afterwards when it finally hits the right part of the framework does it 301, so here's my question: Is the reason our old links have not changed and our Google Ranking has significantly nose dived because Google is seeing a 302 before the 301? At the time I was reluctant to mess with our .htaccess because it had become pretty complicated and I was under some pretty intense time constraints, now I'm wondering whether this was an incorrect disicion and perhaps I should revisit it. Many thanks! Edit Bugger, just signed up to the Webmaster Tools and I'm getting redirect errors all over the place, hundreds of them! I think this is my problem.

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  • WPF ValidationRule Validate when the control is loaded

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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  • Spring - How do you set Enum keys in a Map with annotations

    - by al nik
    Hi all, I've an Enum class public enum MyEnum{ ABC; } than my 'Mick' class has this property private Map<MyEnum, OtherObj> myMap; I've this spring xml configuration. <util:map id="myMap"> <entry key="ABC" value-ref="myObj" /> </util:map> <bean id="mick" class="com.x.Mick"> <property name="myMap" ref="myMap" /> </bean> and this is fine. I'd like to replace this xml configuration with Spring annotations. Do you have any idea on how to autowire the map? The problem here is that if I switch from xml config to the @Autowired annotation (on the myMap attribute of the Mick class) Spring is throwing this exception nested exception is org.springframework.beans.FatalBeanException: Key type [class com.MyEnum] of map [java.util.Map] must be assignable to [java.lang.String] Spring is no more able to recognize the string ABC as a MyEnum.ABC object. Any idea? Thanks

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  • Capture *all* display-characters in JavaScript?

    - by Jean-Charles
    I was given an unusual request recently that I'm having the most difficult time addressing that involves capturing all display-characters when typed into a text box. The set up is as follows: I have a text box that has a maxlength of 10 characters. When the user attempts to type more than 10 characters, I need to notify the user that they're typing beyond the character count limit. The simplest solution would be to specify a maxlength of 11, test the length on every keyup, and truncate back down to 10 characters but this solution seems a bit kludgy. What I'd prefer to do is capture the character before keyup and, depending on whether or not it is a display-character, present the notification to the user and prevent the default action. A white-list would be challenging since we handle a lot of international data. I've played around with every combination of keydown, keypress, and keyup, reading event.keyCode, event.charCode, and event.which, but I can't find a single combination that works across all browsers. The best I could manage is the following that works properly in =IE6, Chrome5, FF3.6, but fails in Opera: NOTE: The following code utilizes jQuery. $(function(){ $('#textbox').keypress(function(e){ var $this = $(this); var key = ('undefined'==typeof e.which?e.keyCode:e.which); if ($this.val().length==($this.attr('maxlength')||10)) { switch(key){ case 13: //return case 9: //tab case 27: //escape case 8: //backspace case 0: //other non-alphanumeric break; default: alert('no - '+e.charCode+' - '+e.which+' - '+e.keyCode); return false; }; } }); }); I'll grant that what I'm doing is likely over-engineering the solution but now that I'm invested in it, I'd like to know of a solution. Thanks for your help!

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  • Migration of .NET COM object to 64 bit.

    - by Victor Ronin
    Hi, We have C++ application which uses several COM object. COM object are .NET based (using COM Interop). I need to migrate application to 64 bit. I specifically need C++ application to be 64 bit. I don't want to recompile all of .NET com object to 64 bit and deliver two sets of DLL's (32 bit and 64 bit). I was investigating and found that I can load 32 bit COM Dll's in 32 bit surrogate process using (DllSurrogate in registry). I know how to do that, but it means that all COM objects will become out of process. In the C++ I had the code: CoCreateInstance(CLSID_SomeClass, NULL, CLSCTX_INPROC_SERVER, IID_SomeInterface, (void**)&pobj); It worked fine, but as soon as I switch to CLSCTX_LOCAL_SERVER (and add registry keys for DllSurrogate), it can't find interfaces (error 0x80004002). I checked registry and found out that when .NET COM DLL is registered, it adds ClsID registry keys, but doesn't add Interface and TypeLib registry key. The question is, how to create these registry keys for .NET COM? Regards, Victor

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  • Dynamically create a text file from a C# program

    - by techstu
    Can I dynamically create a text file from a C# program, using data from a previously created xml file and text file, I have written half the code, but can't go any further please help using System; using System.IO; using System.Xml; namespace Task3 { class TextFileReader { static void Main(string[] args) { String strn=" ", strsn=String.Empty; XmlTextReader reader = new XmlTextReader("my.xml"); while (reader.Read()) { switch (reader.NodeType) { case XmlNodeType.Element: // The node is an element. if (reader.HasAttributes) { strn = reader.GetAttribute(0); strsn = reader.GetAttribute(1); int counter = 0; string line; // Read the file and display it line by line. System.IO.StreamReader file = new System.IO.StreamReader("read_file.txt"); string ch, ch1; while ((line = file.ReadLine()) != null) { if (line.Substring(0, 1).Equals("%")) { int a = line.IndexOf('%'); int b = line.LastIndexOf('%'); ch = line.Substring(a + 1, b - 1); ch1 = line.Substring(a, b+1); if (ch == "name") { string test = line.Replace(ch1, strn); Console.WriteLine(test); } else if (ch == "sirname") { string test = line.Replace(ch1, strsn); Console.WriteLine(test); } } else { Console.WriteLine(line); } counter++; } file.Close(); } break; } } // Suspend the screen. Console.ReadLine(); } } } the xml file from which i am reading is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> - <Workflow> <User UserName="pqr" Sirname="sbd" /> <User UserName="abc" Sirname="xyz" /> </Workflow> and the text file is: hi this is me %sirname% %name% but this is not wat i want..please help

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  • Invalid argument supplied for foreach() using adldap

    - by Brad
    I am using adldap http://adldap.sourceforge.net/ And I am passing the session from page to page, and checking to make sure the username within the session is a member of a certain member group, for this example, it is the STAFF group. <?php ini_set('display_errors',1); error_reporting(E_ALL); require_once('/web/ee_web/include/adLDAP.php'); $adldap = new adLDAP(); session_start(); $group = "STAFF"; //$authUser = $adldap->authenticate($username, $password); $result=$adldap->user_groups($_SESSION['user_session']); foreach($result as $key=>$value) { switch($value) { case $group: print '<h3>'.$group.'</h3>'; break; default: print '<h3>Did not find specific value: '.$value.'</h3>'; } if($value == $group) { print 'for loop broke'; break; } } ?> It gives me the error: Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() on line 15, which is this line of code: foreach($result as $key=$value) { When I uncomment the code $authUser = $adldap-authenticate($username, $password); and enter in the appropriate username and password, it works fine, but I shouldn't have to, since the session is valid, I just want to see if the username stored within the valid_session is apart of the STAFF group. Why would it be giving me that problem?

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  • Function within function in R

    - by frespider
    Can you please explain to me why th code complain saying that Samdat is not found? I am trying to switch between the models as you can see, so i declared a functions that contains these specific models and I just need to call these function as one of the argument in the get.f function where the resampling will change the structure for each design matrix in the model. the code complain the Samdat is not found when it is found. Also, is there a way I can make the condition statement as if(Model == M1()) instead I have to create another argument M to set if(M==1) Can you explain please? dat <- cbind(Y=rnorm(20),rnorm(20),runif(20),rexp(20),rnorm(20),runif(20), rexp(20),rnorm(20),runif(20),rexp(20)) nam <- paste("v",1:9,sep="") colnames(dat) <- c("Y",nam) M1 <- function(){ a1 = cbind(Samdat[,c(2:5,7,9)]) b1 = cbind(Samdat[,c(2:4,6,8,7)]) c1 = b1+a1 list(a1=a1,b1=b1,c1=c1)} M2 <- function(){ a1= cbind(Samdat[,c(2:5,7,9)])+2 b1= cbind(Samdat[,c(2:4,6,8,7)])+2 c1 = a1+b1 list(a1=a1,b1=b1,c1=c1)} M3 <- function(){ a1= cbind(Samdat[,c(2:5,7,9)])+8 b1= cbind(Samdat[,c(2:4,6,8,7)])+8 c1 = a1+b1 list(a1=a1,b1=b1,c1=c1)} ################################################################# get.f <- function(asim,Model,M){ sse <-c() for(i in 1:asim){ set.seed(i) Samdat <- dat[sample(1:nrow(dat),nrow(dat),replace=T),] Y <- Samdat[,1] if(M==1){ a2 <- Model$a1 b2 <- Model$b1 c2 <- Model$c1 s<- a2+b2+c2 fit <- lm(Y~s) cof <- sum(summary(fit)$coef[,1]) coff <-Model$cof sse <-c(sse,coff) } else if(M==2){ a2 <- Model$a1 b2 <- Model$b1 c2 <- Model$c1 s<- c2+12 fit <- lm(Y~s) cof <- sum(summary(fit)$coef[,1]) coff <-Model$cof sse <-c(sse,coff) } else { a2 <- Model$a1 b2 <- Model$b1 c2 <- Model$c1 s<- c2+a2 fit <- lm(Y~s) cof <- sum(summary(fit)$coef[,1]) coff <- Model$cof sse <-c(sse,coff) } } return(sse) } get.f(10,Model=M1(),M=1) get.f(10,Model=M2(),M=2) get.f(10,Model=M3(),M=3)

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  • Replicating SQL's 'Join' in Python

    - by Daniel Mathews
    I'm in the process of trying to switch from R to Python (mainly issues around general flexibility). With Numpy, matplotlib and ipython, I've am able to cover all my use cases save for merging 'datasets'. I would like to simulate SQL's join by clause (inner, outer, full) purely in python. R handles this with the 'merge' function. I've tried the numpy.lib.recfunctions join_by, but it critical issues with duplicates along the 'key': join_by(key, r1, r2, jointype='inner', r1postfix='1', r2postfix='2', defaults=None, usemask=True, asrecarray=False) Join arrays r1 and r2 on key key. The key should be either a string or a sequence of string corresponding to the fields used to join the array. An exception is raised if the key field cannot be found in the two input arrays. Neither r1 nor r2 should have any duplicates along key: the presence of duplicates will make the output quite unreliable. Note that duplicates are not looked for by the algorithm. source: http://presbrey.mit.edu:1234/numpy.lib.recfunctions.html Any pointers or help will be most appreciated!

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  • Two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and don't provide straight forward answers. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

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  • Strange behaviour using Drag and Drop in word 2003 automation in headers

    - by Oliver Hanappi
    Hi! I am developing a template based addin for Word 2003 which allows the user to drag and drop elements from a listbox into the word document. Unfortunately I'm getting a really strange behaviour when trying to drop elements in the document's header. Open the template and type something in the header Close the header and insert some content on the page Add a page break. Switch to page layout mode where and set zoom level to "Two Pages" Open the header Slowly Drag and Drop an list item from the list box to the header. See multiple Page Setups dialogs occur which cause Word to crash. Here is my code: // in ThisDocument.cs public MyUserControl _control; public void Init() { _control = new MyUserControl(); ActionsPane.Controls.Add(_control); ActionsPane.Visible = true; } // in MyUserControl.cs public void listBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { DoDragDrop("something", DragDropEffects.Copy); } Have I done somethinkg wrong with implementing Drag and Drop? Is there a workaround for this strange behaviour? Thanks in advance, Oliver Hanappi

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  • Removing a platform from Configuration Manager

    - by demoncodemonkey
    I have a solution containing C# and C++/CLI projects. There are 3 platforms in my solution: Any CPU Win32 Mixed Platforms I never want to "just build the C# ones" or "just build the C++ ones", I always want to build all projects. So the platforms metaphor is meaningless to me, I'll leave it on Mixed Platforms or whatever as long as they all build. Now VS sometimes automatically switches the current platform to Any CPU (I'm not sure when or why). This means that pressing F7 will only try to build the C# projects, which is obviously no good. So I have to switch back to Mixed Platforms and try again. So how to workaround this irritating problem? I have tried 2 ways: In Configuration Manager, remove Any CPU and Win32 platforms. This worked until I added a new project and Visual Studio very kindly added them back in... :/ In Configuration Manager, check all checkboxes for all projects in all configurations in all platforms. This becomes a nightmare to manage with many projects in the solution. Any other ideas?

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  • Ninject InThreadScope Binding

    - by e36M3
    I have a Windows service that contains a file watcher that raises events when a file arrives. When an event is raised I will be using Ninject to create business layer objects that inside of them have a reference to an Entity Framework context which is also injected via Ninject. In my web applications I always used InRequestScope for the context, that way within one request all business layer objects work with the same Entity Framework context. In my current Windows service scenario, would it be sufficient to switch the Entity Framework context binding to a InThreadScope binding? In theory when an event handler in the service triggers it's executed under some thread, then if another file arrives simultaneously it will be executing under a different thread. Therefore both events will not be sharing an Entity Framework context, in essence just like two different http requests on the web. One thing that bothers me is the destruction of these thread scoped objects, when you look at the Ninject wiki: .InThreadScope() - One instance of the type will be created per thread. .InRequestScope() - One instance of the type will be created per web request, and will be destroyed when the request ends. Based on this I understand that InRequestScope objects will be destroyed (garbage collected?) when (or at some point after) the request ends. This says nothing however on how InThreadScope objects are destroyed. To get back to my example, when the file watcher event handler method is completed, the thread goes away (back to the thread pool?) what happens to the InThreadScope-d objects that were injected? EDIT: One thing is clear now, that when using InThreadScope() it will not destroy your object when the handler for the filewatcher exits. I was able to reproduce this by dropping many files in the folder and eventually I got the same thread id which resulted in the same exact Entity Framework context as before, so it's definitely not sufficient for my applications. In this case a file that came in 5 minutes later could be using a stale context that was assigned to the same thread before.

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  • Sharepoint isn't accepting new Credentials initially when switching users.

    - by Tiziani
    Hi all, I have a standard website (one webapplication and one site collection) with some custom pages and webparts. The issue I'm having is that when I try to switch users, using the "Sign In As a Different User" and entering new credentials (even for another site collection admin account), IE tries the account three times, and then it presents a 401 Access Denied screen. After that, if I erase all the stuff of access denied page from the browser's url, I'm logged as the new account I just had entered and was not accepted. After researching for a while on google, I found a KB ( http://support.microsoft.com/kb/970814 ) that might relate, but just tested here and it didn't work at all. The modified method suggested by the KB is the following: function LoginAsAnother(url, bUseSource) { document.cookie="loginAsDifferentAttemptCount=0"; if (bUseSource=="1") { GoToPage(url); } else { //var ch=url.indexOf("?") =0 ? "&" : "?"; //url+=ch+"Source="+escapeProperly(window.location.href); //STSNavigate(url); document.execCommand("ClearAuthenticationCache"); } } But after making this change, it no longer asks for a new credential. Any ideas?

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  • Add double tap action (presentModalViewController) to UISCOLLVIEW

    - by R.J.
    I have been wrestling this issue for a while now and cannot seem to get the following "touchesEnded" method to execute within a UISCROLLVIEW. I have read on many of the forums that UISCROLLVIEW will take control of all touch events unless it is subclassed, but I cannot seem to get the code right (still new to the SDK). Basically I have a scrollview made uo with several UIIMAGEVIEW's and currenlty have scrolling with paging (much like the photo app). I have been studying the SCROLLING MADDNESS example without success. All I want to do is anywhere in the UISCROLLVIEW have the user double tap to presentModalViewController back to my info page (i.e.) (void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSSet *allTouches = [event allTouches]; switch ([allTouches count]) { case 1: {// One finger touch UITouch *touch = [[allTouches allObjects] objectAtIndex:0]; if ([touch tapCount] == 2) {InfoButtonViewController *scroll = [[InfoButtonViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; scroll.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:scroll animated:YES]; [scroll release]; } } } } Any code assistance would be greatly appreciated. The UISCROLLVIEW is implemented as follows (let me know if I need to provide additional details). Thank you in advance... MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController { } @end

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  • PostgreSQL: BYTEA vs OID+Large Object?

    - by mlaverd
    I started an application with Hibernate 3.2 and PostgreSQL 8.4. I have some byte[] fields that were mapped as @Basic (= PG bytea) and others that got mapped as @Lob (=PG Large Object). Why the inconsistency? Because I was a Hibernate noob. Now, those fields are max 4 Kb (but average is 2-3 kb). The PostgreSQL documentation mentioned that the LOs are good when the fields are big, but I didn't see what 'big' meant. I have upgraded to PostgreSQL 9.0 with Hibernate 3.6 and I was stuck to change the annotation to @Type(type="org.hibernate.type.PrimitiveByteArrayBlobType"). This bug has brought forward a potential compatibility issue, and I eventually found out that Large Objects are a pain to deal with, compared to a normal field. So I am thinking of changing all of it to bytea. But I am concerned that bytea fields are encoded in Hex, so there is some overhead in encoding and decoding, and this would hurt the performance. Are there good benchmarks about the performance of both of these? Anybody has made the switch and saw a difference?

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  • applicationWillTerminate Appears to be Inconsistent

    - by Lauren Quantrell
    This one has me batty. In applicationWillTerminate I am doing two things: saving some settings to the app settings plist file and updating any changed data to the SQLite database referenced in the managedObjectContext. Problem is it works sometimes and not others. Same issue in the simulator and on the device. If I hit the home button while the app is running, I can only sometimes get the data to store in the plist and into the CoreData store. It seems that it's both works or neither works, and it makes no difference if I switch the execution order (saveState, managedObjectContext or managedObjectContext, saveState). I can't figure out how this can happen. Any help is greatly appreciated. lq AppDelegate.m @synthesize rootViewController; - (void)applicationWillTerminate:(UIApplication *)application { [rootViewController saveState]; NSError *error; if (managedObjectContext != nil) { if ([managedObjectContext hasChanges] && ![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // Handle error exit(-1); // Fail } } } RootViewController.m - (void)saveState { NSUserDefaults *userDefaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; [userDefaults setInteger:self.someInteger forKey:kSomeNumber]; [userDefaults setObject:self.someArray forKey:kSomeArray]; }

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  • IPhone SDK removal of NSLog causes NSArray to be undeclared !

    - by Maxwell Segal
    I have a working application I'm about to distribute and am tidying up NSLog statements in it. When I remove NSLog from from a "case" statement, the NSArray declared within the "case" statement errors as Expected expression before AND undeclared. Anybody any idea why this may be? This is happening on all case statements in my app where I'm now removing NSLog. An example code sections appears below: switch (chosenScene) { case 0: //NSLog(@"group1"); // the following NSArray errors with "expected expression.." AND "..group1Secondsarray undeclared" NSArray *group1SecondsArray = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"Dummy",@"1/15",@"1/30",@"1/30",@"1/60",@"1/125",@"1/250",nil]; NSArray *group1FStopArray = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"Dummy",@"2.8",@"2.8",@"4",@"5.6",@"5.6",@"5.6",nil]; NSString *group1SecondsText = [group1SecondsArray objectAtIndex:slider.value]; calculatedSeconds.text = group1SecondsText; NSString *group1FStopText = [group1FStopArray objectAtIndex:slider.value]; calculatedFStop.text = group1FStopText; [group1SecondsText release]; [group1FStopText release]; break;

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  • Compiler error when overwriting virtual methods

    - by Stefan Hubert
    Using VC71 compiler and get compiler errors, that i don't understand. Here comes the example class A { public: virtual int& myMethod() = 0; virtual const int& myMethod()const = 0; }; class B: public A { public: // generates: error C3241: 'const int &B::myMethod(void)' : this method was not introduced by 'A' virtual const int& A::myMethod() const; virtual int& A::myMethod(); }; when i switch order of both method definitions in B then I see a different compiler error: class B: public A { public: virtual const int& A::myMethod() const; // error C2556: 'const int &B::myMethod(void)' : overloaded function differs only by return type from 'int &B::myMethod(void)' // error C2373: 'B::myMethod' : redefinition; different type modifiers virtual int& A::myMethod(); }; however, if I omit the A:: stuff then i don't get any compiler error: class B: public A { public: virtual int& myMethod(); virtual const int& myMethod() const; }; So, what exactly does A:: in front of my method names and why do i see these diverse compiler errors? Any explanation welcome!

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  • How do I fork a maximum of 5 child processes of the parent at any one time?

    - by bstullkid
    I have the following code, which I'm trying to only allow a maximum of 5 children to run at a time, but I can't figure out how to decrement the child count when a child exits. struct { char *s1; char *s2; } s[] = { {"one", "oneB"}, {"two", "twoB"}, {"three", "thr4eeB"}, {"asdf", "3th43reeB"}, {"asdfasdf", "thr33eeB"}, {"asdfasdfasdf", "thdfdreeB"}, {"af3c3", "thrasdfeeB"}, {"fec33", "threfdeB"}, {NULL, NULL} }; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { int i, im5, children = 0; int pid = fork(); for (i = 0; s[i].s2; i++) { im5 = 0; switch (pid) { case -1: { printf("Error\n"); exit(255); } case 0: { printf("%s -> %s\n", s[i].s1, s[i].s2); if (i==5) im5 = 1; printf("%d\n", im5); sleep(i); exit(1); } default: { // Here is where I need to sleep the parent until chilren < 5 // so where do i decrement children so that it gets modified in the parent process? while(children > 5) sleep(1); children++; pid = fork(); } } } return 1; }

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  • Apache with JBOSS using AJP (mod_jk) giving spikes in thread count.

    - by Beginner
    We used Apache with JBOSS for hosting our Application, but we found some issues related to thread handling of mod_jk. Our website comes under low traffic websites and has maximum 200-300 concurrent users during our website's peak activity time. As the traffic grows (not in terms of concurrent users, but in terms of cumulative requests which came to our server), the server stopped serving requests for long, although it didn't crash but could not serve the request till 20 mins. The JBOSS server console showed that 350 thread were busy on both servers although there was enough free memory say, more than 1-1.5 GB (2 servers for JBOSS were used which were 64 bits, 4 GB RAM allocated for JBOSS) In order to check the problem we were using JBOSS and Apache Web Consoles, and we were seeing that the thread were showing in S state for as long as minutes although our pages take around 4-5 seconds to be served. We took the thread dump and found that the threads were mostly in WAITING state which means that they were waiting indefinitely. These threads were not of our Application Classes but of AJP 8009 port. Could somebody help me in this, as somebody else might also got this issue and solved it somehow. In case any more information is required then let me know. Also is mod_proxy better than using mod_jk, or there are some other problems with mod_proxy which can be fatal for me if I switch to mod__proxy? The versions I used are as follows: Apache 2.0.52 JBOSS: 4.2.2 MOD_JK: 1.2.20 JDK: 1.6 Operating System: RHEL 4 Thanks for the help.

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  • Excel COM Add-In dialog interrupts script

    - by usac
    Hi all! I have written an Excel COM Add-In in C++ for automation of Excel with VBA. It contains an own dialog showing some general informations about the Add-In. Now i create a button in Excel that opens the dialog. Leaving the dialog with the escape key leads to an Excel message that the script is being interrupted instead of just closing the dialog. I could suppress the interruption message with: Application.EnableCancelKey = xlDisabled But that seems not to be the solution as the script can not be interrupted any more. Here is an example how i use VBA to open the dialog: Private Sub ShowAboutDialog_Click() Dim oComAddIn As COMAddIn Set oComAddIn = Application.COMAddIns.Item("MyComAddIn.Example") oComAddIn.Connect = True Call oComAddIn.Object.ShowAboutDlg End Sub My guess is that the problem is somewhere in the message handler of the dialog: INT_PTR CALLBACK CAboutDialog::AboutDlg( HWND hwndDlg, UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam) { switch(uMsg) { ... case WM_COMMAND: if (LOWORD(wParam) == IDOK || LOWORD(wParam) == IDCANCEL) { // Here, the ESCAPE key should also be trapped? EndDialog(hwndDlg, LOWORD(wParam)); return TRUE; } ... } return FALSE; } The Dialog is created with: DialogBox(g_hModule, MAKEINTRESOURCE(IDD_ABOUT), hWndParent, (DLGPROC)AboutDlg) Thanks a lot!

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